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Salesforce CRT-251

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QUESTION 1
Universal Containers has an upcoming maintenance window where read-only access will be available
Which two actions will Universal Containers be able to perform during this window? Choose 2 answers
A. Run and view Salesforce reports
B. Post report information on Chatter
C. Update case data for a customer
D. Review existing cases for an account
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 2
A Consultant arrives for a requirements workshop, but key resources are absent. What is the likely reason the key
resources are absent?
A. The proper roles, resources, and risks were not identified.
B. The resources were not on the Project Kick-off
C. The purpose and scope were not defined
D. The project plan did not receive sign-off
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A new support center has only one part-time Service Rep. Which step should a Consultant take to ensure that Case
Aging is tracked accurately?
A. Let the Service Rep change the Business Hours on the Case
B. User a time-dependent Workflow Rule to update Case Status
C. Use an Escalation Rule to assign open Cases to another user
D. Let the service Rep enter the appropriate Case age Value
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The Forecast Category on the Opportunity record maps directly, on a one-to-one basis, to the aggregates on the Forecast tab.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
The sales representatives at Universal containers use various email applications and often receive important customer
emails while they are away from the office. Sales management wants to ensure sales representatives are recording
email activity with customers in salesforce while they are away from the office.
What should a consultant recommend to meet this requirement?
A. Download and install a salesforce universal connector for their smartphone and computers
B. Copy and paste emails manually to the customer record in Salesforce from their smartphones and computers
C. Download and install the salesforce for outlook connector on their smartphones and computers
D. Forward emails using their email-to-salesforce email address from their smartphones and computers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Cloud Kicks requires sales associates to record all activities within Salesforce. Which sales metric can be derived from
these activities?
A. Close Rate
B. Close Rate
C. Rate of Contact
D. Marketing Influence
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Universal Containers is devising a separate sales methodology to upsell service contracts to its existing customer base.
The company would like to track and report on these deals separately from other deals. What should a consultant
recommend to meet this requirement?
A. Add upsell as a stage and create a summary report by opportunity stage
B. Create an opportunity record type and sales process for reporting on these deals
C. Create separate page layout and report to flag and report on these deals
D. Create a customer filed on opportunity to flag and report on these deals.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which two areas can an Administrator make Open CTI features available to users when building a Lightning App using
the App Manager? Choose 2 answer
A. On utility bar of the Lightning App
B. On a record Highlights Panel
C. On a record Activity Feed List
D. On the Calendar right hand panel
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Territory mgt is enabled. Users should be able to track account plans for each account they have access to
A. Create lookup relationship account -> account plan
B. Create master detail relationship account -> account plan
C. Review territory mananagement settings
D. Validation rule
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Universal Containers wants to implement a website for a new product launch. The site should be publicly available,
allow visitors to submit requests for information, and be managed by the non-technical marketing team. Which solution
should the consultant recommend?
A. Lightning Platform
B. Salesforce Mobile Sites
C. Lightning Components
D. Customer Community
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Cloud Kicks has three unique product lines, each with a unique sales cycle. Prospect qualification is consistent across
the product lines; sales representatives then follow the specific product line\\’s sales cicle Which two actions should a
Consultant recommend to achieve these requirements? Choose 2 answers
A. Define the default opportunity teams for each opportunity record type.
B. Define sales stages that align with opportunity record types.
C. Create sales process to map to each opportunity record type
D. Create opportunity record types for each sales process.
E. Create public groups for each opportunity sale process.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 12
A Salesforce partner regularly works with Salesforce Account Executives to close deals with clients that are looking for a
partner to implement Sales Cloud. As new partner sales reps are on-boarded, they spend quite a bit of time trying to
determine which Account Executive maps to which Accounts and Opportunities. What should the Consultant
recommend when rolling this out?
A. Add a Lookup field on the Opportunity to indicate Partner Executives
B. Add the Title field to all Contact Layout
C. Implement Account Contact Roles
D. Implement Account Partner Roles
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Universal Containers was bought by a larger company and needs to provide information on a monthly basis to the new
parent company to help predict sales. Which data should the new parent company review?
A. Dashboard of user login history
B. Count of new lead records created
C. Number of activities tied to opportunities
D. Opportunity pipeline report grouped by month
Correct Answer: D

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101-400 dumps

QUESTION 1
Which of the following commands changes the ownership of file.txt to the user dan and the group staff?
A. chown dan/staff file.txt
B. chown dan:staff file.txt
C. chown -u dan -g staff file.txt
D. chown dan -g staff file.txt
101-400 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following pieces of information of an existing file is changed when a hard link pointing to that file is created?
A. File size
B. Modify timestamp
C. Link count
D. Inode number
E. Permissions
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands can be used to search for the executable file foo when it has been placed in a directory not included in $PATH?
A. apropos
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
101-400 dump Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which of the following commands is used to change options and positional parameters for a running Bash?
A. history
B. set

C. bashconf
D. setsh
E. envsetup
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands will change the quota for a specific user?
A. edquota
B. repquota
C. quota -e
D. quota
101-400 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
What is the default nice level when a process is started using the nice command?
A. -10
B. 10
C. 20
D. 0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Creating a hard link to an ordinary file returns an error. What could be the reason for this?
A. The source file is hidden.
B. The source file is read-only.
C. The source file is a shell script.
D. The source file is already a hard link.
E. The source and the target are on different filesystems.
101-400 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands replaces each occurrence of \’bob\’ in the file letter with \’Bob\’ and writes the result to the file newletter?
A. sed \’/bob/Bob\’ letter andgt; newletter
B. sed s/bob/Bob/ letter andlt; newletter
C. sed \’s/bob/Bob\’ letter andgt; newletter
D. sed \’s/bob/Bob/g\’ letter andgt; newletter
E. sed \’s/bob, Bob/\’ letter andgt; newletter
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
In Bash, inserting 1andgt;andamp;2 after a command redirects
A. standard error to standard input.
B. standard input to standard error.
C. standard output to standard error.
D. standard error to standard output.
E. standard output to standard input.
101-400 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
In the vi editor, which of the following commands will copy the current line into the vi buffer?
A. c
B. cc
C. 1c D. yy
E. 1y
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which of the following commands will NOT update the modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt?
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo andquot;Helloandquot; andgt;/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie andquot;s/1/2/andquot; /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n andquot;Helloandquot; andgt;andgt;/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
101-400 dump Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?
A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.
B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.
C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.
D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13 Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
101-400 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION 14 If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM personnel for project staffing?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
QUESTION 15 Which of the following is a significant cause of failure when using the technology-focused approach to BI Application development?
A. Users often have difficulty understanding new technology.
B. New technology often contains internal flaws and errors that affect the delivered solution.
C. The solution is focused on a single subject area.
D. Developers often focus on just the data.
101-400 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION 16 Which of the following MOST clearly states the value of using a methodology?
A. It provides a philosophy of development that maximizes return on investment.
B. It helps consultants progress in a systematic way to insure all critical steps are addressed.
C. It helps project managers estimate the cost and effort in developing a solution.
D. It ensures that early mistakes are avoided in developing a solution.
Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Which of the following BEST describes the relationship or differences between Iterative Approach and Cognos SIM?
A. The Iterative Approach is a specific technique used to iterate through the Design phase.
B. The Iterative Approach is a series of steps defined in the Analysis and Development phases of Cognos SIM.
C. The Iterative Approach is a philosophy of development while Cognos SIM is a collection of tasks, documents, and techniques to guide development.
D. Cognos SIM is the current Cognos development standard and is intended to replace the Iterative Approach for development of BI applications.
101-400 exam
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
After surveying for the ideal mounting locations for APs, you have been asked to compromise RF propagation optimization due to aesthetic concerns raised by your customer. In the end, you’ve decided to mount the APs in the ideal locations and paint the APs so they go unnoticed in the environment. What is a valid recommendation or consideration when painting APs? (Choose 2)
A. Always use paints with metallic dye in them to prevent potential RF propagation impact.
B. Do not paint the notification LEDs on the AP, but configure them to be dim or turned off altogether until troubleshooting is required.
C. Painting APs may void the product manufacturer’s warranty.
D. Most AP models for indoor environments come in a variety of form factors and colors. Painting is never recommended.
E. Painting APs always introduces a fire and gas emissions hazard and should be avoided for all indoor APs.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
When deploying long-distance 802.11 bridge links (10 miles / 16 km), what parameter may be critical for improving data flow by reducing retries caused by the long distances?
A. The sequence control field value
B. The acknowledgement timeout threshold
C. The minimum transmit data rate value
D. The CTS-to-self threshold
E. The Beacon interval
F. The PHY parameter set field
101-400 dump
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
One of your customers plans on providing wireless coverage to a warehouse facility. After performing an initial walkthrough, you collect the following information:
– The central part of the warehouse is between 400 and 600 feet (122 to 183 meters) from the warehouse switches mounted on the walls.
– The warehouse map was provided by the customer and is displayed in the exhibit.
– The warehouse storage is composed of metallic racks with varying inventory levels and contents, from electronics and plastic toys to food pallets and juice bottles.
– Workers need basic data coverage from their working location, and are not highly mobile. They usually work from one single aisle, and their laptop is on a cart with wheels. What would be your recommendation to provide coverage to the central area (indicated by a blue circle) of the warehouse?
A. Equip workers laptops with a directional antenna and install APs less than 328 feet (100m) away from the switch.
B. In this case, extend the cable length just beyond 328 feet (100 m) and position APs as close as possible to the central area of the warehouse.
C. Position APs along the walls, and equip the APs with Yagi antennas to cover the central area.
D. Install APs for client access in the central area and use a mesh backhaul link to connect to the DS.
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 21
Which definition correctly describes the “local MAC” variation of the centralized WLAN architecture?
A. All MAC functions are performed by the AP. A minimal subset of network control is offloaded to the WLAN controller along with management and monitoring functions.
B. PHY functions are performed directly by the AP. MAC functions are divided almost equally between the WLAN controller and the AP, according to the time sensitivity of the feature or service.
C. The AP provides the RF termination point for the WLAN, but performs very few of the WLAN functions or services. The WLAN controller performs all MAC functions and the AP is very simple and lightweight.
D. All RF-, data-, and control-related WLAN functions are performed by the AP. APs coordinate network services with one another and are managed by a WNMS, so no WLAN controller is used in this architecture.
101-400 pdf 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
When a WLAN controller transmits an Ethernet frame that has an IEEE 802.11 frame as its payload to a lightweight AP, what type of QoS marks can be applied to the Ethernet frame and/or its payload? (Choose 3)
A. IEEE 802.1Q PCP marks in the Ethernet frame header
B. User Priority marks in the IEEE 802.11 frame header
C. Throughput subscription marks in the Ethernet frame header
D. MPLS tags from the Label Edge Router (LER)
E. DSCP marks to the ToS bits in the encapsulating IP packet header
F. RSVP tag if RTP is the payload of the IEEE 802.11 frame
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
In a centralized WLAN architecture, what new problem may arise when you change the data forwarding model from centralized to distributed? (Choose 2)
A. APs that were designed for a centralized forwarding model may not support all features in distributed forwarding mode.
B. The Ethernet switch ports to which APs are connected may need to be reconfigured to support VLAN tagging and QoS at the network edge.
C. All RRM controls will also need to be distributed to a master AP that acts as a channel and transmit power arbiter for other APs in the ESS.
D. Centralized control functions, such as key management and distribution, RRM, and load balancing will no longer be supported.
E. APs will not have the processing capabilities to support AES-CCMP, so TKIP will be the recommended encryption method.
101-400 vce 
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
Your customer location is equipped with DAS, originally deployed to relay a GSM signal indoors and provide 802.11 data coverage to static stations. What type of wireless application would be least likely to be supported by this RF distribution model?
A. On-demand video streaming over wireless
B. Data connection with frequent roaming
C. Location-based services for wireless assets or RFID tags
D. VoWLAN if the codec is G.729.
E. FTP over implicit TLS/SSL
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
In a manufacturing facility with highly reflective materials, you are planning an upgrade to your existing 802.11b solution. You have chosen a dual-band 802.11n infrastructure product for this purpose. Your client applications include: Handheld scanners — for inventory management Toughbooks (laptops) — mounted on forklifts for inventory and workflow management oWiFi phones — used by select employees throughout the facility You are evaluating all of the 802.11n enhancements and determining which features to enable for your environment and applications. In this scenario, what 802.11n enhancements should NOT be enabled on the 2.4 GHz radio of the new APs? (Choose 2)
A. 40 MHz channels
B. Short guard intervals
C. Block Acknowledgments
D. Frame aggregation
E. MRC
F. STBC
101-400 exam
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
According to WLAN security design best practices, what is true of the EAP properties shown in the exhibit?
A. The “Validate server certificate” checkbox should be checked if you purchased a third-party SSL certificate for the AS, but left unchecked if you have a self-signed certificate for the AS.
B. The “Validate server certificate” checkbox should always be checked to prevent MITM attacks from rogue authentication servers.
C. The “Trusted Root Certification Authorities” list is provided to identify the certificate that the client should send to the AS for client authentication.
D. The “Do not prompt user to authorize new servers or trusted certification authorities” box should be checked only for administrative users.
E. The “Enable Identity Privacy” checkbox and anonymous name field are only useful for networks supporting EAP-LEAP.
Answer: B
Explanation:

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