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Test-questions: CISSP exam questions 2023
Question 1:
A security practitioner is tasked with securing the organization\’s Wireless Access Points (WAP).
Which of these is the MOST effective way of restricting this environment to authorized users?
A. Enable Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) encryption on the wireless access point
B. Disable the broadcast of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) name
C. Change the name of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) to a random value not associated with the organization
D. Create Access Control Lists (ACL) based on Media Access Control (MAC) addresses
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when determining the frequency an automated control should be assessed or monitored?
A. The complexity of the automated control
B. The level of automation of the control
C. The range of values of the automated control
D. The volatility of the automated control
Correct Answer: B
Question 3:
What is the FIRST step in developing a patch management plan?
A. Subscribe to a vulnerability subscription service.
B. Develop a patch testing procedure.
C. Inventory the hardware and software used.
D. Identify unnecessary services installed on systems.
Correct Answer: B
Question 4:
What is the MOST effective method to enhance the security of a single sign-on (SSO) solution that interfaces with critical systems?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Reusable tokens for application-level authentication
C. High-performance encryption algorithms
D. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) for all communications
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
Which of the following would be the BEST guideline to follow when attempting to avoid the exposure of sensitive data?
A. Store sensitive data only when necessary.
B. Educate end-users on methods of attacks on sensitive data.
C. Establish report parameters for sensitive data.
D. Monitor mail servers for sensitive data being exfiltrated.
Correct Answer: A
Question 6:
In addition to life, protection of which of the following elements is MOST important when planning a data center site?
A. Data and Hardware
B. Property and operations
C. Profits and assets
D. Resources and Reputation
Correct Answer: D
Question 7:
When selecting a disk encryption technology, which of the following MUST also be assured to be encrypted?
A. Master Boot Record (MBR)
B. Pre-boot environment
C. Basic Input Output System (BIOS)
D. Hibernation file
Correct Answer: A
Question 8:
How can an attacker exploit a stack overflow to execute arbitrary code?
A. Modify a function\’s return address.
B. Move the stack pointer
C. Substitute elements in the stack.
D. Alter the address of the stack.
Correct Answer: A
Question 9:
Which media sanitization methods should be used for data with a high-security categorization?
A. Clear or destroy
B. Clear or purge
C. Destroy or delete
D. Purge or destroy
Correct Answer: D
Question 10:
A chemical plant wants to upgrade the Industrial Control System (ICS) to transmit data using Ethernet instead of RS422. The project manager wants to simplify administration and maintenance by utilizing the office network infrastructure and staff to implement this upgrade.
Which of the following is the GREATEST impact on security for the network?
A. The network administrators have no knowledge of ICS
B. The ICS is now accessible from the office network
C. The ICS does not support the office password policy
D. RS422 is more reliable than Ethernet
Correct Answer: B
Question 11:
A security professional should ensure that clients support which secondary algorithm for digital signatures when a Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (S/MIME) is used.
A. Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)
B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA)
D. Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)
Correct Answer: B
Question 12:
What capability would typically be included in a commercially available software package designed for access control?
A. Password encryption
B. File encryption
C. Source library control
D. File authentication
Correct Answer: A
Question 13:
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular vulnerability scanning of an organization network?
A. Provide vulnerability reports to management.
B. Validate vulnerability remediation activities.
C. Prevent attackers from discovering vulnerabilities.
D. Remediate new vulnerabilities.
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application?
A. Disable all unnecessary services
B. Ensure chain of custody
C. Prepare another backup of the system
D. Isolate the system from the network
Correct Answer: D
Question 15:
If the wide area network (WAN) is supporting converged applications like Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), which of the following becomes even MORE essential to the assurance of network?
A. Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)
B. Deterministic routing
C. Internet Protocol (IP) routing lookups
D. Boundary routing
Correct Answer: C
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Latest-2023 Microsoft AZ-900 real questions (free share)
Question 1:
You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 is in the East US Azure region.
Which Azure service should you use from the Azure portal to view service failure notifications that can affect the availability of VM1?
A. Azure Service Fabric
B. Azure Monitor
C. Azure virtual machines
D. Azure Advisor
Correct Answer: C
In the Azure virtual machines page in the Azure portal, there is a named Maintenance Status. This column will display service issues that could affect your virtual machine. A service failure is rare but host server maintenance that could affect your virtual machines is more common.
Azure periodically updates its platform to improve the reliability, performance, and security of the host infrastructure for virtual machines. The purpose of these updates ranges from patching software components in the hosting environment to upgrading networking components or decommissioning hardware.
Match the Azure service to the correct description.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate Azure service from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Azure SQL Database
SQL Server is a relational database service. Azure SQL Database is a managed SQL Server Database in Azure. The SQL Server is managed by Microsoft; you just have access to the database.
Box 2: Azure SQL Synapse Analytics
Azure SQL Synapse Analytics (previously called Data Warehouse) is a cloud-based Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) offering from Microsoft. It is a large-scale, distributed, MPP (massively parallel processing) relational database technology in the same class of competitors as Amazon Redshift or Snowflake.
Azure SQL Synapse Analytics is an important component of the Modern Data Warehouse multi-platform architecture.
Because Azure SQL Synapse Analytics is an MPP system with a shared-nothing architecture across distributions, it is meant for large-scale analytical workloads which can take advantage of parallelism.
Box 3: Azure Data Lake Analytics
You can process big data jobs in seconds with Azure Data Lake Analytics.
You can process petabytes of data for diverse workload categories such as querying, ETL, analytics, machine learning, machine translation, image processing, and sentiment analysis by leveraging existing libraries written in .NET languages, R or Python.
Box 4: Azure HDInsight.
Apache Hadoop was the original open-source framework for distributed processing and analysis of big data sets on clusters. The Hadoop ecosystem includes related software and utilities, including Apache Hive, Apache HBase, Spark, Kafka, and many others.
Azure HDInsight is a fully managed, full-spectrum, open-source analytics service in the cloud for enterprises.
The Apache Hadoop cluster type in Azure HDInsight allows you to use HDFS, YARN resource management, and a simple MapReduce programming model to process and analyze batch data in parallel.
You plan to create virtual networks and app services in RG1.
You need to prevent the creation of virtual machines only in RG1.
What should you use?
A. a lock
B. an Azure role
C. a tag
D. an Azure policy
Correct Answer: D
Azure policies can be used to define requirements for resource properties during deployment and for already existing resources. Azure Policy controls properties such as the types or locations of resources.
Azure Policy is a service in Azure that you use to create, assign, and manage policies. These policies enforce different rules and effects over your resources, so those resources stay compliant with your corporate standards and service level agreements.
In this question, we would create an Azure policy assigned to the resource group that denies the creation of virtual machines in the resource group.
You could place a read-only lock on the resource group. However, that would prevent the creation of any resources in the resource group, not virtual machines only. Therefore, an Azure Policy is a better solution.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains 5,000 user accounts.
Your company plans to migrate all network resources to Azure and to decommission the on-premises data center.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the impact on users after the planned migration.
What should you recommend?
A. Implement Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
B. Sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
C. Instruct all users to change their password
D. Create a guest user account in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) for each user
Correct Answer: B
To migrate to Azure and decommission the on-premises data center, you would need to create the 5,000 user accounts in Azure Active Directory. The easy way to do this is to sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD). You can even sync their passwords to further minimize the impact on users.
The tool you would use to sync the accounts is Azure AD Connect. The Azure Active Directory Connect synchronization services (Azure AD Connect sync) are a main component of Azure AD Connect.
It takes care of all the operations that are related to synchronizing identity data between your on-premises environment and Azure AD.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.
Your company deploys several virtual machines on-premises and to Azure. ExpressRoute is being deployed and configured for on-premises to Azure connectivity.
Several virtual machines exhibit network connectivity issues.
You need to analyze the network traffic to identify whether packets are being allowed or denied to the virtual machines.
Solution: Use Azure Traffic Analytics in Azure Network Watcher to analyze the network traffic.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead use Azure Network Watcher IP Flow Verify, which allows you to detect traffic filtering issues at a VM level.
Note: IP flow verification checks if a packet is allowed or denied to or from a virtual machine. The information consists of direction, protocol, local IP, remote IP, local port, and a remote port. If the packet is denied by a security group, the name of the rule that denied the packet is returned.
While any source or destination IP can be chosen, IP flow verification helps administrators quickly diagnose connectivity issues from or to the internet and from or to the on-premises environment.
Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Question 10:
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Yes
You can send Azure AD activity logs to Azure Monitor logs to enable rich visualizations, monitoring, and alerting on the connected data.
All data collected by Azure Monitor fits into one of two fundamental types, metrics, and logs (including Azure AD activity logs). Activity logs record when resources are created or modified. Metrics tell you how the resource is performing and the resources that it\’s consuming.
Box 2: Yes
Azure Monitor can consolidate log entries from multiple Azure resources, subscriptions, and tenants into one location for analysis together.
Box 3: Yes
You can create alerts in Azure Monitor.
Alerts in Azure Monitor proactively notify you of critical conditions and potentially attempt to take corrective action. Alert rules based on metrics provide near real-time alerting based on numeric values, while rules based on logs allow for complex logic across data from multiple sources.
Match the Azure services to the appropriate descriptions.
To answer, drag the appropriate service from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation: Box 1: ExpressRoute ExpressRoute lets you extend your on-premises networks into the Microsoft Cloud over a private connection with the help of a connectivity provider. With ExpressRoute, you can establish connections to Microsoft cloud services, such as Microsoft Azure and Microsoft 365.
Box 2: Virtual network peering enables you to seamlessly connect two or more Virtual Networks in Azure. The virtual networks appear as one for connectivity purposes. The traffic between virtual machines in peered virtual networks uses the Microsoft backbone infrastructure.
Box 3: VPN gateway VPN gateways provide secure connectivity between multiple sites, such as on-premises data centers, Google Cloud Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) networks, and Google Cloud VMware Engine private clouds. Traffic is encrypted because the VPN connections traverse the internet.
Your company plans 10 migrate all its data and resources to Azure.
The company\’s migration plan states that only Platform as a Service (PaaS) solutions must be used in Azure
You need to deploy an Azure environment that meets the company\’s migration plan
What should you create?
A. an Azure App Service and Azure SQL databases
B. Azure storage accounts and web server in Azure virtual machines
C. Azure virtual machines. Azure SQL databases, and Azure Storage accounts
D. an Azure App Service and Azure virtual machines that have Microsoft SQL Server installed
Correct Answer: A
Azure App Service and Azure SQL databases are examples of Azure PaaS solutions. Therefore, this solution does meet the goal.
Question 13:
What is the longest term you can purchase for Azure Reserved VM Instances?
A. three years
B. four years
C. one year
D. five years
Correct Answer: A
Question 14:
Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.
Your company is planning to migrate all its virtual machines to an Azure pay-as-you-go subscription. The virtual machines are currently hosted on the Hyper-V hosts in a data center.
You are required to make sure that the intended Azure solution uses the correct expenditure model.
Solution: You should recommend the use of the elastic expenditure model.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Question 15:
You have an Azure Sentinel workspace.
You need to automate responses to threats detected by Azure Sentinel.
What should you use?
A. adaptive network hardening in Azure Security Center
B. Azure Service Health
C. Azure Monitor workbooks
D. adaptive application controls in Azure Security Center
Correct Answer: C
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220-1101 free exam dumps questions and answers
Free Question 1:
Which of the following utilizes TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext?
A. SNMP
B. SSH
C. FTP
D. Telnet
Correct Answer: C
Free Question 2:
Which of the following charging and data ports has a non-directional connector?
A. Micro-USB
B. Mini-USB
C. USB-A
D. USB-C
Correct Answer: D
Free Question 3:
A user reports being unable to browse the internet. A technician believes the cause of the issue is related to DNS. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?
A. Test the theory by attempting to browse to a website’s known IP address.
B. Implement preventive measures by manually assigning a DNS server to the PC.
C. Identify the problem by running the command ipconfig /flushdns.
D. Document the finding in the organization’s local knowledge base.
Correct Answer: A
Free Question 4:
An online retailer wants to save money and is considering migrating to the public cloud so the peak is over. Which of the following BEST describes this aspect of cloud computing?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Metered utilization
C. Shared resources
D. High availability
Correct Answer: A
Rapid elasticity is only suitable for a domain whose resource requirements suddenly up and down for a specific time interval. Referring to the question of the online retailer wanting to migrate to public cloud services during peak season, then wanting it to be removed “automatically” when the peak is over.
Free Question 5:
An associate is seeking advice on which device to purchase for a friend who is a business owner. The friend needs the ability to chat activity while keeping in contact with the home office.
Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation?
A. Smartwatch
B. Fitness monitor
C. Global positioning sensor
D. Portable hotspot
Correct Answer: A
Free Question 6:
Which of the following connector types does not require a specific orientation?
Which peripherals would a company use to take inventory quickly and update price tags for products? (Choose two.)
A. Barcode scanner
B. Label printer
C. Magnetic reader
D. KVM switch
E. NFC device
F. Flatted scanner
Correct Answer: AC
Free Question 8:
An IT manager is requesting that the company buy new cables to be used with F-type connectors that are already in-house. Which of the following cables should the company buy?
A. Coaxial out
B. Plenum
C. Cat 5e
D. Fiber
Correct Answer: A
Free Question 9:
The feature that allows users to store files in a cloud-based when necessary, but can be removed when space is freed up, is known as:
A. on-demand
B. resource pool
C. synchronization application
D. shared resources
Correct Answer: A
Free Question 10:
Which of the following describes the operational difference between hubs and switches when transmitting data to a specific computer inside the network?
A. Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computers inside the network.
B. Switches compress data while hubs send uncompressed data
C. Switches receive data and route it to all computers inside the network while hubs receive data and do not route
D. Switches scramble data, while hubs send data in the original form.
Correct Answer: A
Free Question 11:
A user is unable to access websites and has reported connectivity issues with pop-ups on the screen. A technician removes malware and then is able to ping the router and access the websites.
Which of the following NEXT steps should the technician perform in troubleshooting this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Documents findings, actions, and outcomes.
B. Reboot the device to verify the fix.
C. Reconnect the device to the network.
D. Verify the settings in IPConfig.
E. Research the problem based on symptoms.
F. Run a virus scan.
Correct Answer: AE
Free Question 12:
A user connects a laptop to a docking station but is unable to see an image on the external monitor. The user tests the docking station USB ports, and they are working fine. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Check for firmware updates
B. Configure extended display mode
C. Replace the external monitor
D. Adjust the laptop\’s BIOS settings
Correct Answer: B
Free Question 13:
A technician must call a user\’s cellular provider to troubleshoot a network speed issue with the user\’s mobile device. Which of the following technologies is the technician troubleshooting?
A. Long-term evolution
B. Near-field communication
C. Radio frequency ID
D. Z-wave
Correct Answer: A
Free Question 14:
Ann, a user, realizes she forgot to pack her laptop\’s AC adapter when she was preparing for a business trip. She calls the help desk to ask how to maximize her battery life until she returns to the office. Which of the following are the BEST solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Disable the speakers.
B. Dim the screen\’s brightness.
C. Turn on the wireless.
D. Turn off Bluetooth.
E. Turn on GPS.
F. Mute the microphone.
Correct Answer: BD
Free Question 15:
During an inspection, it was found that data racks were not properly grounded. To pass the inspection and address a growing concern to protect data cabling and equipment, a technician must make sure all racks are properly grounded.
Which of the following tools should the technician use to verify this has been completed?
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312-39 Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) exam, you know?
The Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) exam is the first step in joining a Security Operations Center (SOC). Suitable Level 1 and Level 2 SOC analysts attend. Simply referred to as the 312-39 exam, it is composed of multiple choice questions, and you need to answer 100 questions in 3 hours. You have to answer at least 70% correctly to pass.
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Bonney\\’s system has been compromised by gruesome malware. What is the primary step that is advisable to Bonney in order to contain the malware incident from spreading?
A. Complaint to police in a formal way regarding the incident B. Turn off the infected machine C. Leave it to the network administrators to handle D. Call the legal department in the organization and information about the incident
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following technique involves scanning the headers of IP packets leaving a network to make sure that the unauthorized or malicious traffic never leaves the internal network?
A. Egress Filtering B. Throttling C. Rate Limiting D. Ingress Filtering
An organization is implementing and deploying the SIEM with the following capabilities.
What kind of SIEM deployment architecture the organization is planning to implement?
A. Cloud, MSSP Managed B. Self-hosted, Jointly Managed C. Self-hosted, Self-Managed D. Self-hosted, MSSP Managed
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Identify the attack when an attacker by several trial and error can read the contents of a password file present in the restricted etc folder just by manipulating the URL in the browser as shown: http://www.terabytes.com/process.php./../../../../etc/passwd
A. Directory Traversal Attack B. SQL Injection Attack C. Denial-of-Service Attack D. Form Tampering Attack
Which of the following formula represents the risk levels?
A. Level of risk = Consequence x Severity B. Level of risk = Consequence x Impact C. Level of risk = Consequence x Likelihood D. Level of risk = Consequence x Asset Value
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Sam, a security analyst with INFO SOLD INC., while monitoring and analyzing IIS logs, detected an event matching regex /\\w*((\%27)|(\\\’))((\%6F)|o|(\%4F))((\%72)|r|(\%52))/ix. What does this event log indicate?
A. SQL Injection Attack B. Parameter Tampering Attack C. XSS Attack D. Directory Traversal Attack
Which of the following technique protects from flooding attacks originating from the valid prefixes (IP addresses) so that they can be traced to their true source?
A. Rate Limiting B. Egress Filtering C. Ingress Filtering D. Throttling
Which of the following directory will contain logs related to printer access? A. /var/log/cups/Printer_log file B. /var/log/cups/access_log file C. /var/log/cups/access log file D. /var/log/cups/Printeraccess_log file
Correct Answer: A
See more 312-39 Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) exam questions, here.
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Full Name: Certified Ethical Hacker Exam (C|EH v10) Code: 312-50V10 Certification: CEH v10 Exam validity: 1 year Passing Score: The actual percentage of questions you must answer correctly varies by exam and may be higher or lower than 70% Purpose: The Certified Ethical Hacking (CEH) program is the world’s most comprehensive ethical hacking course designed to help information security professionals master the basics of ethical hacking. CEH introduction: CEH is the first in a series of 3 comprehensive courses (CEH, ECSA, and APT courses) designed to help cybersecurity masters in penetration testing. Skill: Establish and manage minimum standards for certifying professional information security experts in ethical hacking practices. Inform the public that eligible individuals meet or exceed minimum standards. Strengthen ethical hacking as a unique and self-regulating profession.
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QUESTION # 1
It is a widely used standard for message logging. It permits the separation of the software that generates messages, the system that stores them, and the software that reports and analyzes them. This protocol is specifically designed for transporting event messages. Which of the following is being described?
A. SNMP B. ICMP C. SYSLOG D. SMS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION # 2
A security engineer is attempting to map a company\\’s internal network. The engineer enters the following NMAP command: NMAP –n –sS –P0 –p 80 ***.***.**.** What type of scan is this?
A. Quick scan B. Intense scan C. Stealth scan D. Comprehensive scan
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION # 3
Trinity needs to scan all hosts on a /16 network for TCP port 445 only. What is the fastest way she can accomplish this with Nmap? Stealth is not a concern.
A. nmap -sn -sF 10.1.0.0/16 445 B. nmap -p 445 -n -T4 –open 10.1.0.0/16 C. nmap -s 445 -sU -T5 10.1.0.0/16 D. nmap -p 445 –max -Pn 10.1.0.0/16
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION # 4
Take a look at the following attack on a Web Server using obstructed URL:
How would you protect from these attacks?
A. Configure the Web Server to deny requests involving “hex-encoded” characters B. Create rules in IDS to alert on strange Unicode requests C. Use SSL authentication on Web Servers D. Enable Active Scripts Detection at the firewall and routers
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION # 5
Jimmy is standing outside a secure entrance to a facility. He is pretending to have a tense conversation on his cell phone as an authorized employee badge in. Jimmy, while still on the phone, grabs the door as it begins to close. What just happened?
A. Phishing B. Whaling C. Tailgating D. Masquerading
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION # 6
Which of the following security operations is used for determining the attack surface of an organization?
A. Running a network scan to detect network services in the corporate DMZ B. Training employees on the security policy regarding social engineering C. Reviewing the need for a security clearance for each employee D. Using configuration management to determine when and where to apply security patches
Correct Answer: A
For a network scan, the goal is to document the exposed attack surface along with any easily detected vulnerabilities.
A. Buffer Overflow B. Encryption C. Bruteforce D. Denial-of-service (Dos)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION # 8
Cryptography is the practice and study of techniques for secure communication in the presence of third parties (called adversaries.) More generally, it is about constructing and analyzing protocols that overcome the influence of adversaries and that are related to various aspects of information security such as data confidentiality, data integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation.
Modern cryptography intersects the disciplines of mathematics, computer science, and electrical engineering. Applications of cryptography include ATM cards, computer passwords, and electronic commerce. Basic examples to understand how cryptography works are given below:
Which of the following choices is true about cryptography?
A. Algorithm is not the secret, key is the secret. B. Symmetric-key algorithms are a class of algorithms for cryptography that use the different cryptographic keys for both encryptions of plaintext and decryption of ciphertext. C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses the asymmetric encryption both (public/private key pair) to deliver the shared session key and to achieve a communication way. D. Public-key cryptography, also known as asymmetric cryptography, the public key is for decrypting, and the private key is for encrypting.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION # 9
Which of the following lists are valid data-gathering activities associated with a risk assessment?
A. Threat identification, vulnerability identification, control analysis B. Threat identification, response identification, mitigation identification C. Attack profile, defense profile, loss profile D. System profile, vulnerability identification, security determination
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION # 10
How does a denial-of-service attack work?
A. A hacker prevents a legitimate user (or group of users) from accessing a service B. A hacker uses every character, word, or letter he or she can think of to defeat authentication C. A hacker tries to decipher a password by using a system, which subsequently crashes the network D. A hacker attempts to imitate a legitimate user by confusing a computer or even another person
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION # 11
What two conditions must a digital signature meet?
A. Has to be unforgeable, and has to be authentic. B. Has to be legible and neat. C. Must be unique and have special characters. D. Has to be the same number of characters as a physical signature and must be unique.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION # 12
Cross-site request forgery involves:
A. A request sent by a malicious user from a browser to a server B. Modification of a request by a proxy between client and server C. A browser making a request to a server without the user\’s knowledge D. A server making a request to another server without the user\’s knowledge
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION # 13
What is the broadcast address for the subnet 190.86.168.0/22?
A. 190.86.168.255 B. 190.86.255.255 C. 190.86.171.255 D. 190.86.169.255
Correct Answer: C
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# QUESTION 1
Thomas, a cloud security professional, is performing security assessments on cloud services to identify any loopholes.
He detects a vulnerability in a bare-metal cloud server that can enable hackers to implant malicious backdoors in its firmware. He also identified that an installed backdoor can persist even if the server is reallocated to new clients or businesses that use it as an alias.
What is the type of cloud attack that can be performed by exploiting the vulnerability discussed in the above scenario?
A. Man-in-the-cloud (MITC) attack B. Cloud cryptojacking C. Cloudborne attack D. Metadata spoofing attack
Correct Answer: C
# QUESTION 2
What do Trinoo, TFN2k, WinTrinoo, T-Sight, and Stracheldraht have in common?
A. All are hacking tools developed by the legion of doom B. All are tools that can be used not only by hackers but also security personnel C. All are DDOS tools D. All are tools that are only effective against Windows E. All are tools that are only effective against Linux
Correct Answer: C
# QUESTION 3
Which of the following tactics uses malicious code to redirect users\\’ web traffic?
A. Spamming B. Pharming C. Phishing D. Spear-phishing
Correct Answer: B
# QUESTION 4
Which of the following tools is used to detect wireless LANs using the 802.11a/b/g/n WLAN standards on a linux platform?
A. Kismet B. Abel C. Netstumbler D. Nessus
Correct Answer: A
# QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the BEST way to defend against network sniffing?
A. Using encryption protocols to secure network communications B. Register all machines MAC Addresses in a Centralized Database C. Use Static IP Address D. Restrict Physical Access to Server Rooms hosting Critical Servers
Correct Answer: A
# QUESTION 6
When purchasing a biometric system, one of the considerations that should be reviewed is the processing speed. Which of the following best describes what it is meant by processing?
A. The amount of time and resources that are necessary to maintain a biometric system B. How long does it take to set up individual user accounts C. The amount of time it takes to be either accepted or rejected from when an individual provides identification and authentication information D. The amount of time it takes to convert biometric data into a template on a smart card
Correct Answer: C
# QUESTION 7
During a recent security assessment, you discover the organization has one Domain Name Server (DNS) in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) and a second DNS server on the internal network. What is this type of DNS configuration commonly called?
A. DynDNS B. DNS Scheme C. DNSSEC D. Split DNS
Correct Answer: D
# QUESTION 8
Bobby, an attacker, targeted a user and decided to hijack and intercept all their wireless communications. He installed a fake communication tower between two authentic endpoints to mislead the victim. Bobby used this virtual tower to interrupt the data transmission between the user and the real tower, attempting to hijack an active session, upon receiving the user’s request.
Bobby manipulated the traffic with the virtual tower and redirected the victim to a malicious website. What is the attack performed by Bobby in the above scenario?
A. Wardriving B. KRACK attack C. jamming signal attack D. aLTEr attack
Correct Answer: D
# QUESTION 9
Scenario1:
1. Victim opens the attacker\’s website. 2. Attacker sets up a website which contains interesting and attractive content like \’ Do you want to make $1000 in a day?\’. 3. Victim clicks to the interesting and attractive content URL. 4. Attacker creates a transparent \’ iframe\’ in front of the URL which victim attempts to click, so the victim thinks that he/she clicks to the \’ Do you want to make $1000 in a day?\’ URL but actually he/she clicks to the content or URL that exists in the transparent \’ iframe\’ which is set up by the attacker.
What is the name of the attack which is mentioned in the scenario?
A. Session Fixation B. HTML Injection C. HTTP Parameter Pollution D. Clickjacking Attack
Correct Answer: D
# QUESTION 10
Which of the following LM hashes represent a password of fewer than 8 characters? (Choose two.)
A. BA810DBA98995F1817306D272A9441BB B. 44EFCE164AB921CQAAD3B435B51404EE C. 0182BD0BD4444BF836077A718CCDF409 D. CEC52EB9C8E3455DC2265B23734E0DAC E. B757BF5C0D87772FAAD3B435B51404EE F. E52CAC67419A9A224A3B108F3FA6CB6D
Correct Answer: BE
# QUESTION 11
Which among the following is the best example of the third step (delivery) in the cyber kill chain?
A. An intruder sends a malicious attachment via email to a target. B. An intruder creates malware to be used as a malicious attachment to an email. C. An intruder\’s malware is triggered when a target opens a malicious email attachment. D. An intruder\’s malware is installed on a target\’s machine.
Correct Answer: A
# QUESTION 12
Which type of malware spreads from one system to another or from one network to another and causes similar types of damage as viruses to do to the infected system?
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Latest EC-COUNCIL 312-49V10 questions: Not only the correct answer but also an explanation
QUESTION 1
Shane has started the static analysis of a malware and is using the tool ResourcesExtract to find more details of the malicious program. What part of the analysis is he performing?
A. Identifying File Dependencies B. Strings search C. Dynamic analysis D. File obfuscation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
When marking evidence that has been collected with the aa/ddmmyy/nnnn/zz?format, what does the nnn? denote?When marking evidence that has been collected with the ?aa/ddmmyy/nnnn/zz?format, what does the ?nnn?denote?
A. The year the evidence was taken B. The sequence number for the parts of the same exhibit C. The initials of the forensics analyst D. The sequential number of the exhibits seized
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which file is a sequence of bytes organized into blocks understandable by the system\\’s linker?
A. executable file B. source file C. Object file D. None of these
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
What is the first step that needs to be carried out to crack the password?
A. A word list is created using a dictionary generator program or dictionaries B. The list of dictionary words is hashed or encrypted C. The hashed wordlist is compared against the target hashed password, generally one word at a time D. If it matches, that password has been cracked and the password cracker displays the unencrypted version of the password
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a responsibility of the first responder?
A. Determine the severity of the incident B. Collect as much information about the incident as possible C. Share the collected information to determine the root cause D. Document the findings
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Harold is a web designer who has completed a website for ghttech.net. As part of the maintenance agreement hesigned with the client, Harold is performing research online and seeing how much exposure the site has received so far.
Harold navigates to google.com and types in the following search. link:www.ghttech.net What will this search produce?
A. All search engines that link to .net domains B. All sites that link to ghttech.net C. Sites that contain the code: link:www.ghttech.net D. All sites that ghttech.net links to
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Meyer Electronics Systems just recently had a number of laptops stolen out of their office. On these laptops contained sensitive corporate information regarding patents and company strategies. A month after the laptops were stolen, a competing company was found to have just developed products that almost exactly duplicated products that Meyer produces. What could have prevented this information from being stolen from the laptops?
A. DFS Encryption B. EFS Encryption C. SDW Encryption D. IPS Encryption
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Chris has been called upon to investigate a hacking incident reported by one of his clients. The company suspects the involvement of an insider accomplice in the attack. Upon reaching the incident scene, Chris secures the physical area, records the scene using visual media.
He shuts the system down by pulling the power plug so that he does not disturb the system in any way. He labels all cables and connectors prior to disconnecting any. What do you think would be the next sequence of events?
A. Connect the target media; Prepare the system for acquisition; Secure the evidence; Copy the media B. Prepare the system for acquisition; Connect the target media; Copy the media; Secure the evidence C. Connect the target media; Delete the system for acquisition; Secure the evidence; Copy the media D. Secure the evidence; Prepare the system for acquisition; Connect the target media; Copy the media
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
File signature analysis involves collecting information from the __________ of a file to determine the type and function of the file
A. First 10 bytes B. First 20 bytes C. First 30 bytes D. First 40 bytes
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following Linux command searches through the current processes and lists the process IDs those match the selection criteria to stdout?
You are called in to assist the police in an investigation involving a suspected drug dealer. The police searched the suspect house after aYou are called in to assist the police in an investigation involving a suspected drug dealer. The police searched the suspect? house after a warrant was obtained and they located a floppy disk in the suspect bedroom.
The disk contains several files, but they appear to be passwordwarrant was obtained and they located a floppy disk in the suspect? bedroom. The disk contains several files, but they appear to be password protected.
What are two common methods used by password cracking software that you could use to obtain the password?
A. Limited force and library attack B. Brute force and dictionary attack C. Maximum force and thesaurus attack D. Minimum force and appendix attack
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
First responder is a person who arrives first at the crime scene and accesses the victim\’s computer system after the incident. He or She is responsible for protecting, integrating, and preserving the evidence obtained from the crime scene.
Which of the following is not a role of first responder?
A. Identify and analyze the crime scene B. Protect and secure the crime scene C. Package and transport the electronic evidence to forensics lab D. Prosecute the suspect in court of law
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which among the following files provides email header information in the Microsoft Exchange server?
A. gwcheck.db B. PRIV.EDB C. PUB.EDB D. PRIV.STM
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 #
Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Boot Sector Virus?
A. Modifies directory table entries so that directory entries point to the virus code instead of the actual program. B. Moves the MBR to another location on the RAM and copies itself to the original location of the MBR. C. Moves the MBR to another location on the hard disk and copies itself to the original location of the MBR. D. Overwrites the original MBR and only executes the new virus code.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 #
Harper, a software engineer, is developing an email application. To ensure the confidentiality of email messages, Harper uses a symmetric-key block cipher having a classical 12- or 16-round Feistel network with a block size of 64 bits for encryption, which includes large 8 × 32-bit S-boxes (S1, S2, S3, S4) based on bent functions, modular addition, and subtraction, key-dependent rotation, and XOR operations.
This cipher also uses a masking key (Km1) and a rotation key (Kr1) for performing its functions.
What is the algorithm employed by Harper to secure the email messages?
A. CAST-128 B. AES C. GOST block cipher D. DES
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 #
Shiela is an information security analyst working at HiTech Security Solutions. She is performing the service version discovery using Nmap to obtain information about the running services and their versions on a target system.
Which of the following Nmap options must she use to perform service version discovery on the target host?
A. -sN B. -sV C. -sX D. -sF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 #
John, a professional hacker, decided to use DNS to perform data exfiltration on a target network, in this process, he embedded malicious data into the DNS protocol packets that even DNSSEC cannot detect.
Using this technique. John successfully injected malware to bypass a firewall and maintained communication with the victim machine and CandC server. What is the technique employed by John to bypass the firewall?
A. DNS cache snooping B. DNSSEC zone walking C. DNS tunneling method D. DNS enumeration
Correct Answer: C
DNS tunneling may be a method wont to send data over the DNS protocol, a protocol that has never been intended for data transfer. due to that, people tend to overlook it and it\’s become a well-liked but effective tool in many attacks.
The most popular use case for DNS tunneling is obtaining free internet through bypassing captive portals at airports, hotels, or if you are feeling patient the not-so-cheap on the wing Wi-Fi. On those shared internet hotspots HTTP traffic is blocked until a username/password is provided, however DNS traffic is usually still allowed within the background:
we will encode our HTTP traffic over DNS and voil? we\’ve internet access. This sounds fun but the reality is, browsing anything on DNS tunneling is slow. Like, back to 1998 slow. Another more dangerous use of DNS tunneling would be bypassing network security devices (Firewalls, DLP appliances…) to line up an immediate and unmonitored communications channel on an organization \’s network.
Possibilities here are endless: Data exfiltration, fixing another penetration testing tool… you name it. To make it even more worrying, their \’s an outsized amount of easy-to-use DNS tunneling tools out there.There\’s even a minimum of one VPN over DNS protocol provider (warning: the planning of the website is hideous, making me doubt the legitimacy of it).
As a pentester, all this is often great, as a network admin, not such a lot. How does it work: For those that ignoramus about DNS protocol but still made it here, I feel you deserve a really brief on what DNS does: DNS is sort of a phonebook for the web, it translates URLs (human-friendly language, the person\’s name), into an IP address (machine-friendly language, the phone number).
That helps us remember many websites, same as we will remember many people\’s names. For those that know what DNS is I might suggest looking here for a fast refresh on DNS protocol, but briefly what you would like to understand is:?A Record: Maps a website name to an IP address.example.com?
12.34.52.67?NS Record (a.k.a. Nameserver record): Maps a website name to an inventory of DNS servers, just in case our website is hosted in multiple servers.example.com? server1.example.com, server2.example.com who is involved in DNS tunneling?? Client. Will launch DNS requests with data in them to a website .?
One Domain that we will configure. So DNS servers will redirect its requests to an outlined server of our own.? Server. this is often the defined nameserver that can ultimately receive the DNS requests.
The 6 Steps in DNS tunneling (simplified):1. The client encodes data during a DNS request. The way it does this is often by prepending a bit of knowledge within the domain of the request.
for instance : mypieceofdata.server1.example.com2. The DNS request goes bent a DNS server.3. The DNS server finds out the A register of your domain with the IP address of your server.4.
The request for mypieceofdata.server1.example.com is forwarded to server.5. The server processes regardless of the mypieceofdata were alleged to do. Let\’s assume it had been an HTTP request.6. The server replies over DNS and Woop Woop, we\’ve got signal.
QUESTION 5 #
You are trying to break into a highly classified top-secret mainframe computer with the highest security system in place at Merclyn Barley Bank located in Los Angeles.
You know that conventional hacking doesn\’t work in this case, because organizations such as banks are generally tight and secure when it comes to protecting their systems.
In other words, you are trying to penetrate an otherwise impenetrable system. How would you proceed?
A. Look for “zero-day” exploits at various underground hacker websites in Russia and China and buy the necessary exploits from these hackers and target the bank\’s network
B. Try to hang around the local pubs or restaurants near the bank, get talking to a poorly- paid or disgruntled employee, and offer them money if they\’ll abuse their access privileges by providing you with sensitive information
C. Launch DDOS attacks against Merclyn Barley Bank\’s routers and firewall systems using 100, 000 or more “zombies” and “bots”
D. Try to conduct Man-in-the-Middle (MiTM) attack and divert the network traffic going to the Merclyn Barley Bank\’s Webserver to that of your machine using DNS Cache Poisoning techniques
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 #
Which type of malware spreads from one system to another or from one network to another and causes similar types of damage as viruses to do to the infected system?
A. Worm B. Rootkit C. Adware D. Trojan
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 #
Null sessions are un-authenticated connections (not using a username or password.) to an NT or 2000 system. Which TCP and UDP ports must you filter to check null sessions on your network?
A. 137 and 139 B. 137 and 443 C. 139 and 443 D. 139 and 445
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Session splicing is an IDS evasion technique in which an attacker delivers data in multiple, small-sized packets to the target computer, making it very difficult for an IDS to detect the attack signatures. Which tool can be used to perform session splicing attacks?
A. TCP splice B. Burp C. Hydra D. Whisker
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 #
What is correct about digital signatures?
A. A digital signature cannot be moved from one signed document to another because it is the hash of the original document encrypted with the private key of the signing party. B. Digital signatures may be used in different documents of the same type. C. A digital signature cannot be moved from one signed document to another because it is a plain hash of the document content. D. Digital signatures are issued once for each user and can be used everywhere until they expire.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 #
You have retrieved the raw hash values from a Windows 2000 Domain Controller. Using social engineering, you come to know that they are enforcing strong passwords. You understand that all users are required to use passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
All passwords must also use 3 of the 4 following categories: lower case letters, capital letters, numbers, and special characters.
With your existing knowledge of users, likely user account names, and the possibility that they will choose the easiest passwords possible, what would be the fastest type of password cracking attack you can run against these hash values and still get results?
A. Online Attack B. Dictionary Attack C. Brute Force Attack D. Hybrid Attack
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages occur in many situations, such as whenever a datagram cannot reach the destination or the gateway does not have the buffering capacity to forward a datagram. Each ICMP message contains three fields: type, code, and checksum. Different types of Internet Control Message Protocols (ICMP) are identified by a TYPE field.
If the destination is not reachable, which one of the following is generated?
A. Type 8 ICMP codes B. Type 12 ICMP codes C. Type 3 ICMP codes D. Type 7 ICMP codes Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
John, the penetration testing manager in a pen testing firm, needs to prepare a pen testing pricing report for a client.
Which of the following factors does he need to consider while preparing the pen testing pricing report?
A. Number of employees in the client organization B. Complete structure of the organization C. Number of client computers to be tested and resources required to perform a pen test D. Number of servers available in the client organization Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
An organization has deployed a web application that uses encoding techniques before transmitting the data over the Internet. This encoding technique helps the organization to hide confidential data such as user credentials, email attachments, etc. when in transit. This encoding technique takes 3 bytes of binary data and divides it into four chunks of 6 bits. Each chunk is further encoded into its respective printable character.
Identify the encoding technique employed by the organization?
A. Unicode encoding B. Base64 encoding C. URL encoding D. HTMS encoding Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What are the security risks of running a “repair” installation for Windows XP?
A. There are no security risks when running the “repair” installation for Windows XP B. Pressing Shift+F1 gives the user administrative rights C. Pressing Ctrl+F10 gives the user administrative rights D. Pressing Shift+F10 gives the user administrative rights Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
David is a penetration tester and he is attempting to extract password hashes from the Oracle database.
Which of the following utilities should Dave employ in order to brute-force password hashes from Oracle databases?
A. TNS B. Orabf C. Opwg D. OAT Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Larry is an IT consultant who works for corporations and government agencies. Does Larry plan on shutting down the city\’s network using BGP devices and Zombies?
What type of Penetration Testing is Larry planning to carry out?
A. Internal Penetration Testing B. Firewall Penetration Testing C. DoS Penetration Testing D. Router Penetration Testing Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Stanley, a pentester needs to perform various tests to detect SQL injection vulnerabilities. He has to make a list of all input fields whose values could be used in crafting a SQL query. This includes the hidden fields of POST requests and then tests them separately, attempting to interfere with the query and cause an error to generate as a result.
In which of the following tests is the source code of the application tested in a non-runtime environment to detect the SQL injection vulnerabilities?
A. Dynamic Testing B. Static Testing C. Function Testing D. Source Code Testing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages occur in many situations, such as whenever a datagram cannot reach the destination or the gateway does not have the buffering capacity to forward a datagram. Each ICMP message contains three fields: type, code, and checksum. Different types of Internet Control Message Protocols (ICMP) are identified by a type and code field.
Which of the following ICMP messages will be generated if the destination port is not reachable?
A. ICMP Type 11 code 1 B. ICMP Type 5 code 3 C. ICMP Type 3 code 2 D. ICMP Type 3 code 3 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which of the following policies helps secure data and protects the privacy of organizational information?
A. Special-Access Policy B. Document retention Policy C. Cryptography Policy D. Personal Security Policy Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Joe, an ECSA certified professional, is working on a pen testing engagement for one of his SME clients. He discovered the host file in one of the Windows machines has the following entry: 213.65.172.55 microsoft.com After performing a Whois lookup, Joe discovered the IP does not refer to Microsoft.com. The network admin denied modifying the host files.
Which type of attack does this scenario present?
A. DNS starvation B. DNS poisoning C. Phishing D. MAC spoofing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Rule of Engagement (ROE) is the formal permission to conduct a pen-test. It provides top-level guidance for conducting penetration testing. Various factors are considered while preparing the scope of ROE which clearly explain the limits associated with the security test.
Which of the following factors is NOT considered while preparing the scope of the Rules of Engagement (ROE)?
A. A list of employees in the client organization B. A list of acceptable testing techniques C. Specific IP addresses/ranges to be tested D. Points of contact for the penetration testing team Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
A pen tester has extracted a database name by using a blind SQL injection. Now he begins to test the table inside the database using the below query and finds the table: http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (LEN(SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=\’U\’)=3) WAITFOR DELAY \’00:00:10\’-http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),1,1)))=101) WAITFOR DELAY \’00:00:10\’-http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects
where xtype=char(85)),2,1)))=109) WAITFOR DELAY \’00:00:10\’-http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),3,1)))=112) WAITFOR DELAY\’00:00:10\’-What is the table name?
A. CTS B. QRT C. EMP D. ABC Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which of the following pre-engagement documents identifies the systems to be tested, types of tests, and the depth of the testing?
A. Draft Report B. Letter of Intent C. Rule of Engagement D. Authorization Letter Correct Answer: C
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[Pass4itSure share] EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Dumps Practice Exam Questions Answers
QUESTION 1 #
Which of the following tools is used to ping a given range of IP addresses and resolve the hostname of the remote system?
A. SuperScan B. Netscan C. Hoping D. Nmap Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 #
Identify the spread spectrum technique that multiplies the original data signal with a pseudo-random noise spreading code.
A. ISM B. FHSS C. DSSS D. OFDM Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 #
Which of the following features is used to generate spam on the Internet by spammers and worms?
A. AutoComplete B. SMTP relay C. Server Message Block (SMB) signing D. AutoFill Correct Answer: B SMTP relay feature of e-mail servers allows them to forward the e-mail to other e-mail servers. Unfortunately, this feature is exploited by spammers and worms to generate spam on the Internet.
QUESTION 4 #
Simon had all his systems administrators implement hardware and software firewalls to ensure network security. They implemented IDS/IPS systems throughout the network to check for and stop any unauthorized traffic that may attempt to enter.
Although Simon and his administrators believed they were secure, a hacker group was able to get into the network and modify files hosted on the company\’s website.
After searching through the firewall and server logs, no one could find how the attackers were able to get in. He decides that the entire network needs to be monitored for critical and essential file changes. This monitoring tool alerts administrators when a critical file is altered.
What tool could Simon and his administrators implement to accomplish this?
A. They need to use Nessus. B. Snort is the best tool for their situation. C. They could use Tripwire. D. They can implement Wireshark. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 #
Which of the following representatives of the incident response team takes the forensic backups of systems that are essential events?
A. the legal representative B. technical representative C. lead investigator D. None E. Information Security representative Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 #
Which of the following are provided by digital signatures?
A. Identification and validation B. Authentication and identification C. Integrity and validation D. Security and integrity Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 #
Which of the following protocols supports source-specific multicast (SSM)?
A. DHCP B. ARP C. DNS D. BGMP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 #
The CEO of Max Rager wants to send a confidential message regarding the new formula for its coveted soft drink, SuperMax, to its manufacturer in Texas. However, he fears the message could be altered in transit. How can he prevent this incident from happening and what element of the message ensures the success of this method?
A. Hashing; hash code B. Symmetric encryption; secret key C. Hashing; public key D. Asymmetric encryption; public key Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 #
Which of the following is a software tool used in passive attacks for capturing network traffic?
A. Intrusion prevention system B. Intrusion detection system C. Warchalking D. Sniffer Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 #
You are tasked to perform a black hat vulnerability assessment for a client. You received official written permission to work with: company site, forum, Linux server with LAMP, where this site is hosted.
Which vulnerability assessment tool should you consider using?
A. dnsbrute B. hping C. OpenVAS D. wireshark Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 #
John works as an Incident Manager for TechWorld Inc. His task is to set up a wireless network for his organization. For this, he needs to decide the appropriate devices and policies required to set up the network.
Which of the following phases of the incident handling process will help him accomplish the task?
A. Containment B. Recovery C. Preparation D. Eradication Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 #
Steven is a Linux system administrator at an IT company. He wants to disable unnecessary services in the system,
which can be exploited by the attackers. Which among the following is the correct syntax for disabling a service?
A. $ sudo system-ctl disable [service] B. $ sudo systemctl disable [service] C. $ sudo system.ctl disable [service] D. $ sudo system ctl disable [service] Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 #
You are using more than the safety of the existing network. You\\’ll find a machine that is not in use as such but is software that emulates the operation of a sensitive database server.
What is this?
A. The reactive IDS B. Honey Pot C. None D. Virus E. The polymorphic virus Correct Answer: B
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