new AZ-305 practice questions

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Question 1:

HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources shown in the following table.

AZ-305 exam practice questions 1

You create an Azure SQL database named DB1 that is hosted in the East US region.

To DB1, you add a diagnostic setting named Settings1. Settings1 archives SQLInsights to storage1 and sends SQLInsights to Workspace1.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 1-2

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 1-3

Box 1: Yes Box 2: Yes Box 3: Yes

For more information on Azure SQL diagnostics, you can visit the below link

Question 2:

You plan to deploy an Azure Database for MySQL flexible server named Server1 to the East US Azure region.

You need to implement a business continuity solution for Server1. The solution must minimize downtime in the event of a failover to a paired region.

What should you do?

A. Create a read replica.

B. Store the database files in Azure premium file shares.

C. Implement Geo-redundant backup.

D. Configure native MySQL replication.

Correct Answer: C

The table below illustrates the features that the Azure Database for MySQL – Flexible Server service offers.

* Geo-redundant backup – Available in all Azure paired regions.

The service backups can be configured as geo-redundant at create time. Enabling Geo-redundancy replicates the server backup data files in the primary region\’s paired region to provide regional resiliency. Geo-redundant backup storage

provides at least 99.99999999999999% (16 nines) durability of objects over a given year.


Question 3:

You have SQL Server on an Azure virtual machine. The databases are written to nightly as part of a batch process. You need to recommend a disaster recovery solution for the data. The solution must meet the following requirements:

1. Provide the ability to recover in the event of a regional outage. Support a recovery time objective (RTO) of 15 minutes.

2. Support a recovery point objective (RPO) of 24 hours.

3. Support automated recovery.

4. Minimize costs.

What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Azure virtual machine availability sets

B. Azure Disk Backup

C. an Always On availability group

D. Azure Site Recovery

Correct Answer: D

Replication with Azure Site Recover:

RTO is typically less than 15 minutes.

RPO: One hour for application consistency and five minutes for crash consistency.


Question 4:


You configure OAuth2 authorization in API Management as shown in the following exhibit.

AZ-305 exam practice questions 4

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 4-2

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 4-3

Box 1: Web applications

The Authorization Code Grant Type is used by both web apps and native apps to get an access token after a user authorizes an app.

Note: The Authorization Code grant type is used by confidential and public clients to exchange an authorization code for an access token.

After the user returns to the client via the redirect URL, the application will get the authorization code from the URL and use it to request an access token.

Question 5:

What should you recommend to meet the monitoring requirements for App2?

A. VM insights

B. Azure Application Insights

C. Microsoft Sentinel

D. Container insights

Correct Answer: B

Scenario: You need to monitor App2 to analyze how long it takes to perform different transactions within the application. The solution must not require changes to the application code.

Unified cross-component transaction diagnostics.

The unified diagnostics experience automatically correlates server-side telemetry from across all your Application Insights monitored components into a single view. It doesn’t matter if you have multiple resources. Application Insights detects the underlying relationship and allows you to easily diagnose the application component, dependency, or exception that caused a transaction slowdown or failure.

Note: Components are independently deployable parts of your distributed/microservices application. Developers and operations teams have code-level visibility or access to telemetry generated by these application components.


Question 6:

You have an Active Directory forest named

You install and configure AD Connect to use password hash synchronization as the single sign-on(SSO) method. Staging mode is enabled.

You review the synchronization results and discover that the Synchronization Service Manager does not display any sync jobs.

You need to ensure that the synchronization completes successfully.

What should you do?

A. From Azure PowerShell, run Start-AdSyncSycnCycle olicyType Initial.

B. Run Azure AD Connect and set the SSO method to Pass-through Authentication.

C. From the Synchronization Service Manager, run a full import.

D. Run Azure AD Connect and disable staging mode.

Correct Answer: D

In staging mode, the server is active for import and synchronization, but it does not run any exports. A server in staging mode is not running password sync or password writeback, even if you selected these features during installation. When you disable staging mode, the server starts exporting, enables password sync, and enables password writeback.


Question 7:


You are designing a software-as-a-service (SaaS) application that will enable Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users to create and publish online surveys. The SaaS application will have a front-end web app and a back-end web API. The web app will rely on the web API to handle updates to customer surveys.

You need to design an authorization flow for the SaaS application. The solution must meet the following requirements:

  1. To access the back-end web API, the web app must authenticate by using OAuth 2 bearer tokens.

2. The web app must authenticate by using the identities of individual users.

What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 7

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 7-2


Question 8:

You are developing an app that will use Azure Functions to process Azure Event Hub events. Request processing is estimated to take between five and 20 minutes. You need to recommend a hosting solution that meets the following requirements:

1. Supports estimates of request processing runtimes

2. Supports event-driven autoscaling for the app Which hosting plan should you recommend?

A. Consumption

B. App Service

C. Dedicated

D. Premium

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:


You need to design an Azure policy that will implement the following functionality:

1. For new resources, assign tags and values that match the tags and values of the resource group to which the resources are deployed.

2. For existing resources, identify whether the tags and values match the tags and values of the resource group that contains the resources.

3. For any non-compliant resources, trigger auto-generated remediation tasks to create missing tags and values.

The solution must use the principle of least privilege.

What should you include in the design? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 9

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 9-2

Box 1: Modify Modify is used to add, update, or remove properties or tags on a resource during creation or update. A common example is updating tags on resources such as cost centers. Existing non-compliant resources can be remediated with a remediation task. A single Modify rule can have any number of operations.

Box 2: A managed identity with the Contributor role Managed identity How remediation security works: When Azure Policy runs the template in the deployIfNotExists policy definition, it does so using a managed identity. Azure Policy creates a managed identity for each assignment but must have details about what roles to grant the managed identity.

Question 10:

You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Blob storage account named store1.

You have an on-premises file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 stores 500 GB of company files.

You need to store a copy of the company files from Server 1 in store1.

Which two possible Azure services achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. an integration account

B. an On-premises data gateway

C. an Azure Batch account

D. an Azure Import/Export job

E. Azure Data Factory

Correct Answer: DE

Question 11:

Your company has an app named App1 that uses data from the on-premises Microsoft SQL Server databases shown in the following table.

AZ-305 exam practice questions 11

App1 and the data are used on the first day of the month only. The data is not expected to grow more than 3% each year.

The company is rewriting App1 as an Azure web app and plans to migrate all the data to Azure.

You need to migrate the data to Azure SQL Database. The solution must minimize costs.

Which service tier should you use?

A. vCore-based Business Critical

B. vCore-based General Purpose

C. DTU-based Standard

D. DTU-based Basic

Correct Answer: C

DTU-based Standard supports databases up to 1 TB in size.


Question 12:


You are evaluating whether to use Azure Traffic Manager and Azure Application Gateway to meet the connection requirements for App1.

What is the minimum number of instances required for each service? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 12

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 12-2

Box 1: 1

App1 will only be accessible from the internet. App1 has the following connection requirements:

1. Connections to App1 must be active-active load balanced between instances.

2. All connections to App1 from North America must be directed to the East US region.

3. All other connections must be directed to the West Europe region.

App1 will have six instances: three in the East US Azure region and three in the West Europe Azure region.

Note: Azure Traffic Manager is a DNS-based traffic load balancer. This service allows you to distribute traffic to your public-facing applications across the global Azure regions.

Box 2: 2

For production workloads, run at least two gateway instances.

A single Application Gateway deployment can run multiple instances of the gateway.

Use one Application Gateway in East US Region, and one in the West Europe region.


Question 13:


You have an Azure subscription that contains the storage accounts shown in the following table.

AZ-305 exam practice questions 13

You plan to implement two new apps that have the requirements shown in the following table.

AZ-305 exam practice questions 13-2

Which storage accounts should you recommend using for each app? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 13-3

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 13-4

Question 14:


You have an Azure App Service web app that uses a system-assigned managed identity.

You need to recommend a solution to store the settings of the web app as secrets in an Azure key vault The solution must meet the following requirements:

1.Minimize changes to the app code,

2. Use the principle of least privilege.

What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 14

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 14-2

Question 15:

You are designing a point of sale (POS) solution that will be deployed across multiple locations and will use an Azure Databricks workspace in the Standard tier. The solution will include multiple apps deployed to the on-premises network of each location.

You need to configure the authentication method that will be used by the app to access the workspace. The solution must minimize the administrative effort associated with staff turnover and credential management.

What should you configure?

A. a managed identity

B. a service principal

C. a personal access token

Correct Answer: B

Microsoft Azure AZ-305 exam new content

The Microsoft Azure AZ-305 exam is a 120-minute exam in which you need to answer 40-60 questions and score 700 points to pass (out of 1000).

Exam AZ-305: Will be updated on January 22, 2024. You need to take a closer look at the following table for a comparison of changes:

Comparison of the old and new content of the AZ-305 exam

The new AZ-305 exam resources are shared as follows(Attach a link):

Video (Video teaching can make the learning process more flexible and convenient):

Preparing for AZ-305 – Design identity, governance, and monitoring solutions (1 of 4)

Preparing for AZ-305 – Design data storage solutions (2 of 4)

Preparing for AZ-305 – Design business continuity solutions (3 of 4)

Preparing for AZ-305 – Design infrastructure solutions (4 of 4)

Book(As a traditional model, the book contains a wealth of AZ-305 exam content that can help students fully understand the exam):

Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Services for Architects: Designing Cloud Solutions

Exam Ref AZ-305 Designing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions

Mastering Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Services

For more Microsoft Certification exam resources, you can follow this blog and update it from time to time.

One last word of caution, about exam AZ-305

If you don’t pay attention to every detail that matters most, then you will surely not get the desired results. Whenever you are practicing for the AZ-305 exam, you may have to concentrate on increasing your value with AZ-305 dumps so that you can stay away from all the difficulties later.


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312-50V12 dumps are upgraded to the latest version, including 528 latest exam questions and answers, reviewed by the EC-COUNCIL professional team, and confirmed that they can be used as preparation materials for the “Certified Ethical Hacker Exam (CEHv12)” certification exam!

Candidates are free to choose PDF or VCE tools to download the latest 312-50V12 dumps: because they all contain the latest exam questions and answers!

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FromNumber of exam questionsRelevant
Question 1:

Security administrator John Smith has noticed abnormal amounts of traffic coming from local computers at night. Upon review, he finds that user data have been exfiltrated by an attacker.

AV tools are unable to find any malicious software, and the IDS/IPS has not reported on any non-whitelisted programs, what type of malware did the attacker use to bypass the company\’s application whitelisting?

A. Phishing malware

B. Zero-day malware

C. File-less malware

D. Logic bomb malware

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

Calvin, a grey-hat hacker, targets a web application that has design flaws in its authentication mechanism. He enumerates usernames from the login form of the web application, which requests users to feed data and specifies the incorrect field in case of invalid credentials.

Later, Calvin uses this information to perform social engineering.

Which of the following design flaws in the authentication mechanism is exploited by Calvin?

A. Insecure transmission of credentials

B. Verbose failure messages

C. User impersonation

D. Password reset mechanism

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

Alice, a professional hacker, targeted an organization\’s cloud services. She infiltrated the target’s MSP provider by sending spear-phishing emails and distributing custom-made malware to compromise user accounts and gain remote access to the cloud service.

Further, she accessed the target customer profiles with her MSP account, compressed the customer data, and stored them in the MSP.

Then, she used this information to launch further attacks on the target organization. Which of the following cloud attacks did Alice perform in the above scenario?

A. Cloud hopper attack

B. Cloud cryptojacking

C. Cloudborne attack

D. Man-in-the-cloud (MITC) attack

Correct Answer: A

Operation Cloud Hopper was an in-depth attack and theft of data in 2017 directed at MSP within the UK (U.K.), us (U.S.), Japan, Canada, Brazil, France, Switzerland, Norway, Finland, Sweden, South Africa, India, Thailand, South Korea, and Australia.

The group used MSP as intermediaries to accumulate assets and trade secrets from MSP client engineering, MSP industrial manufacturing, retail, energy, pharmaceuticals, telecommunications, and government agencies.

Operation Cloud Hopper used over 70 variants of backdoors, malware, and trojans. These were delivered through spear-phishing emails.

The attacks scheduled tasks or leveraged services/utilities to continue Microsoft Windows systems albeit the pc system was rebooted. It installed malware and hacking tools to access systems and steal data.

Question 4:

Techno Security Inc. recently hired John as a penetration tester. He was tasked with identifying open ports in the target network and determining whether the ports are online and whether any firewall rule sets are encountered.

John decided to perform a TCP SYN ping scan on the target network.

Which of the following Nmap commands must John use to perform the TCP SVN ping scan?

A. nmap -sn -pp < target IP address >

B. nmap -sn -PO < target IP address >

C. Anmap -sn -PS < target IP address >

D. nmap -sn -PA < target IP address >

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

While testing a web application in development, you notice that the web server does not properly ignore the “dot slash” (../) character string and instead returns the file listing of a folder structure of the server.

What kind of attack is possible in this scenario?

A. Cross-site scripting

B. Denial of service

C. SQL injection

D. Directory traversal

Correct Answer: D

Appropriately controlling admittance to web content is significant for running a safe web worker. Index crossing or Path Traversal is an HTTP assault that permits aggressors to get to limited catalogs and execute orders outside of the web worker\’s root registry.

Web workers give two primary degrees of security instruments Access Control Lists (ACLs)

Root index An Access Control List is utilized in the approval cycle. It is a rundown that the web worker\’s manager uses to show which clients or gatherings can get to, change, or execute specific records on the worker, just as other access rights.

The root registry is a particular index on the worker record framework in which the clients are kept. Clients can’t get to anything over this root.

For instance: the default root registry of IIS on Windows is C:\Inetpub\wwwroot and with this arrangement, a client doesn\’t approach C:\Windows yet approaches C:\Inetpub\wwwroot\news and some other indexes and documents under the root catalog (given that the client is confirmed by means of the ACLs).

The root index keeps clients from getting to any documents on the worker, for example, C:\WINDOWS/system32/win.ini on Windows stages and the/and so on/passwd record on Linux/UNIX stages.

This weakness can exist either in the web worker programming itself or in the web application code.

To play out a registry crossing assault, all an assailant requires is an internet browser and some information on where to aimlessly discover any default documents and registries on the framework.

What an assailant can do if your site is defenseless with a framework defenseless against index crossing, an aggressor can utilize this weakness to venture out of the root catalog and access different pieces of the record framework.

This may enable the assailant to see confined documents, which could give the aggressor more data needed to additional trade off the framework.

Contingent upon how the site access is set up, the aggressor will execute orders by mimicking himself as the client which is related to “the site”.

Along these lines, everything relies upon what the site client has been offered admittance to in the framework. Illustration of a Directory Traversal assault by means of Web application code web applications with dynamic pages, input is generally gotten from programs through GET or POST solicitation techniques.

Here is an illustration of an HTTP GET demand URL GET HTTP/1.1 Host: With this URL, the browser requests the dynamic page show. asp from the server and with it also sends the parameter view with the value of oldarchive.html.

When this request is executed on the web server, show.asp retrieves the file oldarchive.html from the server\’s file system, renders it, and then sends it back to the browser which displays it to the user.

The attacker would assume that show. asp can retrieve files from the file system and sends the following custom URL. GET HTTP/1.1 Host: This will cause the dynamic page to retrieve the file system.ini from the file system and display it to the user.

The expression ../ instructs the system to go one directory up which is commonly used as an operating system directive.

The attacker has to guess how many directories he has to go up to find the Windows folder on the system, but this is easily done by trial and error. Example of a Directory Traversal attack via web server apart from vulnerabilities in the code, even the web server itself can be open to directory traversal attacks.

The problem can either be incorporated into the web server software or inside some sample script files left available on the server.

The vulnerability has been fixed in the latest versions of web server software, but there are web servers online that are still using older versions of IIS and Apache which might be open to directory traversal attacks.

Even though you might be using a web server software version that has fixed this vulnerability, you might still have some sensitive default script directories exposed which are well-known to hackers.

For example, a URL request which makes use of the scripts directory of IIS to traverse directories and execute command can be GET\ HTTP/1.1 Host: The request would return to the user a list of all files in the C:\ directory by executing the cmd.exe command shell file and run the command dir c:\ in the shell.

The %5c expression that is in the URL request is a web server escape code that is used to represent normal characters. In this case %5c represents the character \.

Newer versions of modern web server software check for these escape codes and do not let them through. Some older versions, however, do not filter out these codes in the root directory enforcer and will let the attackers execute such commands.

Question 6:

CompanyXYZ has asked you to assess the security of their perimeter email gateway. From your office in New York, you craft a specially formatted email message and send it across the Internet to an employee of CompanyXYZ.

The employee of CompanyXYZ is aware of your test. Your email message looks like this: From: [email protected] To: [email protected] Subject: Test message Date: 4/3/2017 14:37 The employee of CompanyXYZ receives your email message.

This proves that CompanyXYZ\’s email gateway doesn’t prevent what?

A. Email Masquerading

B. Email Harvesting

C. Email Phishing

D. Email Spoofing

Correct Answer: D

Email spoofing is the fabrication of an email header in the hopes of duping the recipient into thinking the email originated from someone or somewhere other than the intended source.

Because core email protocols do not have a built-in method of authentication, it is common for spam and phishing emails to use said spoofing to trick the recipient into trusting the origin of the message.

The ultimate goal of email spoofing is to get recipients to open, and possibly even respond to a solicitation. Although the spoofed messages are usually just a nuisance requiring little action besides removal, the more malicious varieties can cause significant problems and sometimes pose a real security threat.

Question 7:

Which of the following scanning method splits the TCP header into several packets and makes it difficult for packet filters to detect the purpose of the packet?

A. ACK flag probe scanning

B. ICMP Echo scanning

C. SYN/FIN scanning using IP fragments

D. IPID scanning

Correct Answer: C

SYN/FIN scanning using IP fragments is a process of scanning that was developed to avoid false positives generated by other scans because of a packet filtering device on the target system.

The TCP header splits into several packets to evade the packet filter. For any transmission, every TCP header must have the source and destination port for the initial packet (8-octet, 64-bit).

The initialized flags in the next packet allow the remote host to reassemble the packets upon receipt via an Internet protocol module that detects the fragmented data packets using field-equivalent values of the source, destination, protocol, and identification.

Question 8:

Susan has attached to her company\’s network. She has managed to synchronize her boss\’s sessions with that of the file server. She then intercepted his traffic destined for the server, changed it the way she wanted to, and then placed it on the server in his home directory.

What kind of attack is Susan carrying on?

A. A sniffing attack

B. A spoofing attack

C. A man in the middle attack

D. A denial of service attack

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

An attacker identified that a user and an access point are both compatible with WPA2 and WPA3 encryption. The attacker installed a rogue access point with only WPA2 compatibility in the vicinity and forced the victim to go through the WPA2 four-way handshake to get connected.

After the connection was established, the attacker used automated tools to crack WPA2-encrypted messages. What is the attack performed in the above scenario?

A. Timing-based attack

B. Side-channel attack

C. Downgrade security attack

D. Cache-based attack

Correct Answer: B

Question 10:


  1. The victim opens the attacker\’s website.
  2. The attacker sets up a website that contains interesting and attractive content like \’ Do you want to make $1000 in a day?\’.
  3. The victim clicks on the interesting and attractive content URL.
  4. The attacker creates a transparent \’ iframe\’ in front of the URL which the victim attempts to click, so the victim thinks that he/she clicks to the \’Do you want to make $1000 in a day?\’ URL but actually he/she clicks on the content or URL that exists in the transparent \’iframe\’ which is set up by the attacker.

What is the name of the attack which is mentioned in the scenario?

A. Session Fixation

B. HTML Injection

C. HTTP Parameter Pollution

D. Clickjacking Attack

Correct Answer: D Clickjacking is an attack that tricks a user into clicking a webpage element that is invisible or disguised as another element.

This can cause users to unwittingly download malware, visit malicious web pages, provide credentials or sensitive information, transfer money, or purchase products online.

Typically, clickjacking is performed by displaying an invisible page or HTML element, inside an iframe, on top of the page the user sees.

The user believes they are clicking the visible page but in fact, they are clicking an invisible element in the additional page transposed on top of it.

Question 11:

Why should the security analyst disable/remove unnecessary ISAPI filters?

A. To defend against social engineering attacks

B. To defend against webserver attacks

C. To defend against jailbreaking

D. To defend against wireless attacks

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Boot Sector Virus?

A. Modifies directory table entries so that directory entries point to the virus code instead of the actual program.

B. Moves the MBR to another location on the RAM and copies itself to the original location of the MBR.

C. Moves the MBR to another location on the hard disk and copies itself to the original location of the MBR.

D. Overwrites the original MBR and only executes the new virus code.

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

Garry is a network administrator in an organization. He uses SNMP to manage networked devices from a remote location.

To manage nodes in the network, he uses MIB. which contains formal descriptions of all network objects managed by SNMP.

He accesses the contents of MIB by using a web browser or by entering the IP address and L-series. MLB or by entering the DNS library name and L-series. MLB. He is currently retrieving information from an MIB that contains object types for workstations and server services.

Which of the following types of MIB is accessed by Garry in the above scenario?





Correct Answer: A

DHCP.MIB: Monitors network traffic between DHCP servers and remote hosts HOSTMIB.MIB: Monitors and manages host resources

LNMIB2.MIB: Contains object types for workstation and server services MIBJI.MIB: Manages TCP/IP-based Internet using a simple architecture and system WINS.MIB: For the Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)

Question 14:

Nathan is testing some of his network devices. Nathan is using Macof to try and flood the ARP cache of these switches.

If these switches\’ ARP cache is successfully flooded, what will be the result?

A. The switches will drop into hub mode if the ARP cache is successfully flooded.

B. If the ARP cache is flooded, the switches will drop into pix mode making it less susceptible to attacks.

C. Depending on the switch manufacturer, the device will either delete every entry in its ARP cache or reroute packets to the nearest switch.

D. The switches will route all traffic to the broadcast address that created collisions.

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

When analyzing the IDS logs, the system administrator noticed an alert was logged when the external router was accessed from the administrator\’s Computer to update the router configuration. What type of alert is this?

A. False negative

B. True negative

C. True positive

D. False positive

Correct Answer: D

True Positive IDS refers a behavior as an attack, in real life it is True Negative IDS referring a behavior not an attack and in real life it is not False Positive IDS referring a behavior as an attack, in real life, it is not False Negative IDS referring a behavior, not an attack, but in real life is an attack.

False Negative – is the most serious and dangerous state of all !!!!

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CISSP Exam Dumps And Questions

The elements of success in the CISSP exam can often be confusing. In short, as a test taker, you need reliable CISSP exam dumps and questions to help you prepare for the exam. What are the ingredients for success in the CISSP exam and what are the recommendations?

The latest CISSP exam dumps questions are a success factor and you can choose Pass4itSure to update the CISSP exam dumps get.

Of course, CISSP exam dumps alone are not enough, you still need to practice.

What are the ingredients for success in the CISSP exam?

Up-to-date CISSP exam dumps and questions.

The following things you need to be aware of: Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP exams

  • Familiarize yourself with the exam content
  • Well prepared
  • Pay attention to exam strategies
  • Read the question carefully
  • Control emotions
  • Keep an eye on exam times
  • Stay the course

Practice exams are a very important step in preparing for the CISSP exam

The CISSP exam is a very challenging exam that requires candidates to possess a wide range of knowledge and skills. Practice exams can help candidates become familiar with the format, improve the speed and accuracy of answering questions, and also help candidates identify their weaknesses and improve them.

The latest exam questions are available in the Pass4itSure CISSP exam dumps.

You can take a look at the CISSP free exam questions below.

Test-questions: CISSP exam questions 2023

Question 1:

A security practitioner is tasked with securing the organization\’s Wireless Access Points (WAP).

Which of these is the MOST effective way of restricting this environment to authorized users?

A. Enable Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) encryption on the wireless access point

B. Disable the broadcast of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) name

C. Change the name of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) to a random value not associated with the organization

D. Create Access Control Lists (ACL) based on Media Access Control (MAC) addresses

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when determining the frequency an automated control should be assessed or monitored?

A. The complexity of the automated control

B. The level of automation of the control

C. The range of values of the automated control

D. The volatility of the automated control

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

What is the FIRST step in developing a patch management plan?

A. Subscribe to a vulnerability subscription service.

B. Develop a patch testing procedure.

C. Inventory the hardware and software used.

D. Identify unnecessary services installed on systems.

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

What is the MOST effective method to enhance the security of a single sign-on (SSO) solution that interfaces with critical systems?

A. Two-factor authentication

B. Reusable tokens for application-level authentication

C. High-performance encryption algorithms

D. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) for all communications

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Which of the following would be the BEST guideline to follow when attempting to avoid the exposure of sensitive data?

A. Store sensitive data only when necessary.

B. Educate end-users on methods of attacks on sensitive data.

C. Establish report parameters for sensitive data.

D. Monitor mail servers for sensitive data being exfiltrated.

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

In addition to life, protection of which of the following elements is MOST important when planning a data center site?

A. Data and Hardware

B. Property and operations

C. Profits and assets

D. Resources and Reputation

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

When selecting a disk encryption technology, which of the following MUST also be assured to be encrypted?

A. Master Boot Record (MBR)

B. Pre-boot environment

C. Basic Input Output System (BIOS)

D. Hibernation file

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

How can an attacker exploit a stack overflow to execute arbitrary code?

A. Modify a function\’s return address.

B. Move the stack pointer

C. Substitute elements in the stack.

D. Alter the address of the stack.

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Which media sanitization methods should be used for data with a high-security categorization?

A. Clear or destroy

B. Clear or purge

C. Destroy or delete

D. Purge or destroy

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

A chemical plant wants to upgrade the Industrial Control System (ICS) to transmit data using Ethernet instead of RS422. The project manager wants to simplify administration and maintenance by utilizing the office network infrastructure and staff to implement this upgrade.

Which of the following is the GREATEST impact on security for the network?

A. The network administrators have no knowledge of ICS

B. The ICS is now accessible from the office network

C. The ICS does not support the office password policy

D. RS422 is more reliable than Ethernet

Correct Answer: B

Question 11:

A security professional should ensure that clients support which secondary algorithm for digital signatures when a Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (S/MIME) is used.

A. Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)

B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

C. Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA)

D. Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

What capability would typically be included in a commercially available software package designed for access control?

A. Password encryption

B. File encryption

C. Source library control

D. File authentication

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular vulnerability scanning of an organization network?

A. Provide vulnerability reports to management.

B. Validate vulnerability remediation activities.

C. Prevent attackers from discovering vulnerabilities.

D. Remediate new vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application?

A. Disable all unnecessary services

B. Ensure chain of custody

C. Prepare another backup of the system

D. Isolate the system from the network

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

If the wide area network (WAN) is supporting converged applications like Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), which of the following becomes even MORE essential to the assurance of network?

A. Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)

B. Deterministic routing

C. Internet Protocol (IP) routing lookups

D. Boundary routing

Correct Answer: C

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Latest-2023 Microsoft AZ-900 real questions (free share)

Question 1:

You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 is in the East US Azure region.

Which Azure service should you use from the Azure portal to view service failure notifications that can affect the availability of VM1?

A. Azure Service Fabric

B. Azure Monitor

C. Azure virtual machines

D. Azure Advisor

Correct Answer: C

In the Azure virtual machines page in the Azure portal, there is a named Maintenance Status. This column will display service issues that could affect your virtual machine. A service failure is rare but host server maintenance that could affect your virtual machines is more common.

Azure periodically updates its platform to improve the reliability, performance, and security of the host infrastructure for virtual machines. The purpose of these updates ranges from patching software components in the hosting environment to upgrading networking components or decommissioning hardware.


Question 2:

Fill in the blank (______________________) in Azure Firewall enables users on the internet to access a server on a virtual network.

Correct Answer: Network Address Translation(NAT) rules

Question 3:


Match the Azure service to the correct description.

Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate Azure service from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.

Select and Place:

az-900 test questions 3

Correct Answer:

az-900 test questions 3-2


Box 1: Azure SQL Database

SQL Server is a relational database service. Azure SQL Database is a managed SQL Server Database in Azure. The SQL Server is managed by Microsoft; you just have access to the database.

Box 2: Azure SQL Synapse Analytics

Azure SQL Synapse Analytics (previously called Data Warehouse) is a cloud-based Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) offering from Microsoft. It is a large-scale, distributed, MPP (massively parallel processing) relational database technology in the same class of competitors as Amazon Redshift or Snowflake.

Azure SQL Synapse Analytics is an important component of the Modern Data Warehouse multi-platform architecture.

Because Azure SQL Synapse Analytics is an MPP system with a shared-nothing architecture across distributions, it is meant for large-scale analytical workloads which can take advantage of parallelism.

Box 3: Azure Data Lake Analytics

You can process big data jobs in seconds with Azure Data Lake Analytics.

You can process petabytes of data for diverse workload categories such as querying, ETL, analytics, machine learning, machine translation, image processing, and sentiment analysis by leveraging existing libraries written in .NET languages, R or Python.

Box 4: Azure HDInsight.

Apache Hadoop was the original open-source framework for distributed processing and analysis of big data sets on clusters. The Hadoop ecosystem includes related software and utilities, including Apache Hive, Apache HBase, Spark, Kafka, and many others.

Azure HDInsight is a fully managed, full-spectrum, open-source analytics service in the cloud for enterprises.

The Apache Hadoop cluster type in Azure HDInsight allows you to use HDFS, YARN resource management, and a simple MapReduce programming model to process and analyze batch data in parallel.


Question 4:

You have a resource group named RG1.

You plan to create virtual networks and app services in RG1.

You need to prevent the creation of virtual machines only in RG1.

What should you use?

A. a lock

B. an Azure role

C. a tag

D. an Azure policy

Correct Answer: D

Azure policies can be used to define requirements for resource properties during deployment and for already existing resources. Azure Policy controls properties such as the types or locations of resources.

Azure Policy is a service in Azure that you use to create, assign, and manage policies. These policies enforce different rules and effects over your resources, so those resources stay compliant with your corporate standards and service level agreements.

In this question, we would create an Azure policy assigned to the resource group that denies the creation of virtual machines in the resource group.

You could place a read-only lock on the resource group. However, that would prevent the creation of any resources in the resource group, not virtual machines only. Therefore, an Azure Policy is a better solution.


Question 5:

Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains 5,000 user accounts.

Your company plans to migrate all network resources to Azure and to decommission the on-premises data center.

You need to recommend a solution to minimize the impact on users after the planned migration.

What should you recommend?

A. Implement Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

B. Sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)

C. Instruct all users to change their password

D. Create a guest user account in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) for each user

Correct Answer: B

To migrate to Azure and decommission the on-premises data center, you would need to create the 5,000 user accounts in Azure Active Directory. The easy way to do this is to sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active

Directory (Azure AD). You can even sync their passwords to further minimize the impact on users.

The tool you would use to sync the accounts is Azure AD Connect. The Azure Active Directory Connect synchronization services (Azure AD Connect sync) are a main component of Azure AD Connect.

It takes care of all the operations that are related to synchronizing identity data between your on-premises environment and Azure AD.


Question 6:

Fill in the blank Azure distributed denial of service (DDoS) protection is an example of a protection that is implemented at the (_______________).

Correct Answer: networking layer

Question 7:


Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.

Hot Area:

az-900 test questions 7

Correct Answer:

az-900 test questions 7-2


Box: within a single Azure region

Azure availability zones are physically separate locations within each Azure region that are tolerant to local failures.


Question 8:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

Your company deploys several virtual machines on-premises and to Azure. ExpressRoute is being deployed and configured for on-premises to Azure connectivity.

Several virtual machines exhibit network connectivity issues.

You need to analyze the network traffic to identify whether packets are being allowed or denied to the virtual machines.

Solution: Use Azure Traffic Analytics in Azure Network Watcher to analyze the network traffic.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead use Azure Network Watcher IP Flow Verify, which allows you to detect traffic filtering issues at a VM level.

Note: IP flow verification checks if a packet is allowed or denied to or from a virtual machine. The information consists of direction, protocol, local IP, remote IP, local port, and a remote port. If the packet is denied by a security group, the name of the rule that denied the packet is returned.

While any source or destination IP can be chosen, IP flow verification helps administrators quickly diagnose connectivity issues from or to the internet and from or to the on-premises environment.


Question 9:


Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.

Hot Area:

az-900 test questions 9

Correct Answer:

az-900 test questions 9-2

Question 10:


For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

az-900 test questions 10

Correct Answer:

az-900 test questions 10-2

Box 1: Yes

You can send Azure AD activity logs to Azure Monitor logs to enable rich visualizations, monitoring, and alerting on the connected data.

All data collected by Azure Monitor fits into one of two fundamental types, metrics, and logs (including Azure AD activity logs). Activity logs record when resources are created or modified. Metrics tell you how the resource is performing and the resources that it\’s consuming.

Box 2: Yes

Azure Monitor can consolidate log entries from multiple Azure resources, subscriptions, and tenants into one location for analysis together.

Box 3: Yes

You can create alerts in Azure Monitor.

Alerts in Azure Monitor proactively notify you of critical conditions and potentially attempt to take corrective action. Alert rules based on metrics provide near real-time alerting based on numeric values, while rules based on logs allow for complex logic across data from multiple sources.


Question 11:


Match the Azure services to the appropriate descriptions.

To answer, drag the appropriate service from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.

Select and Place:

az-900 test questions 11

Correct Answer:

az-900 test questions 11-2

Explanation: Box 1: ExpressRoute ExpressRoute lets you extend your on-premises networks into the Microsoft Cloud over a private connection with the help of a connectivity provider. With ExpressRoute, you can establish connections to Microsoft cloud services, such as Microsoft Azure and Microsoft 365.

Box 2: Virtual network peering enables you to seamlessly connect two or more Virtual Networks in Azure. The virtual networks appear as one for connectivity purposes. The traffic between virtual machines in peered virtual networks uses the Microsoft backbone infrastructure.

Box 3: VPN gateway VPN gateways provide secure connectivity between multiple sites, such as on-premises data centers, Google Cloud Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) networks, and Google Cloud VMware Engine private clouds. Traffic is encrypted because the VPN connections traverse the internet.


Question 12:

Your company plans 10 migrate all its data and resources to Azure.

The company\’s migration plan states that only Platform as a Service (PaaS) solutions must be used in Azure

You need to deploy an Azure environment that meets the company\’s migration plan

What should you create?

A. an Azure App Service and Azure SQL databases

B. Azure storage accounts and web server in Azure virtual machines

C. Azure virtual machines. Azure SQL databases, and Azure Storage accounts

D. an Azure App Service and Azure virtual machines that have Microsoft SQL Server installed

Correct Answer: A

Azure App Service and Azure SQL databases are examples of Azure PaaS solutions. Therefore, this solution does meet the goal.

Question 13:

What is the longest term you can purchase for Azure Reserved VM Instances?

A. three years

B. four years

C. one year

D. five years

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

Your company is planning to migrate all its virtual machines to an Azure pay-as-you-go subscription. The virtual machines are currently hosted on the Hyper-V hosts in a data center.

You are required to make sure that the intended Azure solution uses the correct expenditure model.

Solution: You should recommend the use of the elastic expenditure model.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

You have an Azure Sentinel workspace.

You need to automate responses to threats detected by Azure Sentinel.

What should you use?

A. adaptive network hardening in Azure Security Center

B. Azure Service Health

C. Azure Monitor workbooks

D. adaptive application controls in Azure Security Center

Correct Answer: C

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Free Question 1:

Which of the following utilizes TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext?




D. Telnet

Correct Answer: C

Free Question 2:

Which of the following charging and data ports has a non-directional connector?

A. Micro-USB

B. Mini-USB



Correct Answer: D

Free Question 3:

A user reports being unable to browse the internet. A technician believes the cause of the issue is related to DNS. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?

A. Test the theory by attempting to browse to a website’s known IP address.

B. Implement preventive measures by manually assigning a DNS server to the PC.

C. Identify the problem by running the command ipconfig /flushdns.

D. Document the finding in the organization’s local knowledge base.

Correct Answer: A

Free Question 4:

An online retailer wants to save money and is considering migrating to the public cloud so the peak is over. Which of the following BEST describes this aspect of cloud computing?

A. Rapid elasticity

B. Metered utilization

C. Shared resources

D. High availability

Correct Answer: A

Rapid elasticity is only suitable for a domain whose resource requirements suddenly up and down for a specific time interval. Referring to the question of the online retailer wanting to migrate to public cloud services during peak season, then wanting it to be removed “automatically” when the peak is over.

Free Question 5:

An associate is seeking advice on which device to purchase for a friend who is a business owner. The friend needs the ability to chat activity while keeping in contact with the home office.

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation?

A. Smartwatch

B. Fitness monitor

C. Global positioning sensor

D. Portable hotspot

Correct Answer: A

Free Question 6:

Which of the following connector types does not require a specific orientation?

A. MicroUSB



D. MiniUSB

Correct Answer: B


Free Question 7:

Which peripherals would a company use to take inventory quickly and update price tags for products? (Choose two.)

A. Barcode scanner

B. Label printer

C. Magnetic reader

D. KVM switch

E. NFC device

F. Flatted scanner

Correct Answer: AC

Free Question 8:

An IT manager is requesting that the company buy new cables to be used with F-type connectors that are already in-house. Which of the following cables should the company buy?

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B. Plenum

C. Cat 5e

D. Fiber

Correct Answer: A

Free Question 9:

The feature that allows users to store files in a cloud-based when necessary, but can be removed when space is freed up, is known as:

A. on-demand

B. resource pool

C. synchronization application

D. shared resources

Correct Answer: A

Free Question 10:

Which of the following describes the operational difference between hubs and switches when transmitting data to a specific computer inside the network?

A. Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computers inside the network.

B. Switches compress data while hubs send uncompressed data

C. Switches receive data and route it to all computers inside the network while hubs receive data and do not route

D. Switches scramble data, while hubs send data in the original form.

Correct Answer: A

Free Question 11:

A user is unable to access websites and has reported connectivity issues with pop-ups on the screen. A technician removes malware and then is able to ping the router and access the websites.

Which of the following NEXT steps should the technician perform in troubleshooting this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Documents findings, actions, and outcomes.

B. Reboot the device to verify the fix.

C. Reconnect the device to the network.

D. Verify the settings in IPConfig.

E. Research the problem based on symptoms.

F. Run a virus scan.

Correct Answer: AE

Free Question 12:

A user connects a laptop to a docking station but is unable to see an image on the external monitor. The user tests the docking station USB ports, and they are working fine. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A. Check for firmware updates

B. Configure extended display mode

C. Replace the external monitor

D. Adjust the laptop\’s BIOS settings

Correct Answer: B

Free Question 13:

A technician must call a user\’s cellular provider to troubleshoot a network speed issue with the user\’s mobile device. Which of the following technologies is the technician troubleshooting?

A. Long-term evolution

B. Near-field communication

C. Radio frequency ID

D. Z-wave

Correct Answer: A

Free Question 14:

Ann, a user, realizes she forgot to pack her laptop\’s AC adapter when she was preparing for a business trip. She calls the help desk to ask how to maximize her battery life until she returns to the office. Which of the following are the BEST solutions? (Choose two.)

A. Disable the speakers.

B. Dim the screen\’s brightness.

C. Turn on the wireless.

D. Turn off Bluetooth.

E. Turn on GPS.

F. Mute the microphone.

Correct Answer: BD

Free Question 15:

During an inspection, it was found that data racks were not properly grounded. To pass the inspection and address a growing concern to protect data cabling and equipment, a technician must make sure all racks are properly grounded.

Which of the following tools should the technician use to verify this has been completed?

A. Multimeter

B. Cable tester

C. Tone generator

D. Voltmeter

Correct Answer: A

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Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) Free Dumps 312-39 Exam Questions [2022]

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Free 312-39 Exam Questions Answers


Which of the following tool can be used to filter web requests associated with the SQL Injection attack?

A. Nmap
B. UrlScan
C. ZAP proxy
D. Hydra

Correct Answer: B



Bonney\\’s system has been compromised by gruesome malware. What is the primary step that is advisable to Bonney in order to contain the malware incident from spreading?

A. Complaint to police in a formal way regarding the incident
B. Turn off the infected machine
C. Leave it to the network administrators to handle
D. Call the legal department in the organization and information about the incident

Correct Answer: B


Which of the following technique involves scanning the headers of IP packets leaving a network to make sure that the unauthorized or malicious traffic never leaves the internal network?

A. Egress Filtering
B. Throttling
C. Rate Limiting
D. Ingress Filtering

Correct Answer: A

Reference: (99)


An organization is implementing and deploying the SIEM with the following capabilities.

What kind of SIEM deployment architecture the organization is planning to implement?

A. Cloud, MSSP Managed
B. Self-hosted, Jointly Managed C. Self-hosted, Self-Managed
D. Self-hosted, MSSP Managed

Correct Answer: A


Identify the attack when an attacker by several trial and error can read the contents of a password file present in the restricted etc folder just by manipulating the URL in the browser as shown:

A. Directory Traversal Attack
B. SQL Injection Attack
C. Denial-of-Service Attack
D. Form Tampering Attack

Correct Answer: B



Which of the following formula represents the risk levels?

A. Level of risk = Consequence x Severity
B. Level of risk = Consequence x Impact
C. Level of risk = Consequence x Likelihood
D. Level of risk = Consequence x Asset Value

Correct Answer: B


Sam, a security analyst with INFO SOLD INC., while monitoring and analyzing IIS logs, detected an event matching regex /\\w*((\%27)|(\\\’))((\%6F)|o|(\%4F))((\%72)|r|(\%52))/ix. What does this event log indicate?

A. SQL Injection Attack
B. Parameter Tampering Attack
C. XSS Attack
D. Directory Traversal Attack

Correct Answer: A



The Syslog message severity levels are labeled from level 0 to level 7. What does level 0 indicate?

A. Alert
B. Notification
C. Emergency
D. Debugging

Correct Answer: B


Which one of the following is the correct flow for Setting Up a Computer Forensics Lab?

A. Planning and budgeting

Correct Answer: A


Which of the following is a Threat Intelligence Platform?

A. SolarWinds MS
B. TC Complete
C. Keep note

Correct Answer: A



Identify the attack in which the attacker exploits a target system through publicly known but still unpatched vulnerabilities.

A. Slow DoS Attack
B. DHCP Starvation
C. Zero-Day Attack
D. DNS Poisoning Attack

Correct Answer: C



Which of the following technique protects from flooding attacks originating from the valid prefixes (IP addresses) so that they can be traced to their true source?

A. Rate Limiting
B. Egress Filtering
C. Ingress Filtering
D. Throttling

Correct Answer: C

Reference: (3)


Which of the following directory will contain logs related to printer access?
A. /var/log/cups/Printer_log file
B. /var/log/cups/access_log file
C. /var/log/cups/access log file
D. /var/log/cups/Printeraccess_log file

Correct Answer: A

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Full Name: Certified Ethical Hacker Exam (C|EH v10)
Code: 312-50V10
Certification: CEH v10
Exam validity: 1 year
Passing Score: The actual percentage of questions you must answer correctly varies by exam and may be higher or lower than 70%
The Certified Ethical Hacking (CEH) program is the world’s most comprehensive ethical hacking course designed to help information security professionals master the basics of ethical hacking.
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It is a widely used standard for message logging. It permits the separation of the software that generates messages, the system that stores them, and the software that reports and analyzes them. This protocol is specifically designed for transporting event messages. Which of the following is being described?


Correct Answer: C


A security engineer is attempting to map a company\\’s internal network. The engineer enters the following NMAP command: NMAP –n –sS –P0 –p 80 ***.***.**.** What type of scan is this?

A. Quick scan
B. Intense scan
C. Stealth scan
D. Comprehensive scan

Correct Answer: C


Trinity needs to scan all hosts on a /16 network for TCP port 445 only. What is the fastest way she can accomplish this with Nmap? Stealth is not a concern.

A. nmap -sn -sF 445
B. nmap -p 445 -n -T4 –open
C. nmap -s 445 -sU -T5
D. nmap -p 445 –max -Pn

Correct Answer: B


Take a look at the following attack on a Web Server using obstructed URL:

How would you protect from these attacks?

A. Configure the Web Server to deny requests involving “hex-encoded” characters
B. Create rules in IDS to alert on strange Unicode requests
C. Use SSL authentication on Web Servers
D. Enable Active Scripts Detection at the firewall and routers

Correct Answer: B


Jimmy is standing outside a secure entrance to a facility. He is pretending to have a tense conversation on his cell phone as an authorized employee badge in. Jimmy, while still on the phone, grabs the door as it begins to close. What just happened?

A. Phishing
B. Whaling
C. Tailgating
D. Masquerading

Correct Answer: C


Which of the following security operations is used for determining the attack surface of an organization?

A. Running a network scan to detect network services in the corporate DMZ
B. Training employees on the security policy regarding social engineering
C. Reviewing the need for a security clearance for each employee
D. Using configuration management to determine when and where to apply security patches

Correct Answer: A

For a network scan, the goal is to document the exposed attack surface along with any easily detected vulnerabilities.



What is the code written for?

A. Buffer Overflow
B. Encryption
C. Bruteforce
D. Denial-of-service (Dos)

Correct Answer: A


Cryptography is the practice and study of techniques for secure communication in the presence of third parties (called adversaries.) More generally, it is about constructing and analyzing protocols that overcome the influence of adversaries and that are related to various aspects of information security such as data confidentiality, data integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation.

Modern cryptography intersects the disciplines of mathematics, computer science, and electrical engineering. Applications of cryptography include ATM cards, computer passwords, and electronic commerce. Basic examples to understand how cryptography works are given below:

Which of the following choices is true about cryptography?

A. Algorithm is not the secret, key is the secret.
B. Symmetric-key algorithms are a class of algorithms for cryptography that use the different cryptographic keys for both encryptions of plaintext and decryption of ciphertext.
C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses the asymmetric encryption both (public/private key pair) to deliver the shared session key and to achieve a communication way.
D. Public-key cryptography, also known as asymmetric cryptography, the public key is for decrypting, and the private key is for encrypting.

Correct Answer: C


Which of the following lists are valid data-gathering activities associated with a risk assessment?

A. Threat identification, vulnerability identification, control analysis
B. Threat identification, response identification, mitigation identification
C. Attack profile, defense profile, loss profile
D. System profile, vulnerability identification, security determination

Correct Answer: A


How does a denial-of-service attack work?

A. A hacker prevents a legitimate user (or group of users) from accessing a service
B. A hacker uses every character, word, or letter he or she can think of to defeat authentication
C. A hacker tries to decipher a password by using a system, which subsequently crashes the network
D. A hacker attempts to imitate a legitimate user by confusing a computer or even another person

Correct Answer: A


What two conditions must a digital signature meet?

A. Has to be unforgeable, and has to be authentic.
B. Has to be legible and neat.
C. Must be unique and have special characters.
D. Has to be the same number of characters as a physical signature and must be unique.

Correct Answer: A


Cross-site request forgery involves:

A. A request sent by a malicious user from a browser to a server
B. Modification of a request by a proxy between client and server
C. A browser making a request to a server without the user\’s knowledge
D. A server making a request to another server without the user\’s knowledge

Correct Answer: C


What is the broadcast address for the subnet


Correct Answer: C

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Thomas, a cloud security professional, is performing security assessments on cloud services to identify any loopholes.

He detects a vulnerability in a bare-metal cloud server that can enable hackers to implant malicious backdoors in its firmware. He also identified that an installed backdoor can persist even if the server is reallocated to new clients or businesses that use it as an alias.

What is the type of cloud attack that can be performed by exploiting the vulnerability discussed in the above scenario?

A. Man-in-the-cloud (MITC) attack
B. Cloud cryptojacking
C. Cloudborne attack
D. Metadata spoofing attack

Correct Answer: C


What do Trinoo, TFN2k, WinTrinoo, T-Sight, and Stracheldraht have in common?

A. All are hacking tools developed by the legion of doom
B. All are tools that can be used not only by hackers but also security personnel
C. All are DDOS tools
D. All are tools that are only effective against Windows
E. All are tools that are only effective against Linux

Correct Answer: C


Which of the following tactics uses malicious code to redirect users\\’ web traffic?

A. Spamming
B. Pharming
C. Phishing
D. Spear-phishing

Correct Answer: B


Which of the following tools is used to detect wireless LANs using the 802.11a/b/g/n WLAN standards on a linux

A. Kismet
B. Abel
C. Netstumbler
D. Nessus

Correct Answer: A


Which of the following is the BEST way to defend against network sniffing?

A. Using encryption protocols to secure network communications
B. Register all machines MAC Addresses in a Centralized Database
C. Use Static IP Address
D. Restrict Physical Access to Server Rooms hosting Critical Servers

Correct Answer: A


When purchasing a biometric system, one of the considerations that should be reviewed is the processing speed. Which of the following best describes what it is meant by processing?

A. The amount of time and resources that are necessary to maintain a biometric system
B. How long does it take to set up individual user accounts
C. The amount of time it takes to be either accepted or rejected from when an individual provides identification and authentication information
D. The amount of time it takes to convert biometric data into a template on a smart card

Correct Answer: C


During a recent security assessment, you discover the organization has one Domain Name Server (DNS) in a
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) and a second DNS server on the internal network.
What is this type of DNS configuration commonly called?

B. DNS Scheme
D. Split DNS

Correct Answer: D


Bobby, an attacker, targeted a user and decided to hijack and intercept all their wireless communications.
He installed a fake communication tower between two authentic endpoints to mislead the victim. Bobby
used this virtual tower to interrupt the data transmission between the user and the real tower, attempting to
hijack an active session, upon receiving the user’s request.

Bobby manipulated the traffic with the virtual
tower and redirected the victim to a malicious website.
What is the attack performed by Bobby in the above scenario?

A. Wardriving
B. KRACK attack
C. jamming signal attack
D. aLTEr attack

Correct Answer: D



1. Victim opens the attacker\’s website.
2. Attacker sets up a website which contains interesting and attractive content like \’ Do you want to make $1000 in a day?\’.
3. Victim clicks to the interesting and attractive content URL.
4. Attacker creates a transparent \’ iframe\’ in front of the URL which victim attempts to click, so the victim thinks that he/she clicks to the \’ Do you want to make $1000 in a day?\’ URL but actually he/she clicks to the content or URL that exists in the transparent \’ iframe\’ which is set up by the attacker.

What is the name of the attack which is mentioned in the scenario?

A. Session Fixation
B. HTML Injection
C. HTTP Parameter Pollution
D. Clickjacking Attack

Correct Answer: D


Which of the following LM hashes represent a password of fewer than 8 characters? (Choose two.)

A. BA810DBA98995F1817306D272A9441BB
B. 44EFCE164AB921CQAAD3B435B51404EE
C. 0182BD0BD4444BF836077A718CCDF409
D. CEC52EB9C8E3455DC2265B23734E0DAC
E. B757BF5C0D87772FAAD3B435B51404EE
F. E52CAC67419A9A224A3B108F3FA6CB6D

Correct Answer: BE


Which among the following is the best example of the third step (delivery) in the cyber kill chain?

A. An intruder sends a malicious attachment via email to a target.
B. An intruder creates malware to be used as a malicious attachment to an email.
C. An intruder\’s malware is triggered when a target opens a malicious email attachment.
D. An intruder\’s malware is installed on a target\’s machine.

Correct Answer: A


Which type of malware spreads from one system to another or from one network to another and causes similar types of damage as viruses to do to the infected system?

A. Rootkit
B. Trojan
C. Worm
D. Adware

Correct Answer: C

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Shane has started the static analysis of a malware and is using the tool ResourcesExtract to find more details of the malicious program. What part of the analysis is he performing?

A. Identifying File Dependencies
B. Strings search
C. Dynamic analysis
D. File obfuscation

Correct Answer: B


When marking evidence that has been collected with the aa/ddmmyy/nnnn/zz?format, what does the nnn?
denote?When marking evidence that has been collected with the ?aa/ddmmyy/nnnn/zz?format, what does the

A. The year the evidence was taken
B. The sequence number for the parts of the same exhibit
C. The initials of the forensics analyst
D. The sequential number of the exhibits seized

Correct Answer: D


Which file is a sequence of bytes organized into blocks understandable by the system\\’s linker?

A. executable file
B. source file
C. Object file
D. None of these

Correct Answer: C


What is the first step that needs to be carried out to crack the password?

A. A word list is created using a dictionary generator program or dictionaries
B. The list of dictionary words is hashed or encrypted
C. The hashed wordlist is compared against the target hashed password, generally one word at a time
D. If it matches, that password has been cracked and the password cracker displays the unencrypted version of the password

Correct Answer: A


Which of the following is a responsibility of the first responder?

A. Determine the severity of the incident
B. Collect as much information about the incident as possible
C. Share the collected information to determine the root cause
D. Document the findings

Correct Answer: B


Harold is a web designer who has completed a website for As part of the maintenance agreement hesigned with the client, Harold is performing research online and seeing how much exposure the site has received so far.

Harold navigates to and types in the following search. What will this search produce?

A. All search engines that link to .net domains
B. All sites that link to
C. Sites that contain the code:
D. All sites that links to

Correct Answer: B


Meyer Electronics Systems just recently had a number of laptops stolen out of their office. On these laptops contained sensitive corporate information regarding patents and company strategies. A month after the laptops were stolen, a competing company was found to have just developed products that almost exactly duplicated products that Meyer produces. What could have prevented this information from being stolen from the laptops?

A. DFS Encryption
B. EFS Encryption
C. SDW Encryption
D. IPS Encryption

Correct Answer: B


Chris has been called upon to investigate a hacking incident reported by one of his clients. The company suspects the involvement of an insider accomplice in the attack. Upon reaching the incident scene, Chris secures the physical area, records the scene using visual media.

He shuts the system down by pulling the power plug so that he does not disturb the system in any way. He labels all cables and connectors prior to disconnecting any. What do you think would be the next sequence of events?

A. Connect the target media; Prepare the system for acquisition; Secure the evidence; Copy the media
B. Prepare the system for acquisition; Connect the target media; Copy the media; Secure the evidence
C. Connect the target media; Delete the system for acquisition; Secure the evidence; Copy the media
D. Secure the evidence; Prepare the system for acquisition; Connect the target media; Copy the media

Correct Answer: B


File signature analysis involves collecting information from the __________ of a file to determine the type and function of the file

A. First 10 bytes
B. First 20 bytes
C. First 30 bytes
D. First 40 bytes

Correct Answer: B


Which of the following Linux command searches through the current processes and lists the process IDs those match the selection criteria to stdout?

A. pstree
B. pgrep
C. ps
D. grep

Correct Answer: B



You are called in to assist the police in an investigation involving a suspected drug dealer. The police searched the suspect house after aYou are called in to assist the police in an investigation involving a suspected drug dealer. The police searched the suspect? house after a warrant was obtained and they located a floppy disk in the suspect bedroom.

The disk contains several files, but they appear to be passwordwarrant was obtained and they located a floppy disk in the suspect? bedroom. The disk contains several files, but they appear to be password protected.

What are two common methods used by password cracking software that you could use to obtain the password?

A. Limited force and library attack
B. Brute force and dictionary attack
C. Maximum force and thesaurus attack
D. Minimum force and appendix attack

Correct Answer: B


First responder is a person who arrives first at the crime scene and accesses the victim\’s computer system after the incident. He or She is responsible for protecting, integrating, and preserving the evidence obtained from the crime scene.

Which of the following is not a role of first responder?

A. Identify and analyze the crime scene
B. Protect and secure the crime scene
C. Package and transport the electronic evidence to forensics lab
D. Prosecute the suspect in court of law

Correct Answer: D


Which among the following files provides email header information in the Microsoft Exchange server?

A. gwcheck.db

Correct Answer: B

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Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Boot Sector Virus?

A. Modifies directory table entries so that directory entries point to the virus code instead of the actual program.
B. Moves the MBR to another location on the RAM and copies itself to the original location of the MBR.
C. Moves the MBR to another location on the hard disk and copies itself to the original location of the MBR.
D. Overwrites the original MBR and only executes the new virus code.

Correct Answer: C


Harper, a software engineer, is developing an email application. To ensure the confidentiality of email messages,
Harper uses a symmetric-key block cipher having a classical 12- or 16-round Feistel network with a block size of 64 bits for encryption, which includes large 8 × 32-bit S-boxes (S1, S2, S3, S4) based on bent functions, modular addition, and subtraction, key-dependent rotation, and XOR operations.

This cipher also uses a masking key (Km1) and a rotation key (Kr1) for performing its functions.

What is the algorithm employed by Harper to secure the email messages?

A. CAST-128
C. GOST block cipher

Correct Answer: A


Shiela is an information security analyst working at HiTech Security Solutions. She is performing the service version discovery using Nmap to obtain information about the running services and their versions on a target system.

Which of the following Nmap options must she use to perform service version discovery on the target host?

A. -sN
B. -sV
C. -sX
D. -sF

Correct Answer: B


John, a professional hacker, decided to use DNS to perform data exfiltration on a target network, in this process, he embedded malicious data into the DNS protocol packets that even DNSSEC cannot detect.

Using this technique. John successfully injected malware to bypass a firewall and maintained communication with the victim machine and CandC server. What is the technique employed by John to bypass the firewall?

A. DNS cache snooping
B. DNSSEC zone walking
C. DNS tunneling method
D. DNS enumeration

Correct Answer: C

DNS tunneling may be a method wont to send data over the DNS protocol, a protocol that has never been intended for data transfer. due to that, people tend to overlook it and it\’s become a well-liked but effective tool in many attacks.

The most popular use case for DNS tunneling is obtaining free internet through bypassing captive portals at airports, hotels, or if you are feeling patient the not-so-cheap on the wing Wi-Fi. On those shared internet hotspots HTTP traffic is blocked until a username/password is provided, however DNS traffic is usually still allowed within the background:

we will encode our HTTP traffic over DNS and voil? we\’ve internet access. This sounds fun but the reality is, browsing anything on DNS tunneling is slow. Like, back to 1998 slow. Another more dangerous use of DNS tunneling would be bypassing network security devices (Firewalls, DLP appliances…) to line up an immediate and unmonitored communications channel on an organization \’s network.

Possibilities here are endless: Data exfiltration, fixing another penetration testing tool… you name it. To make it even more worrying, their \’s an outsized amount of easy-to-use DNS tunneling tools out there.There\’s even a minimum of one VPN over DNS protocol provider (warning: the planning of the website is
hideous, making me doubt the legitimacy of it).

As a pentester, all this is often great, as a network admin, not such a lot. How does it work: For those that ignoramus about DNS protocol but still made it here, I feel you deserve a really brief on what DNS does: DNS is sort of a phonebook for the web, it translates URLs (human-friendly language, the person\’s name), into an IP address (machine-friendly language, the phone number).

That helps us remember many websites, same as we will remember many people\’s names. For those that know what DNS is I might suggest looking here for a fast refresh on DNS protocol, but briefly what you would like to understand is:?A Record: Maps a website name to an IP Record (a.k.a. Nameserver record): Maps a website name to an inventory of DNS servers, just in case our website is hosted in multiple, who is involved in DNS tunneling?? Client. Will launch DNS requests with data in them to a website .?

One Domain that we will configure. So DNS servers will redirect its requests to an outlined server of our own.? Server. this is often the defined nameserver that can ultimately receive the DNS requests.

The 6 Steps in DNS tunneling (simplified):1. The client encodes data during a DNS request. The way it does this is often by prepending a bit of knowledge within the domain of the request.

for instance : mypieceofdata.server1.example.com2. The DNS request goes bent a DNS server.3. The DNS server finds out the A register of your domain with the IP address of your server.4.

The request for is forwarded to server.5. The server processes regardless of the mypieceofdata were alleged to do. Let\’s assume it had been an HTTP request.6. The server replies over DNS and Woop Woop, we\’ve got signal.


You are trying to break into a highly classified top-secret mainframe computer with the highest security system in place at Merclyn Barley Bank located in Los Angeles.

You know that conventional hacking doesn\’t work in this case, because organizations such as banks are generally tight and secure when it comes to protecting their systems.

In other words, you are trying to penetrate an otherwise impenetrable system.
How would you proceed?

A. Look for “zero-day” exploits at various underground hacker websites in Russia and China and buy the necessary exploits from these hackers and target the bank\’s network

B. Try to hang around the local pubs or restaurants near the bank, get talking to a poorly- paid or disgruntled employee, and offer them money if they\’ll abuse their access privileges by providing you with sensitive information

C. Launch DDOS attacks against Merclyn Barley Bank\’s routers and firewall systems using 100, 000 or more
“zombies” and “bots”

D. Try to conduct Man-in-the-Middle (MiTM) attack and divert the network traffic going to the Merclyn Barley Bank\’s Webserver to that of your machine using DNS Cache Poisoning techniques

Correct Answer: B


Which type of malware spreads from one system to another or from one network to another and causes similar types of damage as viruses to do to the infected system?

A. Worm
B. Rootkit
C. Adware
D. Trojan

Correct Answer: A


Null sessions are un-authenticated connections (not using a username or password.) to an NT or 2000 system. Which TCP and UDP ports must you filter to check null sessions on your network?

A. 137 and 139
B. 137 and 443
C. 139 and 443
D. 139 and 445

Correct Answer: D


Session splicing is an IDS evasion technique in which an attacker delivers data in multiple, small-sized packets to the target computer, making it very difficult for an IDS to detect the attack signatures. Which tool can be used to perform session splicing attacks?

A. TCP splice
B. Burp
C. Hydra
D. Whisker

Correct Answer: D


What is correct about digital signatures?

A. A digital signature cannot be moved from one signed document to another because it is the hash of the original document encrypted with the private key of the signing party.
B. Digital signatures may be used in different documents of the same type.
C. A digital signature cannot be moved from one signed document to another because it is a plain hash of the document content.
D. Digital signatures are issued once for each user and can be used everywhere until they expire.

Correct Answer: A


You have retrieved the raw hash values from a Windows 2000 Domain Controller. Using social engineering, you come to know that they are enforcing strong passwords. You understand that all users are required to use passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.

All passwords must also use 3 of the 4 following categories: lower case letters, capital letters, numbers, and special characters.

With your existing knowledge of users, likely user account names, and the possibility that they will choose the easiest passwords possible, what would be the fastest type of password cracking attack you can run against these hash values and still get results?

A. Online Attack
B. Dictionary Attack
C. Brute Force Attack
D. Hybrid Attack

Correct Answer: D

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