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New SC-400 Dumps Free Practice Questions Online (1-15)

From: Pass4itSure
Number of issues: 15/237
Relevant certification: Microsoft

Question 1:

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are configuring a file policy in Microsoft Cloud App Security.

You need to configure the policy to apply to all files. Alerts must be sent to every file owner who is affected by the policy. The policy must scan for credit card numbers, and alerts must be sent to the Microsoft Teams site of the affected department.

Solution: You use the Data Classification service inspection method and send alerts to Microsoft Power Automate.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

The proposed solution involves using the Data Classification service inspection method and sending alerts to Microsoft Power Automate. While this approach is partially correct in that the Data Classification service can be used to scan for sensitive information such as credit card numbers in files, the solution does not directly address the requirement to send alerts to every file owner and to the Microsoft Teams site of the affected department.

Microsoft Cloud App Security policies can be configured to send alerts when files containing sensitive information are detected. However, the integration with Microsoft Teams for alerting purposes is not directly facilitated through Microsoft Power Automate within the scope of configuring a file policy in Microsoft Cloud App Security alone. The communication to Microsoft Teams and file owners would typically involve additional configuration outside the direct settings of a file policy in Microsoft Cloud App Security.

To meet the goal of alerting every file owner and the Microsoft Teams site of the affected department directly, you would need to ensure that the alerting mechanism specifically includes these targets. While Microsoft Power Automate can be used to automate workflows and could potentially be part of a solution to route alerts appropriately, simply sending alerts to Power Automate does not guarantee that alerts will reach both the file owners and the specific Microsoft Teams site without the proper workflow configuration in Power Automate that specifically targets these recipients.

Question 2:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses Microsoft Office 365 Message Encryption (OME).

You need to ensure that any emails containing attachments sent to [email protected] are encrypted automatically by using OME.

What should you do?

A. From the Exchange admin center, create a new sharing policy.

B. From the Microsoft 365 security center, create a Safe Attachments policy.

C. From the Exchange admin center, create a mail flow rule.

D. From the Microsoft 365 compliance center, configure an auto-apply retention label policy.

Correct Answer: C

You can create mail flow rules to help protect email messages you send and receive. You can set up rules to encrypt any outgoing email messages and remove encryption from encrypted messages coming from inside your organization or from replies to encrypted messages sent from your organization.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/define-mail-flow-rules-to-encrypt-email?view=o365-worldwide

Question 3:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription.

You receive the data loss prevention (DLP) alert shown in the following exhibit.

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 3

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 3-2

Correct Answer:

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 3-2

Explanation:

Box 1: sent to a manager for approval

Actions taken: GenerateAlert

User overrode policy: Yes

Manager approved

Box 2: overrode Rule1

Rule1 was overridden.

Note: Policy Details:

Policy1

Rule1

Note 2: User Override support

Here are some fine points to understand about using a policy tip to override a rule:

The option to override is per rule, and it overrides all of the actions in the rule (except sending a notification, which can’t be overridden).

Reference:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/use-notifications-and-policy-tips

Question 4:

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains a trainable classifier named Trainable1. You plan to create the items shown in the following table.

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 4

Which items can use Trainable1?

A. Label2 only

B. Label1 and Label2 only

C. Label1 and Policy1 only

D. Label2, Policy1, and DLP1 only

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A Microsoft Purview trainable classifier is a tool you can train to recognize various types of content by giving it samples to look at. Once trained, you can use it to identify items for application of Office sensitivity labels, Communications

compliance policies, and retention label policies.

Once published your classifier will be available as a condition in Office auto-labeling with sensitivity labels, auto-apply retention label policy based on a condition, and in Communication compliance.

Reference:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/classifier-get-started-with

Question 5:

You plan to implement sensitivity labels for Microsoft Teams.

You need to ensure that you can view and apply sensitivity labels to new Microsoft Teams sites.

What should you do first?

A. Run the Set-apposite cmdlet.

B. Configure the EnableMTPLabels Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) setting.

C. Create a new sensitivity label scoped to Groups and sites.

D. Run the Execute-AzureAdLabelSync cmdtet.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Before you can view and apply sensitivity labels to new Microsoft Teams sites, you first need to create a new sensitivity label and scope it to Groups and sites. This allows the label to be used within Microsoft Teams, SharePoint sites, and Office 365 groups. By doing so, you can classify and protect your organization’s data based on the level of sensitivity.

After creating and configuring the sensitivity labels appropriately in the Microsoft 365 compliance center or the Microsoft 365 security center, these labels can then be applied to Teams, sites, and groups as needed.

The other options listed do not directly relate to the initial setup required for applying sensitivity labels to new Microsoft Teams sites:

A. The Set-SPOSite cmdlet is used to configure settings for SharePoint Online sites and is not directly related to the initial setup of sensitivity labels for Teams.

B. Configuring the EnableMTPLabels Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) setting is not a recognized configuration step for enabling sensitivity labels in Microsoft Teams.

D. There is no cmdlet named Execute-AzureAdLabelSync. The synchronization of labels between Azure Information Protection and Office 365 is automatic and does not require manual execution of a cmdlet like this.

Question 6:

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains a data loss prevention (DLP) policy named DLP1.

DLP1 has a rule that triggers numerous alerts.

You need to reduce the number of alert notifications that are generated. The solution must maintain the sensitivity of DLP1.

What should you do?

A. Change the mode of DLP1 to Test without notifications.

B. Modify the rule and increase the instance count.

C. Modify the rule and configure an alert threshold.

D. Modify the rule and set the priority to the highest value.

Correct Answer: C

To reduce the number of alert notifications generated by the Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policy named DLP1, while maintaining its sensitivity, the best approach is to modify the rule and configure an alert threshold.

Option C: Modify the rule and configure an alert threshold.

Explanation:

Configuring an alert threshold allows you to specify a minimum number of incidents that must occur before an alert is generated. This approach reduces the volume of notifications by filtering out isolated incidents or false positives, focusing on patterns or repeated actions that could indicate a more significant risk. It maintains the sensitivity of DLP1 by not altering the conditions under which data is considered sensitive but rather adjusting the response to detected incidents.
Other Options:

A. Change the mode of DLP1 to Test without notifications. This would essentially stop all notifications, which might reduce the overload but at the cost of missing potentially critical alerts. It does not maintain the operational sensitivity of DLP1 as it stops alerting altogether.


B. Modify the rule and increase the instance count. Increasing the instance count means a policy violation must occur more times before an alert is triggered. This option is similar to configuring an alert threshold and could be a viable approach but is less specific than configuring a threshold for alert notifications.


D. Modify the rule and set the priority to the highest value. Changing the priority of a rule affects the order in which it is evaluated relative to other rules but does not directly impact the number of alerts generated. This option does not address the problem of reducing alert notifications.
Therefore, Option C is the most suitable solution as it directly targets the issue of reducing unnecessary alert notifications while ensuring that the DLP policy remains effective in identifying and responding to significant incidents.

Reference: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/alert-policies?view=o365-worldwide

Question 7:

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription.

You need to export the details of a retention label. The export must include the following information:

? Is record

? Is regulatory? Disposition type What should you do?

A. From the Microsoft Purview compliance portal, export Compliance Manager assessment actions.

B. From the Microsoft Purview compliance portal export a file plan.

C. From the Microsoft Purview compliance portal, export a disposition review.

D. From PowerShell, run the Export-ActivityExplorerData cmdlet.

E. From PowerShell, run the Get-RetentionEvent cmdlet.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A file plan is a detailed inventory of the record categories or types that a company creates or receives, the location where these records are stored, and the retention periods and disposition actions for each category.

In the context of Microsoft 365, exporting a file plan from the Purview compliance portal allows you to get detailed information about retention labels, including whether the label marks content as a record, whether it is regulatory (meets specific regulatory requirements) and the disposition type (how the content is managed at the end of its retention period).
Other Options:

A. From the Microsoft Purview compliance portal, export Compliance Manager assessment actions. This option is focused on exporting actions related to compliance assessments rather than details specific to retention labels.

C. From the Microsoft Purview compliance portal, export a disposition review. This would export information related to the review process for content that has reached the end of its retention period, not the specific details of the retention labels themselves.

D. From PowerShell, run the Export-ActivityExplorerData cmdlet. This cmdlet is used to export user and admin activities from Activity Explorer, not details of retention labels.

E. From PowerShell, run the Get-RetentionEvent cmdlet. This cmdlet does not exist in the context of Microsoft 365’s compliance features. Even if it did, the description does not align with exporting detailed information about retention labels.

Therefore, Option B is the correct action to take to achieve the goal of exporting detailed information about a retention label, including its record status, regulatory status, and disposition type.

Question 8:

You are creating a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that will apply to all available locations. You configure an advanced DLP rule in the policy. Which type of condition can you use in the rule?

A. Keywords

B. Content search query

C. Sensitive info type

D. Sensitive label

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Sensitive info types are predefined or custom definitions that are used to identify sensitive items like financial, medical, or personal information within content. DLP policies utilize these types to detect and protect sensitive information across different locations such as Exchange Online, SharePoint Online, and OneDrive for Business. Configuring a DLP rule to trigger based on the presence of sensitive info types allows for precise control over the handling of specific types of sensitive data.
Other Options:

A. Keywords: While keywords can be a part of a DLP policy condition, they are typically used in combination with other conditions rather than being the primary or sole condition for an advanced DLP rule. Keywords alone might not provide the specificity and accuracy needed for comprehensive DLP enforcement but are still useful in broader content detection scenarios.

B. Content search query: This option is not directly used as a condition in DLP policies. Content search queries are more commonly associated with the search and investigation features within Microsoft 365 compliance solutions, rather than as conditions for DLP rules.

D. Sensitive label: Sensitive labels are used within Microsoft 365 to classify and protect content based on its sensitivity. While they are a crucial part of information protection, they serve a different purpose from the conditions used in DLP rules.

However, it’s worth noting that DLP policies can be configured to act based on the presence or absence of such labels, making this also a valid condition for a DLP rule, especially in scenarios where the policy needs to differentiate between protected and unprotected content.

Given the context of the question emphasizing an advanced DLP rule and the specific types of conditions that can be used, the Sensitive info type (Option C) is the most fitting answer because it directly relates to the types of data that DLP policies are designed to detect and protect.

However, it’s important to understand that in practical applications, DLP rules can be configured to utilize a combination of conditions, including sensitive info types and sensitive labels, to effectively protect sensitive information.

Question 9:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant named contoso.com that contains two users named User1 and User2. The tenant uses Microsoft Office 365 Message Encryption (OME).

User1 plans to send emails that contain attachments as shown in the following table.

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 9

User2 plans to send emails that contain attachments as shown in the following table.

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 9-2

For which emails will the attachments be protected? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 9-3

Correct Answer:

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 9-4

Question 10:

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains a user named User1.

You need to identify the type and number of holds placed on the mailbox of User1.

What should you do first?

A. From the Microsoft 365 compliance center, create an eDiscovery case.

B. From Exchange Online PowerShell, run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.

C. From the Microsoft 365 compliance center, run a content search.

D. From Exchange Online PowerShell, run the Get-HoldCompliancePolicy cmdlet.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The Get-Mailbox cmdlet in Exchange Online PowerShell can be used to view the properties of a user’s mailbox, including information about any holds that are placed on the mailbox. To specifically identify the types and numbers of holds, you would use this cmdlet along with additional parameters or pipelining to filter or extract details about litigation holds, retention policies, or eDiscovery holds applied to the mailbox. For instance, you might use Get-Mailbox -Identity User1 | Format-List hold to list all properties related to holds for User1’s mailbox.

Other Options:

A. From the Microsoft 365 compliance center, create an eDiscovery case. While creating an eDiscovery case can be part of a process to search and hold content, it’s not the first step you would take just to identify existing holds on a mailbox. This option is more about taking action based on content rather than auditing or reporting existing conditions.

C. From the Microsoft 365 compliance center, run a content search. Running a content search is useful for finding specific items across Microsoft 365 services based on search criteria. However, it doesn’t directly provide information about the holds on a particular mailbox.

D. From Exchange Online PowerShell, run the Get-HoldCompliancePolicy cmdlet. This cmdlet does not exist. The intention might be to use cmdlets that can retrieve information about compliance policies affecting the mailbox, such as Get-LitigationHold or Get-MailboxSearch (for eDiscovery holds), but the specific cmdlet mentioned is incorrect.

Given the goal is to identify the types and numbers of holds on a mailbox, Option D with the correct cmdlet (Get-Mailbox) provides the most straightforward and effective path to obtaining this information. However, the explanation clarifies the intent and corrects the cmdlet usage for achieving the task.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/identify-a-hold-on-an-exchange-online-mailbox?view=o365-worldwide

Question 11:

You are creating an advanced data loss prevention (DLP) rule in a DLP policy named Policy 1 that will have all locations selected. Which two conditions can you use in the rule? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. (Choose two.)

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Content contains

B. Content is shared from Microsoft 365

C. Document size equals or is greater than

D. Attachment\’s file extension is

E. Document property is

Correct Answer: AE

Explanation of Other Options:

B. Content is shared from Microsoft 365

While DLP policies can restrict the sharing of sensitive information outside the organization, the condition “content is shared from Microsoft 365” is not typically listed as a specific condition in DLP rule configuration. DLP policies focus more on the sensitivity of the content rather than the act of sharing itself.

C. Document size equals or is greater than

This condition is not typically a part of DLP rule configurations. DLP policies are more concerned with the sensitivity of the content rather than the size of a document. The size of a document might be relevant in other contexts, such as email delivery or storage policies, but not directly for DLP.
D. Attachment’s file extension is

While restricting or monitoring specific file types can be an aspect of data protection, this condition is not typically used directly in DLP rule configurations within Microsoft 365. DLP policies usually focus on the content within files rather than the file types or extensions themselves.


Therefore, Options A (Content contains) and E (Document property is) are the correct choices for conditions that can be used in an advanced DLP rule in a policy named Policy 1 that covers all locations. These conditions allow for precise targeting of sensitive information based on its content or metadata properties.

Question 12:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant.

You create sensitivity labels as shown in the Sensitivity Labels exhibit.

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 12

The Confidential/External sensitivity label is configured to encrypt files and emails when applied to content. The sensitivity labels are published as shown in the Published exhibit.

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 12-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 12-3

Correct Answer:

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 12-4

Question 13:

HOTSPOT

You have a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has the advanced DLP rules shown in the following table.

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 13

You need to identify which rules will apply when content matches multiple advanced DLP rules.

Which rules should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 13-2

Correct Answer:

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 13-3

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/data-loss-prevention-policies?view=o365-worldwide

Question 14:

HOTSPOT

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant that contains the users shown in the following table.

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 14

You have a retention policy that has the following configurations:

1.Name: Policy1

2.Retain items for a specific period: 5 years

3.Locations to apply the policy: Exchange email, SharePoint sites

You place a Preservation Lock on Policy1.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 14-2

Correct Answer:

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 14-3

When a retention policy is locked:

1.No one, including the global admin, can disable the policy or delete it

2. Locations can be added but not removed

3. You can extend the retention period but not decrease it

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/retention-preservation-lock?view=o365-worldwide

Question 15:

HOTSPOT

You are implementing Microsoft Office 365 Message Encryption (OME) for a Microsoft 365 tenant named contoso.com.

You need to meet the following requirements:

1. All emails to a domain named fabrikam.com must be encrypted automatically.

2. Encrypted emails must expire seven days after they are sent.

What should you configure for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Microsoft SC-400 Exam Question 15-2

More Microsoft 365 Exam Questions…

Now that we’ve shared the online practice questions, let’s talk about other learning resources!

Here you can find various forms of SC-400 (Administering Information Protection and Compliance in Microsoft 365) learning resources.

SC-400 (Administering Information Protection and Compliance in Microsoft 365) Learning Resource Integration (2024)

With a link for your convenience. Save time.

Document Format:

Book Format:

  1. Microsoft Information Protection Administrator SC-400 Certification Guide: Advance your Microsoft Security & Compliance services knowledge and pass the SC-400 exam with confidence
  2. Microsoft SC-400: Exclusive Exam Preparation: Information Protection Administrator – LATEST EXAM QUESTIONS & EXPLANATION (Microsoft Certifications Exams Preparation Books – NEW & EXCLUSIVE)

(For reference only)

Of course, there are many other exam study resources that you are welcome to add.

Perhaps, you still have doubts about the exam.

Question Of The Most Concern: Microsoft SC-400 Exam

What knowledge is the best thing to know to study for the Microsoft SC-400 exam?

The following knowledge points are required:
Microsoft 365 applications
Microsoft Online Exchange
Microsoft SharePoint
Microsoft OneDrive
Microsoft Teams
PowerShell

What will happen to the SC-400 exam “Microsoft 365 Defender portal” in late April 2024?

Yes, the Microsoft 365 Defender portal will change to the Microsoft Defender portal.

Where can I find free Microsoft SC-400 dumps and questions 2024?

Here, Certificationvce. Or you can find more on Microsoft-technet.com.

Well, it’s time for you to study hard.

Final sentence:

With SC-400 dumps 2024, you can improve your understanding and proficiency in the Administering Information Protection and Compliance in Microsoft 365 exam and be better prepared to ensure a top-notch score in the exam.

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Anyone can trust these questions, from Pass4itSure AZ-305 dumps, which are guaranteed to be Microsoft-azure exam questions, the total number of questions is 339, and here are just 1-15 of them.

Last updatedlatest Microsoft Azure other exam questions
Question 1:

HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources shown in the following table.

AZ-305 exam practice questions 1

You create an Azure SQL database named DB1 that is hosted in the East US region.

To DB1, you add a diagnostic setting named Settings1. Settings1 archives SQLInsights to storage1 and sends SQLInsights to Workspace1.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 1-2

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 1-3

Box 1: Yes Box 2: Yes Box 3: Yes

For more information on Azure SQL diagnostics, you can visit the below link https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/database/metrics-diagnostic-telemetry-logging-streaming-export-configure

Question 2:

You plan to deploy an Azure Database for MySQL flexible server named Server1 to the East US Azure region.

You need to implement a business continuity solution for Server1. The solution must minimize downtime in the event of a failover to a paired region.

What should you do?

A. Create a read replica.

B. Store the database files in Azure premium file shares.

C. Implement Geo-redundant backup.

D. Configure native MySQL replication.

Correct Answer: C

The table below illustrates the features that the Azure Database for MySQL – Flexible Server service offers.

* Geo-redundant backup – Available in all Azure paired regions.

The service backups can be configured as geo-redundant at create time. Enabling Geo-redundancy replicates the server backup data files in the primary region\’s paired region to provide regional resiliency. Geo-redundant backup storage

provides at least 99.99999999999999% (16 nines) durability of objects over a given year.

Reference:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/mysql/flexible-server/concepts-business-continuity

Question 3:

You have SQL Server on an Azure virtual machine. The databases are written to nightly as part of a batch process. You need to recommend a disaster recovery solution for the data. The solution must meet the following requirements:

1. Provide the ability to recover in the event of a regional outage. Support a recovery time objective (RTO) of 15 minutes.

2. Support a recovery point objective (RPO) of 24 hours.

3. Support automated recovery.

4. Minimize costs.

What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Azure virtual machine availability sets

B. Azure Disk Backup

C. an Always On availability group

D. Azure Site Recovery

Correct Answer: D

Replication with Azure Site Recover:

RTO is typically less than 15 minutes.

RPO: One hour for application consistency and five minutes for crash consistency.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-sql

Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You configure OAuth2 authorization in API Management as shown in the following exhibit.

AZ-305 exam practice questions 4

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 4-2

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 4-3

Box 1: Web applications

The Authorization Code Grant Type is used by both web apps and native apps to get an access token after a user authorizes an app.

Note: The Authorization Code grant type is used by confidential and public clients to exchange an authorization code for an access token.

After the user returns to the client via the redirect URL, the application will get the authorization code from the URL and use it to request an access token.

Question 5:

What should you recommend to meet the monitoring requirements for App2?

A. VM insights

B. Azure Application Insights

C. Microsoft Sentinel

D. Container insights

Correct Answer: B

Scenario: You need to monitor App2 to analyze how long it takes to perform different transactions within the application. The solution must not require changes to the application code.

Unified cross-component transaction diagnostics.

The unified diagnostics experience automatically correlates server-side telemetry from across all your Application Insights monitored components into a single view. It doesn’t matter if you have multiple resources. Application Insights detects the underlying relationship and allows you to easily diagnose the application component, dependency, or exception that caused a transaction slowdown or failure.

Note: Components are independently deployable parts of your distributed/microservices application. Developers and operations teams have code-level visibility or access to telemetry generated by these application components.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/transaction-diagnostics

Question 6:

You have an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.

You install and configure AD Connect to use password hash synchronization as the single sign-on(SSO) method. Staging mode is enabled.

You review the synchronization results and discover that the Synchronization Service Manager does not display any sync jobs.

You need to ensure that the synchronization completes successfully.

What should you do?

A. From Azure PowerShell, run Start-AdSyncSycnCycle olicyType Initial.

B. Run Azure AD Connect and set the SSO method to Pass-through Authentication.

C. From the Synchronization Service Manager, run a full import.

D. Run Azure AD Connect and disable staging mode.

Correct Answer: D

In staging mode, the server is active for import and synchronization, but it does not run any exports. A server in staging mode is not running password sync or password writeback, even if you selected these features during installation. When you disable staging mode, the server starts exporting, enables password sync, and enables password writeback.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sync-staging-server https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sync-operations

Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You are designing a software-as-a-service (SaaS) application that will enable Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users to create and publish online surveys. The SaaS application will have a front-end web app and a back-end web API. The web app will rely on the web API to handle updates to customer surveys.

You need to design an authorization flow for the SaaS application. The solution must meet the following requirements:

  1. To access the back-end web API, the web app must authenticate by using OAuth 2 bearer tokens.

2. The web app must authenticate by using the identities of individual users.

What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 7

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 7-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/lb-lu/azure/architecture/multitenant-identity/web-api https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/quickstart-v1-dotnet-webapi

Question 8:

You are developing an app that will use Azure Functions to process Azure Event Hub events. Request processing is estimated to take between five and 20 minutes. You need to recommend a hosting solution that meets the following requirements:

1. Supports estimates of request processing runtimes

2. Supports event-driven autoscaling for the app Which hosting plan should you recommend?

A. Consumption

B. App Service

C. Dedicated

D. Premium

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

HOTSPOT

You need to design an Azure policy that will implement the following functionality:

1. For new resources, assign tags and values that match the tags and values of the resource group to which the resources are deployed.

2. For existing resources, identify whether the tags and values match the tags and values of the resource group that contains the resources.

3. For any non-compliant resources, trigger auto-generated remediation tasks to create missing tags and values.

The solution must use the principle of least privilege.

What should you include in the design? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 9

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 9-2

Box 1: Modify Modify is used to add, update, or remove properties or tags on a resource during creation or update. A common example is updating tags on resources such as cost centers. Existing non-compliant resources can be remediated with a remediation task. A single Modify rule can have any number of operations.

Box 2: A managed identity with the Contributor role Managed identity How remediation security works: When Azure Policy runs the template in the deployIfNotExists policy definition, it does so using a managed identity. Azure Policy creates a managed identity for each assignment but must have details about what roles to grant the managed identity.

Question 10:

You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Blob storage account named store1.

You have an on-premises file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 stores 500 GB of company files.

You need to store a copy of the company files from Server 1 in store1.

Which two possible Azure services achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. an integration account

B. an On-premises data gateway

C. an Azure Batch account

D. an Azure Import/Export job

E. Azure Data Factory

Correct Answer: DE

Question 11:

Your company has an app named App1 that uses data from the on-premises Microsoft SQL Server databases shown in the following table.

AZ-305 exam practice questions 11

App1 and the data are used on the first day of the month only. The data is not expected to grow more than 3% each year.

The company is rewriting App1 as an Azure web app and plans to migrate all the data to Azure.

You need to migrate the data to Azure SQL Database. The solution must minimize costs.

Which service tier should you use?

A. vCore-based Business Critical

B. vCore-based General Purpose

C. DTU-based Standard

D. DTU-based Basic

Correct Answer: C

DTU-based Standard supports databases up to 1 TB in size.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/database/service-tiers-dtu

Question 12:

HOTSPOT

You are evaluating whether to use Azure Traffic Manager and Azure Application Gateway to meet the connection requirements for App1.

What is the minimum number of instances required for each service? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 12

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 12-2

Box 1: 1

App1 will only be accessible from the internet. App1 has the following connection requirements:

1. Connections to App1 must be active-active load balanced between instances.

2. All connections to App1 from North America must be directed to the East US region.

3. All other connections must be directed to the West Europe region.

App1 will have six instances: three in the East US Azure region and three in the West Europe Azure region.

Note: Azure Traffic Manager is a DNS-based traffic load balancer. This service allows you to distribute traffic to your public-facing applications across the global Azure regions.

Box 2: 2

For production workloads, run at least two gateway instances.

A single Application Gateway deployment can run multiple instances of the gateway.

Use one Application Gateway in East US Region, and one in the West Europe region.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/high-availability/reference-architecture-traffic-manager-application-gateway

Question 13:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure subscription that contains the storage accounts shown in the following table.

AZ-305 exam practice questions 13

You plan to implement two new apps that have the requirements shown in the following table.

AZ-305 exam practice questions 13-2

Which storage accounts should you recommend using for each app? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 13-3

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 13-4

Question 14:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure App Service web app that uses a system-assigned managed identity.

You need to recommend a solution to store the settings of the web app as secrets in an Azure key vault The solution must meet the following requirements:

1.Minimize changes to the app code,

2. Use the principle of least privilege.

What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

Hot Area:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 14

Correct Answer:

AZ-305 exam practice questions 14-2

Question 15:

You are designing a point of sale (POS) solution that will be deployed across multiple locations and will use an Azure Databricks workspace in the Standard tier. The solution will include multiple apps deployed to the on-premises network of each location.

You need to configure the authentication method that will be used by the app to access the workspace. The solution must minimize the administrative effort associated with staff turnover and credential management.

What should you configure?

A. a managed identity

B. a service principal

C. a personal access token

Correct Answer: B

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Preparing for AZ-305 – Design identity, governance, and monitoring solutions (1 of 4)

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Book(As a traditional model, the book contains a wealth of AZ-305 exam content that can help students fully understand the exam):

Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Services for Architects: Designing Cloud Solutions

Exam Ref AZ-305 Designing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions

Mastering Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Services

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Latest-2023 Microsoft AZ-900 real questions (free share)

Question 1:

You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 is in the East US Azure region.

Which Azure service should you use from the Azure portal to view service failure notifications that can affect the availability of VM1?

A. Azure Service Fabric

B. Azure Monitor

C. Azure virtual machines

D. Azure Advisor

Correct Answer: C

In the Azure virtual machines page in the Azure portal, there is a named Maintenance Status. This column will display service issues that could affect your virtual machine. A service failure is rare but host server maintenance that could affect your virtual machines is more common.

Azure periodically updates its platform to improve the reliability, performance, and security of the host infrastructure for virtual machines. The purpose of these updates ranges from patching software components in the hosting environment to upgrading networking components or decommissioning hardware.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/maintenance-and-updates


Question 2:

Fill in the blank (______________________) in Azure Firewall enables users on the internet to access a server on a virtual network.

Correct Answer: Network Address Translation(NAT) rules


Question 3:

DRAG DROP

Match the Azure service to the correct description.

Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate Azure service from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.

Select and Place:

az-900 test questions 3

Correct Answer:

az-900 test questions 3-2

Explanation:

Box 1: Azure SQL Database

SQL Server is a relational database service. Azure SQL Database is a managed SQL Server Database in Azure. The SQL Server is managed by Microsoft; you just have access to the database.

Box 2: Azure SQL Synapse Analytics

Azure SQL Synapse Analytics (previously called Data Warehouse) is a cloud-based Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) offering from Microsoft. It is a large-scale, distributed, MPP (massively parallel processing) relational database technology in the same class of competitors as Amazon Redshift or Snowflake.

Azure SQL Synapse Analytics is an important component of the Modern Data Warehouse multi-platform architecture.

Because Azure SQL Synapse Analytics is an MPP system with a shared-nothing architecture across distributions, it is meant for large-scale analytical workloads which can take advantage of parallelism.

Box 3: Azure Data Lake Analytics

You can process big data jobs in seconds with Azure Data Lake Analytics.

You can process petabytes of data for diverse workload categories such as querying, ETL, analytics, machine learning, machine translation, image processing, and sentiment analysis by leveraging existing libraries written in .NET languages, R or Python.

Box 4: Azure HDInsight.

Apache Hadoop was the original open-source framework for distributed processing and analysis of big data sets on clusters. The Hadoop ecosystem includes related software and utilities, including Apache Hive, Apache HBase, Spark, Kafka, and many others.

Azure HDInsight is a fully managed, full-spectrum, open-source analytics service in the cloud for enterprises.

The Apache Hadoop cluster type in Azure HDInsight allows you to use HDFS, YARN resource management, and a simple MapReduce programming model to process and analyze batch data in parallel.

Reference:

https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/sql-database/

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-overview-what-is

https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/apache-hadoop-introduction

https://www.blue-granite.com/blog/is-azure-sql-data-warehouse-a-good-fit-updated

https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/services/data-lake-analytics/


Question 4:

You have a resource group named RG1.

You plan to create virtual networks and app services in RG1.

You need to prevent the creation of virtual machines only in RG1.

What should you use?

A. a lock

B. an Azure role

C. a tag

D. an Azure policy

Correct Answer: D

Azure policies can be used to define requirements for resource properties during deployment and for already existing resources. Azure Policy controls properties such as the types or locations of resources.

Azure Policy is a service in Azure that you use to create, assign, and manage policies. These policies enforce different rules and effects over your resources, so those resources stay compliant with your corporate standards and service level agreements.

In this question, we would create an Azure policy assigned to the resource group that denies the creation of virtual machines in the resource group.

You could place a read-only lock on the resource group. However, that would prevent the creation of any resources in the resource group, not virtual machines only. Therefore, an Azure Policy is a better solution.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview


Question 5:

Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains 5,000 user accounts.

Your company plans to migrate all network resources to Azure and to decommission the on-premises data center.

You need to recommend a solution to minimize the impact on users after the planned migration.

What should you recommend?

A. Implement Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

B. Sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)

C. Instruct all users to change their password

D. Create a guest user account in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) for each user

Correct Answer: B

To migrate to Azure and decommission the on-premises data center, you would need to create the 5,000 user accounts in Azure Active Directory. The easy way to do this is to sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active

Directory (Azure AD). You can even sync their passwords to further minimize the impact on users.

The tool you would use to sync the accounts is Azure AD Connect. The Azure Active Directory Connect synchronization services (Azure AD Connect sync) are a main component of Azure AD Connect.

It takes care of all the operations that are related to synchronizing identity data between your on-premises environment and Azure AD.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sync-whatis


Question 6:

Fill in the blank Azure distributed denial of service (DDoS) protection is an example of a protection that is implemented at the (_______________).

Correct Answer: networking layer


Question 7:

HOTSPOT

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.

Hot Area:

az-900 test questions 7

Correct Answer:

az-900 test questions 7-2

Explanation:

Box: within a single Azure region

Azure availability zones are physically separate locations within each Azure region that are tolerant to local failures.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/availability-zones/az-overview


Question 8:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

Your company deploys several virtual machines on-premises and to Azure. ExpressRoute is being deployed and configured for on-premises to Azure connectivity.

Several virtual machines exhibit network connectivity issues.

You need to analyze the network traffic to identify whether packets are being allowed or denied to the virtual machines.

Solution: Use Azure Traffic Analytics in Azure Network Watcher to analyze the network traffic.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead use Azure Network Watcher IP Flow Verify, which allows you to detect traffic filtering issues at a VM level.

Note: IP flow verification checks if a packet is allowed or denied to or from a virtual machine. The information consists of direction, protocol, local IP, remote IP, local port, and a remote port. If the packet is denied by a security group, the name of the rule that denied the packet is returned.

While any source or destination IP can be chosen, IP flow verification helps administrators quickly diagnose connectivity issues from or to the internet and from or to the on-premises environment.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-ip-flow-verify-overview


Question 9:

HOTSPOT

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.

Hot Area:

az-900 test questions 9

Correct Answer:

az-900 test questions 9-2

Question 10:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

az-900 test questions 10

Correct Answer:

az-900 test questions 10-2

Box 1: Yes

You can send Azure AD activity logs to Azure Monitor logs to enable rich visualizations, monitoring, and alerting on the connected data.

All data collected by Azure Monitor fits into one of two fundamental types, metrics, and logs (including Azure AD activity logs). Activity logs record when resources are created or modified. Metrics tell you how the resource is performing and the resources that it\’s consuming.

Box 2: Yes

Azure Monitor can consolidate log entries from multiple Azure resources, subscriptions, and tenants into one location for analysis together.

Box 3: Yes

You can create alerts in Azure Monitor.

Alerts in Azure Monitor proactively notify you of critical conditions and potentially attempt to take corrective action. Alert rules based on metrics provide near real-time alerting based on numeric values, while rules based on logs allow for complex logic across data from multiple sources.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/reports-monitoring/concept-activity-logs-azure-monitor

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/overview


Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Match the Azure services to the appropriate descriptions.

To answer, drag the appropriate service from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.

Select and Place:

az-900 test questions 11

Correct Answer:

az-900 test questions 11-2

Explanation: Box 1: ExpressRoute ExpressRoute lets you extend your on-premises networks into the Microsoft Cloud over a private connection with the help of a connectivity provider. With ExpressRoute, you can establish connections to Microsoft cloud services, such as Microsoft Azure and Microsoft 365.

Box 2: Virtual network peering enables you to seamlessly connect two or more Virtual Networks in Azure. The virtual networks appear as one for connectivity purposes. The traffic between virtual machines in peered virtual networks uses the Microsoft backbone infrastructure.

Box 3: VPN gateway VPN gateways provide secure connectivity between multiple sites, such as on-premises data centers, Google Cloud Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) networks, and Google Cloud VMware Engine private clouds. Traffic is encrypted because the VPN connections traverse the internet.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/expressroute/expressroute-introduction https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-peering-overview https://cloud.google.com/vmware-engine/docs/concepts-vpn-gateways


Question 12:

Your company plans 10 migrate all its data and resources to Azure.

The company\’s migration plan states that only Platform as a Service (PaaS) solutions must be used in Azure

You need to deploy an Azure environment that meets the company\’s migration plan

What should you create?

A. an Azure App Service and Azure SQL databases

B. Azure storage accounts and web server in Azure virtual machines

C. Azure virtual machines. Azure SQL databases, and Azure Storage accounts

D. an Azure App Service and Azure virtual machines that have Microsoft SQL Server installed

Correct Answer: A

Azure App Service and Azure SQL databases are examples of Azure PaaS solutions. Therefore, this solution does meet the goal.


Question 13:

What is the longest term you can purchase for Azure Reserved VM Instances?

A. three years

B. four years

C. one year

D. five years

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

Your company is planning to migrate all its virtual machines to an Azure pay-as-you-go subscription. The virtual machines are currently hosted on the Hyper-V hosts in a data center.

You are required to make sure that the intended Azure solution uses the correct expenditure model.

Solution: You should recommend the use of the elastic expenditure model.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

You have an Azure Sentinel workspace.

You need to automate responses to threats detected by Azure Sentinel.

What should you use?

A. adaptive network hardening in Azure Security Center

B. Azure Service Health

C. Azure Monitor workbooks

D. adaptive application controls in Azure Security Center

Correct Answer: C


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Exam AZ-204: Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure
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The following are the new 2021 Microsoft AZ-204 exam practice questions(q1-q13), covering real exam answers and questions! You can test yourself!

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You plan to create a Docker image that runs as ASP.NET Core application named ContosoApp. You have a setup script
named setupScript.ps1 and a series of application files including ContosoApp.dll.
You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements:
Call setupScript.ps1 when the container is built.
Run ContosoApp.dll when the container starts.
The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setupScript.ps1 are stored.
Which four commands should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate commands from the
list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

az-204 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

az-204 exam questions-q1-2

Step 1: WORKDIR /apps/ContosoApp
Step 2: COPY ./The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setupScript.ps1
are stored.
Step 3: EXPOSE ./ContosApp/ /app/ContosoApp
Step 4: CMD powershell ./setupScript.ps1
ENTRYPOINT [“dotnet”, “ContosoApp.dll”]
You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements:
Call setupScript.ps1 when the container is built.
Run ContosoApp.dll when the container starts.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/containers/tutorial-custom-docker-image

QUESTION 2
You are developing a software solution for an autonomous transportation system. The solution uses large data sets and
Azure Batch processing to simulate navigation sets for entire fleets of vehicles.
You need to create compute nodes for the solution on Azure Batch.
What should you do?
A. In the Azure portal, add a Job to a Batch account.
B. In a .NET method, call the method: BatchClient.PoolOperations.CreateJob
C. In Python, implement the class: JobAddParameter
D. In Azure CLI, run the command: az batch pool create
E. In a .NET method, call the method: BatchClient.pool operations.CreatePool
F. In Python, implement the class: TaskAddParameter
G. In the Azure CLI, run the command: az batch account create
Correct Answer: B
A Batch job is a logical grouping of one or more tasks. A job includes settings common to the tasks, such as priority and
the pool to run tasks on. The app uses BatchClient.JobOperations.CreateJob method to create a job on your pool.
Note:
Step 1: Create a pool of compute nodes. When you create a pool, you specify the number of compute nodes for the
pool, their size, and the operating system. When each task in your job runs, it\\’s assigned to execute on one of the
nodes in
your pool.
Step 2: Create a job. A job manages a collection of tasks. You associate each job to a specific pool where that job\\’s
tasks will run.
Step 3: Add tasks to the job. Each task runs the application or script that you uploaded to process the data files it
downloads from your Storage account. As each task completes, it can upload its output to Azure Storage.
Incorrect Answers:
C, F: To create a Batch pool in Python, the app uses the PoolAddParameter class to set the number of nodes, VM size,
and a pool configuration.
E: BatchClient.PoolOperations does not have a CreateJob method.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/quick-run-dotnet https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/batch/quick-run-python

QUESTION 3
You are developing an internal website for employees to view sensitive data. The website uses Azure Active Directory
(AAD) for authentication.
You need to implement multifactor authentication for the website.
What should you do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Upgrade to Azure AD Premium.
B. In Azure AD conditional access, enable the baseline policy.
C. In Azure AD, create a new conditional access policy.
D. In Azure AD, enable application proxy.
E. Configure the website to use Azure AD B2C.
Correct Answer: AC
A: Multi-Factor Authentication comes as part of the following offerings:
Azure Active Directory Premium licenses – Full featured use of Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Service (Cloud) or
Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server (On-premises).
Multi-Factor Authentication for Office 365
Azure Active Directory Global Administrators
C: MFA Enabled by conditional access policy. It is the most flexible means to enable two-step verification for your users.
Enabling using conditional access policy only works for Azure MFA in the cloud and is a premium feature of Azure AD.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-getstarted

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You are developing an Azure Service application that processes queue data when it receives a message from a mobile
application. Messages may not be sent to the service consistently.
You have the following requirements:
Queue size must not grow larger than 80 gigabytes (GB).
Use first-in-first-out (FIFO) ordering of messages.
Minimize Azure costs.
You need to implement the messaging solution.
Solution: Use the .Net API to add a message to an Azure Storage Queue from the mobile application. Create an Azure
VM that is triggered by Azure Storage Queue events.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Don\\’t use a VM, instead create an Azure Function App that uses an Azure Service Bus Queue trigger.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-create-storage-queue-triggered-function

QUESTION 5
You develop a website. You plan to host the website in Azure. You expect the website to experience high traffic
volumes after it is published.
You must ensure that the website remains available and responsive while minimizing cost.
You need to deploy the website.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the website to a virtual machine. Configure the virtual machine to automatically scale when the CPU load is
high.
B. Deploy the website to an App Service that uses the Shared service tier. Configure the App service plan to
automatically scale when the CPU load is high.
C. Deploy the website to an App Service that uses the Standard service tier. Configure the App service plan to
automatically scale when the CPU load is high.
D. Deploy the website to a virtual machine. Configure a Scale Set to increase the virtual machine instance count when
the CPU load is high.
Correct Answer: C
Windows Azure Web Sites (WAWS) offers 3 modes: Standard, Free, and Shared.
Standard mode carries an enterprise-grade SLA (Service Level Agreement) of 99.9% monthly, even for sites with just
one instance.
Standard mode runs on dedicated instances, making it different from the other ways to buy Windows Azure Web Sites.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Shared and Free modes do not offer the scaling flexibility of Standard, and they have some important limits.
Shared mode, just as the name states, also uses shared Compute resources, and also has a CPU limit. So, while
neither Free nor Shared is likely to be the best choice for your production environment due to these limits.

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You are deploying an Azure Kubernetes Services (AKS) cluster that will use multiple containers
You need to create the cluster and verify that the services for the containers are configured correctly and available.
Which four commands should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate command segments
from the list of command segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

az-204 exam questions-q6

QUESTION 7
You are writing code to create and run an Azure Batch job.
You have created a pool of compute nodes.
You need to choose the right class and its method to submit a batch job to the Batch service.
Which method should you use?
A. JobOperations.EnableJobAsync(String, IEnumerable,CancellationToken)
B. JobOperations.CreateJob()
C. CloudJob.Enable(IEnumerable)
D. JobOperations.EnableJob(String, IEnumerable)
E. CloudJob.CommitAsync(IEnumerable, CancellationToken)
Correct Answer: E
A Batch job is a logical grouping of one or more tasks. A job includes settings common to the tasks, such as priority and
the pool to run tasks on. The app uses BatchClient.JobOperations.CreateJob method to create a job on your pool.
The Commit method submits the job to the Batch service. Initially, the job has no tasks.
{
CloudJob job = batchClient.JobOperations.CreateJob();
job.Id = JobId;
job.PoolInformation = new PoolInformation { PoolId = PoolId };
job.Commit();
}

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/quick-run-dotnet

QUESTION 8
Your company is developing an Azure API.
You need to implement authentication for the Azure API. You have the following requirements:
All API calls must be secure.
Callers to the API must not send credentials to the API.
Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Basic
B. Anonymous
C. Managed identity
D. Client certificate
Correct Answer: C
Use the authentication-managed-identity policy to authenticate with a backend service using the managed identity of the
API Management service. This policy essentially uses the managed identity to obtain an access token from Azure Active
Directory for accessing the specified resource. After successfully obtaining the token, the policy will set the value of the
token in the Authorization header using the Bearer scheme.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/api-management/api-management-authentication-policies

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You are developing an application to use Azure Blob storage. You have configured Azure Blob storage to include
change feeds.
A copy of your storage account must be created in another region. Data must be copied from the current storage
account to the new storage account directly between the storage servers.
You need to create a copy of the storage account in another region and copy the data.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

az-204 exam questions-q9

Move data to the new storage account.
Delete the resources in the source region.
Note: You must enable the change feed on your storage account to begin capturing and recording changes. You can
enable and disable changes by using Azure Resource Manager templates on Portal or Powershell.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-account-move
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-change-feed

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You are developing a back-end Azure App Service that scales based on the number of messages contained in a
Service Bus queue.
A rule already exists to scale up the App Service when the average queue length of unprocessed and valid queue
messages is greater than 1000.
You need to add a new rule that will continuously scale down the App Service as long as the scale up condition is not
met.
How should you configure the Scale rule? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-204 exam questions-q10

Correct Answer:

az-204 exam questions-q10-2

Box 1: Service bus queue
You are developing a back-end Azure App Service that scales based on the number of messages contained in a
Service Bus queue.
Box 2: ActiveMessage Count
ActiveMessageCount: Messages in the queue or subscription that are in the active state and ready for delivery.
Box 3: Count
Box 4: Less than or equal to
You need to add a new rule that will continuously scale down the App Service as long as the scale up condition is not
met.
Box 5: Decrease count by


QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You are developing a ticket reservation system for an airline.
The storage solution for the application must meet the following requirements:
Ensure at least 99.99% availability and provide low latency.
Accept reservations event when localized network outages or other unforeseen failures occur.
Process reservations in the exact sequence as reservations are submitted to minimize overbooking or selling the same
seat to multiple travelers.
Allow simultaneous and out-of-order reservations with a maximum five-second tolerance window.
You provision a resource group named airlineResourceGroup in the Azure South-Central US region.
You need to provision a SQL SPI Cosmos DB account to support the app.
How should you complete the Azure CLI commands? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area

az-204 exam questions-q11

az-204 exam questions-q11-2

Box 1: BoundedStaleness
Bounded staleness: The reads are guaranteed to honor the consistent-prefix guarantee. The reads might lag behind
writes by at most “K” versions (that is, “updates”) of an item or by “T” time interval. In other words, when you choose
bounded staleness, the “staleness” can be configured in two ways:
The number of versions (K) of the item
The time interval (T) by which the reads might lag behind the writes
Incorrect Answers:
Strong
Strong consistency offers a linearizability guarantee. Linearizability refers to serving requests concurrently. The reads
are guaranteed to return the most recent committed version of an item. A client never sees an uncommitted or partial
write.
Users are always guaranteed to read the latest committed write.
Box 2: –enable-automatic-failover true\
For multi-region Cosmos accounts that are configured with a single-write region, enable automatic-failover by using
Azure CLI or Azure portal. After you enable automatic failover, whenever there is a regional disaster, Cosmos DB will
automatically failover your account.

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are building a traffic monitoring system that monitors traffic along six highways. The system produces time series
analysis-based reports for each highway. Data from traffic sensors are stored in Azure Event Hub.
Traffic data is consumed by four departments. Each department has an Azure Web App that displays the time-seriesbased reports and contains a WebJob that processes the incoming data from Event Hub. All Web Apps run on App
Service
Plans with three instances.
Data throughout must be maximized. Latency must be minimized.
You need to implement the Azure Event Hub.
Which settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-204 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

az-204 exam questions-q12-2

Box 1: 6
The number of partitions is specified at creation and must be between 2 and 32.
There are 6 highways.
Box 2: Highway
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/event-hubs-features

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You need to secure the Shipping Function app.
How should you configure the app? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-204 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

az-204 exam questions-q13-2

Scenario: Shipping Function app: Implement secure function endpoints by using app-level security and include Azure
Active Directory (Azure AD). Box 1: Function Box 2: JSON based Token (JWT) Azure AD uses JSON based tokens
(JWTs) that contain claims Box 3: HTTP How a web app delegates sign-in to Azure AD and obtains a token User
authentication happens via the browser. The OpenID protocol uses standard HTTP protocol messages. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/authentication-scenarios

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 06, 2017
Q&As: 503

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Question No : 21 You develop a SubVI that only outputs a value and need to use this SubVI in a (calling) VI.
Which of the following is the best way to enforce dataflow to control the execution of the
SubVI?
A. Use the SubVI in a Sequence structure
B. Modify the SubVI to have dummy inputs that can be used from the calling VI
C. Modify the SubVI to have Error clustersthat can be used from the calling VI
D. Modify the SubVI to have a global variable and use it from the calling VI
070-410 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
What is the value in Shift Register Answer after the following code has executed?

Question No : 22

070-410 dumps

A. 16
B. 24
C. 32
D. 10
Answer: C
Explanation:

Question No : 23  Which Chart update mode should be used to draw new data from left to right, then clear t
he chart and draw new data again from left to right?
A. Strip Chart
B. Scope Chart
C. Sweep Chart
D. Step Chart
070-410 dumps 
Answer: B
Explanation:

Question No : 24  Which of the following illustrates an advantage of a global variable over a local variable?
A. A global variable can pass data between two independent VIs runningsimultaneously
B. Only the global variable can pass array data, local variables cannot
C. Global variables follow the dataflow model, and therefore cannot cause raceconditions
D. Global variables do not require owned labels to operate
Answer: A
Explanation:

Question No : 25  Which timing function (VI) is the best choice for timing control logic in applications that run
for extended periods of time?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
070-410 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:

Question No : 26 Under which of the following conditions does a For loop stop executing?
A. When afalsevalue is present at the conditional terminal and the conditionalterminal
isC:\Documents and Settings\RraAsShHiIdD\Desktop\untitled.JPG
B. When the value of the iteration terminal,C:\Documents and
Settings\RraAsShHiIdD\Desktop\untitled.JPG, is one less than the value of thecount
terminal,C:\Documents and Settings\RraAsShHiIdD\Desktop\untitled.JPG
C. When the value of the iteration terminal,C:\Documents and
Settings\RraAsShHiIdD\Desktop\untitled.JPG, is one more than the value of thecount
terminal,C:\Documents and Settings\RraAsShHiIdD\Desktop\untitled.JPG
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:


Question No : 27  You are inputting data that represents a circle. The circle data includes an x position, a
position, and a radius. All three pieces of data are double-precision. In the future, you m
need to store the color of the circle, represented as an integer. How should you repres
the circle on your front panel window?
A. Three separate controls for the two positions and the radius.
B. A cluster containing all of the data.
C. A type definition containing a cluster.
D. An array with three elements.
070-410 vce 
Answer: C
Explanation:

Question No : 28  Which of the following will cause an event to be captured by the LabVIEW Event Structure?
A. Changing a value on a Front Panel control via a mouse click
B. Update of a Front Panel control using a property node
C. Programmatic update of a Front Panel control via a control reference
D. Using VI Server to update aFront Panel control
Answer: A
Explanation:

Question No : 29 Which of the following does not conform to data flow programming paradigm?
A. Shift Registers
B. Tunnels
C. SubVIs
D. Local Variables
070-410 exam Answer: D
Explanation:


Question No : 30  You must store data that other engineers must analyze with Microsoft Excel. Which file
storage format should you use?
A. Tab-delimited ASCII
B. Custom binary format
C. TDM
D. Datalog
Answer: A
Explanation:

Question No : 31  What is the result of the following Array addition?
A. a.1-D Array of {80, 20, 40, 10,-60}
B. b.1-D Array of {120, 30,-60}
C. c.1-D Array of {120, 30}
D. d.2-D Array of {{120, 90, 20}, {60, 30,-40}}
070-410 dumps 
Answer: C
Explanation:

Question No : 32  Which of the following statements is false?
A. A SubVI connector pane defines where to wire inputs and outputs
B. The color of a SubVI connector pane terminal matches the data type it isconnected to
C. You must have an icon/connector to use a SubVI
D. A SubVI icon can beedited from the functions palette
Answer: D
Explanation:

Question No : 33
The most efficient method for creating an array is:
A. Using a Forloop with Auto-indexing
B. Placing a build array function in a Whileloop
C. Initializing an array and then replacing elements in a Whileloop
D. Using a Whileloopwith Auto-Indexing
070-410 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

Question No : 34  The following block diagram represents which common type of VI architecture?
A. Multiple Case Structure VI
B. General VI
C. State Machine VI
D. Parallel Loop VI
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 35

Which of the following statements is true about the iteration terminal?
A. It returnsthe number of times the loop has executed
B. It returns the number of times the loop has executed, plus one
C. It returns the number of times the loop has executed, minus one
D. It returns a constant number
070-410 vce Answer: C
Explanation:

Question No : 36  For implementing state diagrams that allow future application scalability, the best choice for
a base structure is?
A. Sequence structure
B. Case structure
C. Formula node
D. Object-Oriented structure
Answer: B
Explanation:

Question No : 37  Which of the following Block Diagrams could produce this result in Waveform Graph?
070-410 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
070-410 exam Answer: A
Explanation:

Question No : 38 If an input name on the Show Context Help window is in bold for a SubVI, which of the
following conditions are true? (Choose all apply)
A. Input values must be scalar.
B. An input is recommended, but not required.
C. An input is required.
D. A broken run arrow will result unless the input is wired.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:


Question No : 39  Which of the following apply to Property Nodes? (Choose all apply)
A. Property Nodes allow attributes of front panel objects to be
programmaticallymanipulated.
B. Property Nodes can be used to update the values contained in a front panelobject.
C. More than one Property Node can be used for a single front panel object.
D. Property Nodes contained in aSubVI will always cause the front panel to beloaded in
memory.
070-410 dumps Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:

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QUESTION 1
You develop a SharePoint-hosted app. The app includes the following code segment: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-489 dumps
The app must display user profile data for the user that is logged in. The user profile data must include the PreferredName, Department, and WorkPhone properties. You need to ensure that the app displays the required user profile data. Which code segment should you insert at line 12?
A. var a = new SP.UserProfiles.UserProfile();
B. var a = new SP.UserProfiles.SocialFollowingManager(context);
C. var a = SP.UserProfiles.Profileloader.GetProfileLoader(context);
D. var a = new SP.UserProfiles.PeopleManager(context);
070-489 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You use Visual Studio to design a SharePoint solution for a company that provides computer support services to customers around the world. The solution must list the customer service representatives that resolve the highest number of support requests. The solution also must allow filtering of customer service representatives by region. You need to configure the solution to meet the requirements. Which steps should you take? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add a Recommended Items Web Part to the page.
B. Add and configure a Refinement Web Part to the page.
C. Add regions as property filters to the Search Results Web Part.
D. Configure the query for the Content Search Web Part.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You develop a SharePoint app for a toy company that uses the Representational State Transfer (REST) API for search. The site collections in the app have been crawled recently and use the default search schema. The app includes the following code segment: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-489 dumps
You create the following result sources.
070-489 dumps
You need to ensure that the app only displays PDF documents. Which code segment should you insert at line 03?
A. varresultSourceId = “Site PDF”;
B. varresuitSourceId = “4C50FE18-B254-47A1-ABAD-0B6C4577D914”;
C. varresultSourceId = “0F41A999-523A-41ED-AAAD-9D414A0FC3B4”;
D. varresultSourceId = “82951A0C-6385-4E29-8D7F-4AB92FE9F536”;
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
A legal company uses SharePoint for document and records management. You search all documents by using extractors and managed properties. FAST Query Language (FQL) is enabled for the result sources, and the content of the document is indexed as full text. All documents are named by using the following pattern: “AAA-Axxxx-AA”. You must find documents that were created in May 2012 and contain the ordered keywords “liable”, “advocate”, and “adjudication”. Results that are returned must include only document names that begin with “HCT-Q” and end only with “AB”. You need to create the FQL query that returns the required results. Which FQL statements should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Write> =05/01/2012 and write<=05/31/2012
B. string(‘liable advocate adjudication”, mode=”onear”)
C. title:HCT-Q*
D. title:HCT-Q????-AB
E. NEAR (liable, advocate, adjudication)
F. write:range (2012-05-01, 2012-05-31)
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B (not E):
The ordered variant ofNEAR, and requires an ordered match of the terms. TheONEARoperator can be used to restrict the result set to items that haveNterms within a certain distance of Returns only items that don’t match the operand. The operand may be any valid FQL expression.one another.
D (not C):
* All documents are named by using the following pattern: “AAA-Axxxx-AA”.
* Results that are returned must include only document names that begin with “HCT-Q” and end only with “AB”.
F (not A):
* Range. Enables range matching expressions. The RANGE operator is used for numeric and date/time managed properties.
* FQL provides the datetime data type for date and time. The following ISO 8601-compatible datetime formats are supported in queries:
YYYY-MM-DD
YYYY-MM-DDThh:mm:ss
YYYY-MM-DDThh:mm:ssZ
YYYY-MM-DDThh:mm:ssfrZ
Reference: FAST Query Language (FQL) syntax reference

QUESTION 5
You have a SharePoint farm. You create a web service that connects to an extension point in the Search service. The web service processes string content and returns the string in all capitalized letters. The web service includes the properties in the following table.
070-489 dumps
You start the SharePoint Management Shell. You create the following Windows PowerShell cmdlet: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-489 dumps
You need to complete the Windows PowerShell cmdlet to register the Content Enrichment service. Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
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070-489 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You develop a SharePoint app that reads data from an external source by using Business Connectivity Services (BCS). The following markup defines the subscription: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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Employee identification (ID) numbers that are less than 100 must be ignored.
You need to configure the subscription.
What should you do?
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You configure a SharePoint app to collect diagnostic information. The app must meet the following requirements: Record messages about all unrecoverable events that limit the functionality of the app, but do not stop the app. Record all events that include unexpected exceptions. Minimize the effects of logging on app performance. You need to configure the application to meet the requirements. Which trace log level should you use?
A. High
B. Medium
C. Unexpected
D. Monitorable
E. Verbose
070-489 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
You develop a SharePoint app that displays information about automobile parts. You need to create a user profile property to classify automobile parts into categories. Which property name should you specify?
A. part-Classification
B. part.classification
C. part_classification
D. Part Classification
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
You develop a SharePoint app that reads social data from your company’s SharePoint site.
You need to access the SocialFeedManager object.
Which object or URL should you use?
A. http:///_api/social.feed
B. SocialFeedManager(ClientRuntimeContext, ObjectPath);
C. http:///social.feed
D. SPSocialFeedManager(UserProfile);
070-489 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You have a custom Web Part that retrieves data across multiple task lists.
Pages that contain the Web Part load slowly.
You need to ensure that pages load as quickly as possible.
Which methods should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. CrossListQueryCache.GetSiteData(SPContext.Current.Site, siteUrl)
B. CrossListQueryCache.GetSiteData(SPContext.Current.Site)
C. Cache.Get(siteUrl)
D. SPList.GetItems(spQuery)
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: GetSiteData method (SPSite, String)
Gets the cache data from the specified site and from the specified webUrl.
C: Cache.Get Method
Retrieves the specified item from the Cache object.

QUESTION 11
You have a SharePoint publishing site. The marketing team tags their documents by using a managed metadata field named Location. The site has been fully crawled. Documents are tagged with city names only. A SharePoint app on the site displays search results by using the following term set.
070-489 dumps
You create the following code segment to query the contents of the site: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-489 dumps
You need to create a Keyword Query Language (KQL) expression to return results for all assets in the Central region. Which code segment should you insert at line 02?
A. varqueryTerms = “Location”;
B. varqueryTerms = “577c8e48-d5d9-4e5f-8e35-408c723feb11”;
C. varqueryTerms = “b49f64b3-4722-4336-9a5c-56c326b344d4”;
D. varqueryTerms = “owstaxidlocation: 1acfae8a-70b4-4ce0-bfbf-96c0e711f 8df”
070-489 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
You create a SharePoint site collection for a law firm. You create the following objects in the site collection.
070-489 dumps
A user searches for a legal case. The search results must contain only current cases. You need to create a custom result type that displays only current cases. Which object should you use?
A. Cases
B. MPCaseID
C. case
D. ows_CaseID
E. CaseID
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
You access a Records Management site in SharePoint. You create the following segment: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-489 dumps
Search results must display documents that contain specific keywords by using the following custom display template:
070-489 dumps
You need to implement the custom display template. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
070-489 dumps
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
You use Visual Studio to design a SharePoint solution for a company that sells wine to customers around the world. The solution must return the total number of cases sold per country. The solution also must allow employees to sort cases of wine that are returned. Employees must sort cases by country, date, and reason for the return. You need to configure the solution to meet the requirements. Which steps should you take? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add a Refinement Web Part to the page.
B. Configure the query for the Content Search Web Part.
C. Add country as a property filter to the Search Results Web Part.
D. Add a Calendar Web Part to the page.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A:
* From question:
. Employees must sort cases by country, date, and reason for the return.
* On the REFINERS tab, you can choose to limit returned results by adding preselected refiners to your query.
You can specify that the search results that are returned in the Search Results Web Part should be limited to one or more values from the refiners. The list shows all managed properties that are enabled as refiners in the search schema.
B: The Search Results Web Part shows the search results of a query that was entered in a Search Box Web Part.
C: From question:
The solution must return the total number of cases sold per country.
Note:
* Use property filters to query the content of managed properties that are set to queryable in the search schema.

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Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  You need to recommend which recovery solution will restore access to all of the mailboxes in AccountingDB if EX1 fails. The solution must restore access to email messages as quickly as possible. Which recovery solution should you recommend?
A. On EX2, create a new mailbox database. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the New-MailboxRestoreRequest cmdlet for all of the mailboxes in the database.
B. On EX2, create a new mailbox database. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet for all of the mailboxes in the database.
C. On replacement hardware, run setup /mode:recoverserver. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. On replacement hardware, run setup /mode:recoverserver. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the New-MailboxRestoreRequest cmdlet for all of the mailboxes in the database.
070-341 exam Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Restore Data Using a Recovery Database  Create a Recovery Database
Question No : 11 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You need to recommend to a solution to deploy the Outlook app. Which three actions
should you recommend performing in sequence?
070-341 dumps
Question No : 12 – (Topic 2)
You need to identify which business requirement will be met by implementing the planned hardware load balancer.
Which business requirement should you identify?
A. Minimize the hardware costs required for a load balancing solution.
B. Minimize the software costs required for a load balancing solution.
C. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Client Access server.
D. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Mailbox server.
070-341 dump Answer: C
Explanation:
NOT A
Introducing a load balancing solution will not minimize hardware costs
NOT B
Introducing a hardware load balancing solution will not minimize software costs
NOT D
A hardware load balancer connects to the Client Access servers not the Mailbox servers.
C
Question No : 13 – (Topic 2)  A hardware load balancer connects to the Client Access servers not the Mailbox servers AND is designed to minimize user interruptions Understanding Load Balancing in Exchange 2010: Exchange 2010 Help You need to resolve the search issue reported by the users in the New York office. You restart the Microsoft Exchange Search service and discover that the active copy of the mailbox database has a content indexing status of Unknown. What should you do next?
A. Rebuild the content index.
B. Run the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet and specify the -manualresume parameter.
C. Restart the Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Replication service.
D. Run the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet and specify the -catalogonly parameter.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Content Indexing also known as CI is a great feature to speed up item searching through
mailboxes.
Microsoft Exchange Search service Exchange 2013 introduces the following changes to Exchange Search: The underlying content indexing engine has been replaced with Microsoft Search Foundation, which provides performance and functionality improvements and serves as the common underlying content indexing engine in Exchange and SharePoint. The management interface, however, remain the same. By default, the Search Foundation handles the most common file formats in email
attachments. You no longer need to install Microsoft Office Filter Packs for Exchange Search. For a list of the file formats handled by Exchange Search, see File Formats Indexed By Exchange Search. You can add support for any additional file formats by install IFilters, as in Exchange 2010. Content indexing is more efficient because it now processes messages in the transport pipeline. As a result, messages addressed to multiple recipients or distribution groups are processed only once. An annotation stream is attached to the message, significantly speeding up content indexing while consuming fewer resources.
A
One of the first actions most Exchange Administrators generally take when troubleshooting suspected problems with Exchange Content Indexing will be to rebuild the impacted Mailbox Database’s content index files (either manually or by using the ResetSearchIndex.ps1 script found in the \Exchange Server\Scripts directory). Makes sure that Exchange content index always remain healthy.
NOT B
Not a database replication issue If the content index catalog for a mailbox database copy gets corrupted, you may need to
reseed the catalog. Seeding is also known as updating. Use the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet to seed or reseed a mailbox database copy.

EXAMPLE 1
This example seeds a copy of the database DB1 on the Mailbox server MBX1. Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy -Identity DB1\MBX1 The ManualResume switch specifies whether to automatically resume replication on the database copy. With this parameter, you can manually resume replication to the database copy.
NOT C
Not related to an indexing issue. In Exchange 2013, the Microsoft Exchange Replication service periodically monitors the
health of all mounted databases. In addition, it also monitors the Extensible Storage Engine (ESE) for any I/O errors or failures. When the service detects a failure, it notifies Active Manager. Active Manager then determines which database copy should be mounted and what it requires to mount that database. In addition, it tracks the active copy of a mailbox database (based on the last mounted copy of the database) and provides the tracking results information to the Client Access server to which the client is connected.
NOT D
Content index needs to be rebuilt If the content index catalog for a mailbox database copy gets corrupted, you may need to
reseed the catalog. Seeding is also known as updating. Use the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet to seed or reseed a mailbox database copy.
EXAMPLE 1
This example seeds a copy of the database DB1 on the Mailbox server MBX1. Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy -Identity DB1\MBX1 The CatalogOnly parameter specifies that only the content index catalog for the database copy should be seeded.
Exchange Search: Exchange 2013 Help

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QUESTION NO: 68
Wendy manages ten Google AdWords accounts for her clients. She would like to organize her billing so that she makes one payment for the clients account rather than ten individual payments, i.e., one for each client she manages. What approach should Wendy follow in this instance?
A. Google does not allow multiple accounts to be billed to one invoice.
B. Google recommends that Wendy move her accounts into the My Client Center with her cred it card.
C. Google recommends that Wendy enroll in the Manager Defined Spend.
D. Google recommends that Wendy subscribe to the Manager Order-level monthly invoice.
70-765 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 69
You are a consultant for several clients and you manage their Google AdWords campaigns. You’re using the AdWords Editor to manage these campaigns. One of your clients has provided you with 110 new keywords for their Google AdWords campaign. Using the Google AdWords Editor, how can you add these new keywords?
A. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Keywords tab.
B. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Settings tab.
C. Google AdWords Editor will only allow upto 100 changes to the keywords at a time. You’ll need to add 100 keywords, upload the changes, and then add the remaining 10 keywords through the Keywords tab in the Editor.
D. Google AdWords Editor doesn’t allow you to add keywords offline. The keywords must be added through the My Client Center.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 70
Julie’s company has created a video ad for the Google Content Network and she has elected to use the CPC pricing. Julie’s manager is concerned that the CPC pricing will be expensive, as the company will have to pay each time the video is played. What should Julie tell her manager about the costs of the CPC pricing?
A. The company will pay for each click to watch the video, as long as the person watches the video in its entirety.
B. The company will pay for each click on the video that leads a user to the destination websit e.
C. The company will pay for each click to watch the video. billing so that she makes one payment for the clients account rather than ten individual payments, i.e., one for each client she manages. What approach should Wendy follow in this instance?
A. Google does not allow multiple accounts to be billed to one invoice.
B. Google recommends that Wendy move her accounts into the My Client Center with her cred it card.
C. Google recommends that Wendy enroll in the Manager Defined Spend.
D. Google recommends that Wendy subscribe to the Manager Order-level monthly invoice.
70-765 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 69
You are a consultant for several clients and you manage their Google AdWords campaigns. You’re using the AdWords Editor to manage these campaigns. One of your clients has provided you with 110 new keywords for their Google AdWords campaign. Using the Google AdWords Editor, how can you add these new keywords?
A. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Keywords tab.
B. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Settings tab.
C. Google AdWords Editor will only allow upto 100 changes to the keywords at a time. You’ll need to add 100 keywords, upload the changes, and then add the remaining 10 keywords through the Keywords tab in the Editor.
D. Google AdWords Editor doesn’t allow you to add keywords offline. The keywords must be added through the My Client Center.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 70
Julie’s company has created a video ad for the Google Content Network and she has elected to use the CPC pricing. Julie’s manager is concerned that the CPC pricing will be expensive, as the company will have to pay each time the video is played. What should Julie tell her manager about the costs of the CPC pricing?
A. The company will pay for each click to watch the video, as long as the person watches the video in its entirety.
B. The company will pay for each click on the video that leads a user to the destination websit e.
C. The company will pay for each click to watch the video. castle near Phoenix, Arizona. The castle is a landmark for Phoenix residents and it’s a popular place for weddings, banquets, and parties. Which one of the following is the best choice for targeting Sally’s market to a very specific area?
A. Customized targeting
B. Region and City targeting
C. Country targeting
D. City targeting
70-765 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
Ivan has created advertisements for his online printing business. His ads have been running for two months, and he’d like to get a sense of where his ads are geographically being shown. How can Ivan see the geographical information where his Google AdWords are being shown?
A. Ivan must create an IP Address report, and then resolve the IP addresses to locations.
B. Ivan must create a Geographic Performance Report in his account.
C. Unless Ivan creates a location targeting ad, he won’t see this information.
D. Ivan must create an IP Address Report; Google will resolve the IP Address to locations.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 75
Bill and Sally are working together on a large Google AdWords campaign, though they are in two separate locations. Sally has exported her proposed changes to Bill in the Google AdWords Editor and Bill has imported the Account Snapshot through his Google AdWords Editor. When Bill examines the proposed changes Sally has made, how will he know which changes are proposed?
A. Proposed changes are in purple.
B. He’ll need to compare his version with Sally’s version of the campaigns.
C. Proposed changes are in red.
D. Proposed changes are in blue.
70-765 vce Answer: D

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QUESTION 6
System Administrator, Cliff Warner, asks you how he can prevent the discovery of non-SNMP enabled devices in his infrastructure. Which advice should you offer?
A. Disable ICMP on the Data Collectors.
B. Change the ICMP packet size to zero.
C. Disable ICMP discovery in the Discovery profiles.
D. Continue to permit the discovery of all devices because CA Performance Management only monitors SNMP-based devices by default.
070-347 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION 7
While logged in as a tenant administrator you begin creating the user accounts for that tenant. You want to assign a specific role to an account. However, the role does not appear to be among the available roles. What is the likely reason for this?
A. The role has not been created.
B. The role was assigned to another tenant.
C. You do not have permission to see the role.
D. Only CA Technologies Services can perform this action.
Answer: A
QUESTION 8
To help ensure that CA Performance Center operations run smoothly, which guidelines should you follow? (Choose three)
A. Check log files daily or at least weekly.
B. Purge log files manually every two weeks to avoid performance and space issues.
C. Test the Vertica database for consistency at least once a week using DBVisualizer.
D. Only change logging levels in the log4j.xml files for a service if advised to do so by CA Technologies support.
E. If you have access to the CA Performance Center server,run the grep-i command with the appropriate keyword to search multiple log files for error instances.
70-347 dumps 
Answer: A,D,E
QUESTION 9 The following application is set to auto-run at startup: Which approach would most reliably solve the problem this application will encounter? (Choose one.)
A. It should callThread.sleep() for ten seconds before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry device has completed its boot up process
B. Threads should be moved to their own standalone class so that they do not cause a security exception
C. Theint values in the MenuItem constructor should equal the y MenuString length to leave enough room for the string
D. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry device has completed its boot up process
E. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry device has completed its boot up process
F. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry device has completed its boot up process
G. ThemakeMenu method of MainScreen must be overridden to use a menu
Answer: D,E,F
QUESTION 10 A developer is designing a BlackBerry device application that provides summaries of large amounts of data. The summaries require extensive computations. Which design approach will meet these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. Store the full set of data locally on removable media using a compressed format

B. Supplement memory available on the BlackBerry device and compute the results locally
C. Use URL encodings to expedite the transfer of data between a remote server and the BlackBerry device
D. Compute the summary on a remote server and access the results through a BlackBerry Enterprise Server connection
E. Use local storage and the floating point processor on the BlackBerry device to speed up computations
070-347 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 11 A customer needs an application that will store temporary data and expose it to other BlackBerry device applications. Which API will meet this requirement? (Choose one.)
A. RuntimeStore
B. PersistentStore
C. Location Based Services
D. Global Events
E. Connector
Answer: A
QUESTION 12 An application requires the creation of a custom field that can display animation. Which class and
method combination should be used to accomplish this task? (Choose one.)
A. Field.paint(Graphics graphics)
B. MainScreen.paint(Graphics graphics)
C. Field.subpaint(Graphics graphics)
D. Screen.draw(Graphics graphics)
E. GameCanvas.paint(Graphics graphics)
070-347 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Consider the Counter class whose code is below:
Assuming that the go() method is always invoked serially, why is a different count printed at the end
almost every time that it is invoked? (Choose one.)

A. Therun() method is not declared “synchronized”
B. The _count variable is not declared “synchronized”
C. The ++ operator is not atomic
D. The _count variable overflows
E. The Counter class is not declared “synchronized”
Answer: C
QUESTION 14 A developer is writing a game with custom graphics and animations that will need to fit on multiple
screen sizes for various BlackBerry devices. The developer needs to minimize the number of images
created for the game. Which API will support these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SVG
B. Display
C. Transition
D. Multimedia
E. Game
070-347 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 15 Which three of the following options are contained in a component pack? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Device Simulator
B. JavaDocs
C. API Library
D. Code signing keys
E. Unit Tests Framework
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION 16 Which push header should be used to verify that push requests are received by a BlackBerry device
application? (Choose one.)
A. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Transport
B. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-Before Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
C. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-After: Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
D. X-Rim-Push-Priority: High
E. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Application
070-347 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION 17 An application is needed that can store a list of sales data and customer information. The application
will also need the ability to search through this data and summarize it in an efficient manner. Which data
storage mechanism will assist in meeting all of these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SQLite
B. PersistentStore
C. RecordStore D.
RuntimeStore E.
FileConnection
Answer: D

QUESTION 18 Which two of the following classes could be used to check the coverage status? (Choose two.)
A. Radio
B. ConnectionFactory
C. TransportInfo
D. CoverageSate
E. CoverageInfo
070-347 pdf Answer: C,E
QUESTION 19 A developer has been asked to create an application that will display the full name of all people in a
BlackBerry device user address book. The following code is written:
Which two of the following actions must be taken before this code is executed to ensure
compatibility across all versions of BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose two.)
A. The application should initialize all entries of thecontactName String array to empty Strings
B. The application should use theContact.countValues method to verify that the Contact.NAME field
contains an entry
C. The application should verify that it can write to the user address book using
theApplicationPermissions API
D. The application should use theisNull method to verify that the Contact.NAME values are not null
E. The application should use theContactList.isSupportedField method to verify that the
Contact.NAME field can be read
Answer: B,E
QUESTION 20 Consider the code below:

How will the connection route be affected? (Choose one.)
A. The connection is never routed through the BlackBerry Infrastructure
B. The connection is routed over the cellular network
C. The connection is routed over the Wi-Fi
D. The connection is routed over the BlackBerry Internet Service -B
E. The connection is never routed through the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
070-347 vce Answer: E
QUESTION 21 Consider the addTask() method defined below. Its purpose is to receive incoming tasks and put them
into a Vector, _tasks. Another thread will continuously remove the task at index 0 from the Vector.
Assuming that addTask() is being invoked at a rate roughly equal to the rate at which the tasks are being
processed, which concurrency issue may occur during execution? (Choose one.)
A. Livelock
B. Deadlock
C. Race condition
D. Starvation
E. Unfairness
Answer: D
QUESTION 22 Consider the following small application which creates a linked list like structure:

After execution, at which statement does the ListElement object created at line 6 become a candidate for
garbage collection? (Choose one.)
A. 16
B. 17
C. 21C.21
D. 22D.22
E. 23E.23
070-347 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 23 Which keys are required to use the encryption classes in the Java API in order to store encrypted data
on a BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Code development keys
B. Code signing keys
C. Code runtime keys
D. Code encryption keys
E. Code storage keys
Answer: B

QUESTION NO 24
The permanent licenses on the controller will be deleted with the use of which command?
A. delete license
B. write erase
C. Licenses cannot be deleted once activated
D. write erase all
070-347 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which statement is true about the Content Security License?
A. Applied to the master controller
B. Applied to all the controllers in the network
C. It is based on number of users
D. It is based on number of APs
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26 What is the best practice regarding licensing for a backup master to support Master Redundancy?
A. Backup master only requires the AP license
B. License limits should be the same on primary master and backup Master
C. Licenses are pushed from the primary to the backup Master along with the configuration
D. Backup Master does not require licenses to support master redundancy
070-347 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 27
Which may be applied directly to an interface? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Access List (ACL)
B. Firewall Policy
C. Roles
D. RF Plan Map
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 28
What new firewall action was added specifically for use with Aruba’s Content Security Service?
VisualRF supports import of floor plans from:
A. dst-nat
B. dual-nat
C. route dst-nat
D. redirect to tunnel
070-347 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 29
When creating a firewall policy, which of the following parameters are required? (Choose all the
correct answers.)
A. Destination
B. Service
C. Source
D. Log
E. Action
Answer: A,B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 30
In all unmodified default AAA profiles, in which default initial role is the user placed?
A. trusted-ap
B. guest
C. pre-guest
D. logon
070-347 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 31
When are the system-defined default roles added to the configuration on the controller?
A. when the controller is first booted
B. when an RF Proctect license is added to the controller
C. when created manually
D. when a PEF-NG license is added to the controller
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 32
When a user first associates to the WLAN, what role are they given?
A. the guest role
B. the stateful role
C. the initial role in the server group profile
D. the initial role in the AAA profile
70-347 dumps
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following could be used to set a user’s post-authentication role or VLAN association?
(Choose all the correct answers.)
A. AAA default role for authentication method
B. Server Derivation Rule
C. Vendor Specific Attributes
D. AP Derivation Rule
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which describe “roles” as used on Aruba Mobility Controllers? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Roles are assigned to users.
B. Roles are applied to interfaces.
C. Policies are built from roles.
D. A user can belong to only one role at a time.
070-347 pdf 
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 35
Which netdestination aliases are built into the controller? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. mswitch
B. any
C. user
D. guest
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 36
What are aliases used for?
A. improve performance
B. simplify the configuration process
C. tie IP addresses to ports
D. assign rules to policies
070-347 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following statements allows a user to initiate an HTTP session to other devices?
A. any alias internal-nets svc-dns permit
B. user any svc-http permit
C. user user svc-http permit
D. any any svc-http permit
Answer: B,D



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Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments (10-15%)
  • Implement Storage Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement Hyper-V (20-25%)
  • Implement Windows Containers (5-10%)
  • Implement High Availability (30-35%)
  • Maintain and Monitor Server Environments (10-15%)

Microsoft MCSA 70-740 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a new file server named Server1 that runs a

Server Core installation of Windows Server 2016. 

Server1 has an ReFS-formatted volume D: and NTFS-formatted volume E: The volumes do not contain any data. 

You install the Data Deduplication role service on Server1. 

You need to implement Data Deduplication for volumes on D: and E:. 

Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Format-Volume D: -FileSystem EXFat and Enable-DeDupVolume

-Volume D:,E:. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

You are a server administrator at a company named Contoso, Ltd. 

Contoso has a Windows Server 2016 Hyper-V environment configured as shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q2

All of the virtual switches are of the external type.
You need to ensure that you can move virtual machines between the hosts without causing the virtual machines to
disconnect from the network.
Solution: You implement live migration by using Host2 and Host4.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to create a report that lists all of the share permissions assigned to the security principals on Server1.
How should you complete the command? To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlets to the correct targets. Each cmdlet
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q3-1

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Served that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Windows Application Proxy role
service installed. You are publishing an application named. App1 that will use Integrated Windows authentication as
shown in the following graphic.pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q4

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q4-2

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 hosts a line-of-business application named App1. App1 has a memory leak that occasionally causes the
application to consume an excessive amount of memory.
You need to log an event in the Application event log whenever App1 consumes more than 4 GB of memory.
Solution: You create an event trace data collector.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have two servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You plan to create a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster that will contain both servers.
You need to configure the network cards on the servers for the planned NLB configuration. Solution: You configure the
network cards to be on the same subnet and to have static IP addresses. You configure the cluster to use multicast.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/networking/technologies/network-load-balancing

QUESTION 7
You want to capture the state, data, and hardware configuration of a running virtual machine.
Which checkpoint can be very useful if you need to recreate a specific state or condition of a running virtual machine so
that you can troubleshoot a problem?
A. Production
B. Standard
Correct Answer: B
Standard checkpoints capture the state, data, and hardware configuration of a running virtual machine and are intended
for use in development and test scenarios.

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has several servers that run Windows Server 2016. Contoso has a Hyper-V
environment that uses failover clustering and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). The environment contains
several Windows containers and several virtual machines.
The WSUS deployment contains one upstream server that is located on the company\\’s perimeter network and several
downstream servers located on the internal network. A firewall separates the upstream server from the downstream
servers.
You plan to deploy a human resources application to a new server named HRServer5. HRServer5 contains a
FAT32-formatted data volume.
The CIO of Contoso identifies the following requirements for the company\\’s IT department:
Deploy a failover cluster to two new virtual machines.
Store all application databases by using Encrypted File System (EFS).
Ensure that each Windows container has a dedicated IP address assigned by a DHCP server.
Produce a report that lists the processor time used by all of the processes on a server named Server1 for five hours.
Encrypt all communication between the internal network and the perimeter network, including all WSUS
communications.
Automatically load balance the virtual machines hosted in the Hyper-V cluster when processor utilization exceeds 70
percent.
You need to configure the storage solution for the planned failover cluster.
You create two new generations 2 virtual machines on two separate Hyper-Vhosts named VM11 and VM12.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence next? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of
actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q8-1

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a line-of-business application named
App1. App1 has a memory leak that occasionally causes the application to consume an excessive amount of memory.
You need to log an event in the Application event log whenever App1 consumes more than 4 GB of memory.
Solution: You create a performance counter alert data collector.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your company has a testing environment that contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com The domain
contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server. 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM)
installed IPAM has the following configuration.pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q10

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q10-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q10-2

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices An answer choice may be
correct for more than one question in the series Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that
runs Windows Server 2016 and a two-node scale-out file server cluster named Cluster1 A virtual machine named VM1
runs on Server1 You need to migrate the storage on VM1 to Cluster1
Which tool should you use?
A. the clussvc.exe command
B. the cluster.exe command
C. the Computer Management console
D. the configurehyperv.exe command
E. the Disk Management console
F. the Failover Cluster Manager console
G. the Hyper-V Manager console
H. the Server Manager Desktop app
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 12
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has two network adapters that support
single root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV). The network adapters are from two different vendors.
You plan to install the Hyper-V server role on Server1, and then to create a virtual machine named VM1 that runs
Windows Server 2016. VM1 will use SR-IOV.
You need to ensure that VM1 can use both network adapters for load balancing and failover.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, create two virtual switches without embedded teaming. On VM1, create one NIC team.
B. On Server1, create one virtual switch without embedded teaming. On VM1, create one NIC team.
C. On Server1, create one NIC team. On VM1, create one NIC team.
D. On Server1, create one virtual switch that has embedded teaming. On VM1, create two NIC teams.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a network that contains several servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You need to use Desired State Configuration (DSC) to configure the servers to meet the following requirements:
-Install the Web Server server role.
-Start the World Wide Web Publishing service.
How should you configure the DSC resources? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct locations. Each
value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view
content.
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Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q13-1

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