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New Lpi 102-500 exam practice questions(q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
FILL BLANK Which parameter is missing in the command
IP link set ____ dev eth0
to activate the previously inactive network interface eth0? (Specify the parameter only without any command, path or
additional options.)
Correct Answer: up


QUESTION 2
When trying to unmount a device it is reported as being busy. Which of the following commands could be used to
determine which process is causing this?
A. debug
B. lsof
C. nessus
D. strace
E. traceroute
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
What command displays all aliases defined in the current shell? (Specify the command without any path information)
A. alias, alias -p
B. PlaceHolder
C. PlaceHolder
D. PlaceHolder
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What entry can be added to the syslog.conf file to have all syslog messages generated by a system displayed on
console 12?
A. *.* /dev/tty12
B. /var/log/messages | /dev/tty12
C. | /dev/tty12
D. syslog tty12
E. mail.* /dev/tty12
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which character in the password field of /etc/passwd is used to indicate that the encrypted password is
stored in /etc/shadow?
A. *
B.
C. s
D. x
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
FILL BLANK Which file, if present, must contain all users that are allowed to use the cron scheduling system? (Specify
the full name of the file, including the path.)
Correct Answer: crontab


QUESTION 7
What is the difference between the commands test -e path and test -f path?
A. They are equivalent options with the same behaviour.
B. The -f option tests for a regular file. The -e option tests for an empty file.
C. Both options check the existence of the path. The -f option also confirms that it is a regular file.
D. The -f option tests for a regular file. The -e option tests for an executable file.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which command allows you to make a shell variable visible to subshells?
A. export $VARIABLE
B. export VARIABLE
C. set $VARIABLE
D. set VARIABLE
E. env VARIABLE
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which of the following parameters are used for journalctl to limit the time frame of the output? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. –from=
B. –since=
C. –until=
D. –upto=
E. –date=
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 10
Which of the following words is used to restrict the records that are returned from a SELECT query based on a supplied
criteria for the values in the records?
A. LIMIT
B. FROM
C. WHERE
D. IF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following SQL queries counts the number of occurrences for each value of the field order_type in the table
orders?
A. SELECT order_type,COUNT(*) FROM orders WHERE order_type=order_type;
B. SELECT order_type,COUNT(*) FROM orders GROUP BY order_type;
C. COUNT(SELECT order_type FROM orders);
D. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM orders ORDER BY order_type;
E. SELECT AUTO_COUNT FROM orders COUNT order_type;
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
What word is missing from the following SQL statement?
__________ count(*) from tablename;
(Please specify the missing word using lower-case letters only.)
A. select
B. PlaceHolder
C. PlaceHolder
D. PlaceHolder
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which of the following protocols is related to the term open relay?
A. SMTP
B. POP3
C. NTP
D. IMAP
E. LDAP
Correct Answer: A

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New EC-COUNCIL ECSAV10 exam practice questions(q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
John, a security analyst working for the LeoTech organization, was asked to perform penetration testing on the client
organizational network. In this process, he used a method that involves threatening or convincing a person from the
client
organization to obtain sensitive information.
Identify the type of penetration testing performed by John on the client organization?
A. Wireless network penetration testing
B. Social engineering penetration testing
C. Mobile device penetration testing
D. Web application penetration testing
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Output modules allow Snort to be much more flexible in the formatting and presentation of output to its users. Snort has
9 output plug-ins that push out data in different formats. Which one of the following output plug-ins allows alert data to
be written in a format easily importable to a database?
A. unified
B. csv
C. alert_unixsock
D. alert_fast
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
As a security analyst, you set up a false survey website that will require users to create a username and a strong
password. You send the link to all the employees of the company. What information will you be able to gather?
A. The employees network usernames and passwords
B. The MAC address of the employees\\’ computers
C. The IP address of the employee’s computers
D. Bank account numbers and the corresponding routing numbers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Julia is a senior security analyst for Berber Consulting group. She is currently working on a contract for a small
accounting firm in Florida; They have given her permission to perform social engineering attacks on the company to see
if their in-house training did any good. Julia calls the main number for the accounting firm and talks to the receptionist.
Julia says that she is an IT technician from the company\\’s main office in Iowa; She states that she needs the
receptionist\\’s network username and password to troubleshoot a problem they are having. Julia says that Bill
Hammond, the CEO of the company, requested this information. After hearing the name of the CEO, the receptionist
gave Julia all the information she asked for. What principle of social engineering did Julia use?
A. Reciprocation
B. Friendship/Liking
C. Social Validation
D. Scarcity
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which of the following acts related to information security in the US establish that the management of an organization is
responsible for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial
reporting?
A. USA Patriot Act 2001
B. Sarbanes-Oxley 2002
C. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
D. California SB 1386
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Ross performs security tests on his company\\’s network assets and creates a detailed report of all the findings. In his
report, he clearly explains the methodological approach that he has followed in finding the loopholes in the network.
However,
his report does not mention the security gaps that can be exploited or the amount of damage that may result from
the successful exploitation of the loopholes. The report does not even mention the remediation steps that are to
be
taken to secure the network.
What is the type of test that Ross has performed?
A. Penetration testing
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Risk assessment
D. Security audit
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
While scanning a server, you found RPC, NFS, and mount services running on it. During the investigation, you were told
that NFS Shares were mentioned in the /etc/exports list of the NFS server. Based on this information, which among the
following commands would you issue to view the NFS Shares running on the server?
A. showmount
B. nfsenum
C. mount
D. rpcinfo
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following external pen testing tests reveals information on price, usernames and passwords, sessions,
URL characters, special instructors, encryption used, and web page behaviors?

ECSAV10 exam questions-q8

A. Check for Directory Consistency and Page Naming Syntax of the Web Pages
B. Examine Server Side Includes (SSI)
C. Examine Hidden Fields
D. Examine E-commerce and Payment Gateways Handled by the Web Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What are the security risks of running a “repair” installation for Windows XP?
A. There are no security risks when running the “repair” installation for Windows XP
B. Pressing Shift+F1 gives the user administrative rights
C. Pressing Ctrl+F10 gives the user administrative rights
D. Pressing Shift+F10 gives the user administrative rights
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Robert is a network admin in XYZ Inc. He deployed a Linux server in his enterprise network and wanted to share some
critical and sensitive files that are present in the Linux server with his subordinates. He wants to set the file access
permissions using chmod command in such a way that his subordinates can only read/view the files but cannot edit or
delete the files.
Which of the following chmod commands can Robert use in order to achieve his objective?
A. chmod 666
B. chmod 644
C. chmod 755
D. chmod 777
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
A wireless intrusion detection system (WIDS) monitors the radio spectrum for the presence of unauthorized, rogue
access points and the use of wireless attack tools.
The system monitors the radio spectrum used by wireless LANs, and immediately alerts a systems administrator
whenever a rogue access point is detected. Conventionally it is achieved by comparing the MAC address of the
participating
wireless devices.
Which of the following attacks can be detected with the help of a wireless intrusion detection system (WIDS)?

ECSAV10 exam questions-q11

A. Social engineering
B. SQL injection
C. Parameter tampering
D. Man-in-the-middle attack
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Watson works as a Penetrating test engineer at Neo security services. The company found its wireless network
operating in an unusual manner, with signs that a possible cyber attack might have happened. Watson was asked to
resolve this
problem. Watson starts a wireless penetrating test, with the first step of discovering wireless networks by war-driving.
After several thorough checks, he identifies that there is some problem with rogue access points and resolves it.
Identifying
rogue access points involves a series of steps.
Which of the following arguments is NOT valid when identifying the rogue access points?
A. If a radio media type used by any discovered AP is not present in the authorized list of media types, it is considered
as a rogue AP
B. If any new AP which is not present in the authorized list of APs is detected, it would be considered as a rogue AP
C. If the radio channel used by any discovered AP is not present in the authorized list of channels, it is considered as a
rogue AP
D. If the MAC of any discovered AP is present in the authorized list of MAC addresses, it would be considered as a
rogue AP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
In which of the following IDS evasion techniques does IDS reject the packets that an end system accepts?
A. IPS evasion technique
B. IDS evasion technique
C. UDP evasion technique
D. TTL evasion technique
Correct Answer: D

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New EC-COUNCIL 312-50V11 exam practice questions(q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
Which regulation defines security and privacy controls for federal information systems and organizations?
A. HIPAA
B. EU Safe Harbor
C. PCI-DSS
D. NIST-800-53
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
The “Gray-box testing” methodology enforces what kind of restriction?
A. Only the external operation of a system is accessible to the tester.
B. The internal operation of a system in only partly accessible to the tester.
C. Only the internal operation of a system is known to the tester.
D. The internal operation of a system is completely known to the tester.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
By using a smart card and pin, you are using a two-factor authentication that satisfies
A. Something you are and something you remember
B. Something you have and something you know
C. Something you know and something you are
D. Something you have and something you are
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to deploy a new web-based software package for your organization. The package requires three separate
servers and needs to be available on the Internet. What is the recommended architecture in terms of server placement?
A. All three servers need to be placed internally
B. A web server facing the Internet, an application server on the internal network, a database server on the internal
network
C. A web server and the database server facing the Internet, an application server on the internal network
D. All three servers need to face the Internet so that they can communicate between themselves
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Which system consists of a publicly available set of databases that contain domain name registration contact
information?
A. WHOIS
B. CAPTCHA
C. IANA
D. IETF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following tools performs comprehensive tests against web servers, including dangerous files and CGIs?
A. Nikto
B. John the Ripper
C. Dsniff
D. Snort
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
env x=’(){ :;};echo exploit’ bash –c ‘cat/etc/passwd’
What is the Shellshock bash vulnerability attempting to do on a vulnerable Linux host?
A. Removes the passwd file
B. Changes all passwords in passwd
C. Add new user to the passwd file
D. Display passwd content to prompt
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
To determine if a software program properly handles a wide range of invalid input, a form of automated testing can be
used to randomly generate invalid input in an attempt to crash the program.
What term is commonly used when referring to this type of testing?
A. Randomizing
B. Bounding
C. Mutating
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
A bank stores and processes sensitive privacy information related to home loans. However, auditing has never been
enabled on the system. What is the first step that the bank should take before enabling the audit feature?
A. Perform a vulnerability scan of the system.
B. Determine the impact of enabling the audit feature.
C. Perform a cost/benefit analysis of the audit feature.
D. Allocate funds for staffing of audit log review.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the structure designed to verify and authenticate the identity of individuals within the enterprise
taking part in a data exchange?
A. SOA
B. biometrics
C. single sign on
D. PKI
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
What does a firewall check to prevent particular ports and applications from getting packets into an organization?
A. Transport layer port numbers and application layer headers
B. Presentation layer headers and the session layer port numbers
C. Network layer headers and the session layer port numbers
D. Application layer port numbers and the transport layer headers
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Which of the following viruses tries to hide from anti-virus programs by actively altering and corrupting the chosen
service call interruptions when they are being run?
A. Macro virus
B. Stealth/Tunneling virus
C. Cavity virus
D. Polymorphic virus
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
If a tester is attempting to ping a target that exists but receives no response or a response that states the destination is
unreachable, ICMP may be disabled and the network may be using TCP. Which other option could the tester use to get
a response from a host using TCP?
A. Traceroute
B. Hping
C. TCP ping
D. Broadcast ping
Correct Answer: B

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New EC-COUNCIL 212-89 exam practice questions(q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
___________________ record(s) user\\’s typing.
A. Spyware
B. adware
C. Virus
D. Malware
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
The role that applies appropriate technology and tries to eradicate and recover from the incident is known as:
A. Incident Manager
B. Incident Analyst
C. Incident Handler
D. Incident coordinator
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Risk management consists of three processes, risk assessment, mitigation, and evaluation. The risk assessment determines
the extent of the potential threat and the risk associated with an IT system through its SDLC. How many primary steps
does NIST\\’s risk assessment methodology involve?
A. Twelve
B. Four
C. Six
D. Nine
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
The steps followed to recover computer systems after an incident are:
A. System restoration, validation, operation and monitoring
B. System restoration, operation, validation, and monitoring
C. System monitoring, validation, operation and restoration
D. System validation, restoration, operation and monitoring
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
CERT members can provide critical support services to first responders such as:
A. Immediate assistance to victims
B. Consolidated automated service process management platform
C. Organizing spontaneous volunteers at a disaster site
D. A + C
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Computer Forensics is the branch of forensic science in which legal evidence is found in any computer or any digital
media device. Of the following, who is responsible for examining the evidence acquired and separating the useful
evidence?
A. Evidence Supervisor
B. Evidence Documenter
C. Evidence Manager
D. Evidence Examiner/ Investigator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
An incident is analyzed for its nature, intensity and its effects on the network and systems. Which stage of the incident
response and handling process involves auditing the system and network log files?
A. Incident recording
B. Reporting
C. Containment
D. Identification
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
An audit trail policy collects all audit trails such as series of records of computer events, about an operating system,
application or user activities. Which of the following statements is NOT true for an audit trail policy:
A. It helps calculating intangible losses to the organization due to incident
B. It helps tracking individual actions and allows users to be personally accountable for their actions
C. It helps in compliance to various regulatory laws, rules,and guidelines
D. It helps in reconstructing the events after a problem has occurred
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Which of the following is NOT one of the techniques used to respond to insider threats:
A. Placing malicious users in quarantine network, so that attack cannot be spread
B. Preventing malicious users from accessing unclassified information
C. Disabling the computer systems from network connection
D. Blocking malicious user accounts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT one of the common techniques used to detect Insider threats:
A. Spotting an increase in their performance
B. Observing employee tardiness and unexplained absenteeism
C. Observing employee sick leaves
D. Spotting conflicts with supervisors and coworkers
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
The USB tool (depicted below) that is connected to a male USB Keyboard cable and not detected by anti-spyware tools
is most likely called:

212-89 exam questions-q11

A. Software Key Grabber
B. Hardware Keylogger
C. USB adapter
D. Anti-Keylogger
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
In which of the steps of NIST\\’s risk assessment methodology are the boundary of the IT system, along with the
resources and the information that constitute the system identified?
A. Likelihood Determination
B. Control recommendation
C. System characterization
D. Control analysis
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
The service organization that provides 24×7 computer security incident response services to any user, company,
the government agency or organization is known as:
A. Computer Security Incident Response Team CSIRT
B. Security Operations Center SOC
C. Digital Forensics Examiner
D. Vulnerability Assessor
Correct Answer: A

 

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Exam AZ-204: Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Developer Associate

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You plan to create a Docker image that runs as ASP.NET Core application named ContosoApp. You have a setup script
named setupScript.ps1 and a series of application files including ContosoApp.dll.
You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements:
Call setupScript.ps1 when the container is built.
Run ContosoApp.dll when the container starts.
The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setupScript.ps1 are stored.
Which four commands should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate commands from the
list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

az-204 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

az-204 exam questions-q1-2

Step 1: WORKDIR /apps/ContosoApp
Step 2: COPY ./The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setupScript.ps1
are stored.
Step 3: EXPOSE ./ContosApp/ /app/ContosoApp
Step 4: CMD powershell ./setupScript.ps1
ENTRYPOINT [“dotnet”, “ContosoApp.dll”]
You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements:
Call setupScript.ps1 when the container is built.
Run ContosoApp.dll when the container starts.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/containers/tutorial-custom-docker-image

QUESTION 2
You are developing a software solution for an autonomous transportation system. The solution uses large data sets and
Azure Batch processing to simulate navigation sets for entire fleets of vehicles.
You need to create compute nodes for the solution on Azure Batch.
What should you do?
A. In the Azure portal, add a Job to a Batch account.
B. In a .NET method, call the method: BatchClient.PoolOperations.CreateJob
C. In Python, implement the class: JobAddParameter
D. In Azure CLI, run the command: az batch pool create
E. In a .NET method, call the method: BatchClient.pool operations.CreatePool
F. In Python, implement the class: TaskAddParameter
G. In the Azure CLI, run the command: az batch account create
Correct Answer: B
A Batch job is a logical grouping of one or more tasks. A job includes settings common to the tasks, such as priority and
the pool to run tasks on. The app uses BatchClient.JobOperations.CreateJob method to create a job on your pool.
Note:
Step 1: Create a pool of compute nodes. When you create a pool, you specify the number of compute nodes for the
pool, their size, and the operating system. When each task in your job runs, it\\’s assigned to execute on one of the
nodes in
your pool.
Step 2: Create a job. A job manages a collection of tasks. You associate each job to a specific pool where that job\\’s
tasks will run.
Step 3: Add tasks to the job. Each task runs the application or script that you uploaded to process the data files it
downloads from your Storage account. As each task completes, it can upload its output to Azure Storage.
Incorrect Answers:
C, F: To create a Batch pool in Python, the app uses the PoolAddParameter class to set the number of nodes, VM size,
and a pool configuration.
E: BatchClient.PoolOperations does not have a CreateJob method.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/quick-run-dotnet https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/batch/quick-run-python

QUESTION 3
You are developing an internal website for employees to view sensitive data. The website uses Azure Active Directory
(AAD) for authentication.
You need to implement multifactor authentication for the website.
What should you do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Upgrade to Azure AD Premium.
B. In Azure AD conditional access, enable the baseline policy.
C. In Azure AD, create a new conditional access policy.
D. In Azure AD, enable application proxy.
E. Configure the website to use Azure AD B2C.
Correct Answer: AC
A: Multi-Factor Authentication comes as part of the following offerings:
Azure Active Directory Premium licenses – Full featured use of Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Service (Cloud) or
Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server (On-premises).
Multi-Factor Authentication for Office 365
Azure Active Directory Global Administrators
C: MFA Enabled by conditional access policy. It is the most flexible means to enable two-step verification for your users.
Enabling using conditional access policy only works for Azure MFA in the cloud and is a premium feature of Azure AD.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-getstarted

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You are developing an Azure Service application that processes queue data when it receives a message from a mobile
application. Messages may not be sent to the service consistently.
You have the following requirements:
Queue size must not grow larger than 80 gigabytes (GB).
Use first-in-first-out (FIFO) ordering of messages.
Minimize Azure costs.
You need to implement the messaging solution.
Solution: Use the .Net API to add a message to an Azure Storage Queue from the mobile application. Create an Azure
VM that is triggered by Azure Storage Queue events.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Don\\’t use a VM, instead create an Azure Function App that uses an Azure Service Bus Queue trigger.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-create-storage-queue-triggered-function

QUESTION 5
You develop a website. You plan to host the website in Azure. You expect the website to experience high traffic
volumes after it is published.
You must ensure that the website remains available and responsive while minimizing cost.
You need to deploy the website.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the website to a virtual machine. Configure the virtual machine to automatically scale when the CPU load is
high.
B. Deploy the website to an App Service that uses the Shared service tier. Configure the App service plan to
automatically scale when the CPU load is high.
C. Deploy the website to an App Service that uses the Standard service tier. Configure the App service plan to
automatically scale when the CPU load is high.
D. Deploy the website to a virtual machine. Configure a Scale Set to increase the virtual machine instance count when
the CPU load is high.
Correct Answer: C
Windows Azure Web Sites (WAWS) offers 3 modes: Standard, Free, and Shared.
Standard mode carries an enterprise-grade SLA (Service Level Agreement) of 99.9% monthly, even for sites with just
one instance.
Standard mode runs on dedicated instances, making it different from the other ways to buy Windows Azure Web Sites.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Shared and Free modes do not offer the scaling flexibility of Standard, and they have some important limits.
Shared mode, just as the name states, also uses shared Compute resources, and also has a CPU limit. So, while
neither Free nor Shared is likely to be the best choice for your production environment due to these limits.

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You are deploying an Azure Kubernetes Services (AKS) cluster that will use multiple containers
You need to create the cluster and verify that the services for the containers are configured correctly and available.
Which four commands should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate command segments
from the list of command segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

az-204 exam questions-q6

QUESTION 7
You are writing code to create and run an Azure Batch job.
You have created a pool of compute nodes.
You need to choose the right class and its method to submit a batch job to the Batch service.
Which method should you use?
A. JobOperations.EnableJobAsync(String, IEnumerable,CancellationToken)
B. JobOperations.CreateJob()
C. CloudJob.Enable(IEnumerable)
D. JobOperations.EnableJob(String, IEnumerable)
E. CloudJob.CommitAsync(IEnumerable, CancellationToken)
Correct Answer: E
A Batch job is a logical grouping of one or more tasks. A job includes settings common to the tasks, such as priority and
the pool to run tasks on. The app uses BatchClient.JobOperations.CreateJob method to create a job on your pool.
The Commit method submits the job to the Batch service. Initially, the job has no tasks.
{
CloudJob job = batchClient.JobOperations.CreateJob();
job.Id = JobId;
job.PoolInformation = new PoolInformation { PoolId = PoolId };
job.Commit();
}

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/quick-run-dotnet

QUESTION 8
Your company is developing an Azure API.
You need to implement authentication for the Azure API. You have the following requirements:
All API calls must be secure.
Callers to the API must not send credentials to the API.
Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Basic
B. Anonymous
C. Managed identity
D. Client certificate
Correct Answer: C
Use the authentication-managed-identity policy to authenticate with a backend service using the managed identity of the
API Management service. This policy essentially uses the managed identity to obtain an access token from Azure Active
Directory for accessing the specified resource. After successfully obtaining the token, the policy will set the value of the
token in the Authorization header using the Bearer scheme.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/api-management/api-management-authentication-policies

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You are developing an application to use Azure Blob storage. You have configured Azure Blob storage to include
change feeds.
A copy of your storage account must be created in another region. Data must be copied from the current storage
account to the new storage account directly between the storage servers.
You need to create a copy of the storage account in another region and copy the data.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

az-204 exam questions-q9

Move data to the new storage account.
Delete the resources in the source region.
Note: You must enable the change feed on your storage account to begin capturing and recording changes. You can
enable and disable changes by using Azure Resource Manager templates on Portal or Powershell.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-account-move
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-change-feed

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You are developing a back-end Azure App Service that scales based on the number of messages contained in a
Service Bus queue.
A rule already exists to scale up the App Service when the average queue length of unprocessed and valid queue
messages is greater than 1000.
You need to add a new rule that will continuously scale down the App Service as long as the scale up condition is not
met.
How should you configure the Scale rule? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-204 exam questions-q10

Correct Answer:

az-204 exam questions-q10-2

Box 1: Service bus queue
You are developing a back-end Azure App Service that scales based on the number of messages contained in a
Service Bus queue.
Box 2: ActiveMessage Count
ActiveMessageCount: Messages in the queue or subscription that are in the active state and ready for delivery.
Box 3: Count
Box 4: Less than or equal to
You need to add a new rule that will continuously scale down the App Service as long as the scale up condition is not
met.
Box 5: Decrease count by


QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You are developing a ticket reservation system for an airline.
The storage solution for the application must meet the following requirements:
Ensure at least 99.99% availability and provide low latency.
Accept reservations event when localized network outages or other unforeseen failures occur.
Process reservations in the exact sequence as reservations are submitted to minimize overbooking or selling the same
seat to multiple travelers.
Allow simultaneous and out-of-order reservations with a maximum five-second tolerance window.
You provision a resource group named airlineResourceGroup in the Azure South-Central US region.
You need to provision a SQL SPI Cosmos DB account to support the app.
How should you complete the Azure CLI commands? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area

az-204 exam questions-q11

az-204 exam questions-q11-2

Box 1: BoundedStaleness
Bounded staleness: The reads are guaranteed to honor the consistent-prefix guarantee. The reads might lag behind
writes by at most “K” versions (that is, “updates”) of an item or by “T” time interval. In other words, when you choose
bounded staleness, the “staleness” can be configured in two ways:
The number of versions (K) of the item
The time interval (T) by which the reads might lag behind the writes
Incorrect Answers:
Strong
Strong consistency offers a linearizability guarantee. Linearizability refers to serving requests concurrently. The reads
are guaranteed to return the most recent committed version of an item. A client never sees an uncommitted or partial
write.
Users are always guaranteed to read the latest committed write.
Box 2: –enable-automatic-failover true\
For multi-region Cosmos accounts that are configured with a single-write region, enable automatic-failover by using
Azure CLI or Azure portal. After you enable automatic failover, whenever there is a regional disaster, Cosmos DB will
automatically failover your account.

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are building a traffic monitoring system that monitors traffic along six highways. The system produces time series
analysis-based reports for each highway. Data from traffic sensors are stored in Azure Event Hub.
Traffic data is consumed by four departments. Each department has an Azure Web App that displays the time-seriesbased reports and contains a WebJob that processes the incoming data from Event Hub. All Web Apps run on App
Service
Plans with three instances.
Data throughout must be maximized. Latency must be minimized.
You need to implement the Azure Event Hub.
Which settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-204 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

az-204 exam questions-q12-2

Box 1: 6
The number of partitions is specified at creation and must be between 2 and 32.
There are 6 highways.
Box 2: Highway
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/event-hubs-features

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You need to secure the Shipping Function app.
How should you configure the app? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-204 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

az-204 exam questions-q13-2

Scenario: Shipping Function app: Implement secure function endpoints by using app-level security and include Azure
Active Directory (Azure AD). Box 1: Function Box 2: JSON based Token (JWT) Azure AD uses JSON based tokens
(JWTs) that contain claims Box 3: HTTP How a web app delegates sign-in to Azure AD and obtains a token User
authentication happens via the browser. The OpenID protocol uses standard HTTP protocol messages. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/authentication-scenarios

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QUESTION 1
Universal Containers has an upcoming maintenance window where read-only access will be available
Which two actions will Universal Containers be able to perform during this window? Choose 2 answers
A. Run and view Salesforce reports
B. Post report information on Chatter
C. Update case data for a customer
D. Review existing cases for an account
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 2
A Consultant arrives for a requirements workshop, but key resources are absent. What is the likely reason the key
resources are absent?
A. The proper roles, resources, and risks were not identified.
B. The resources were not on the Project Kick-off
C. The purpose and scope were not defined
D. The project plan did not receive sign-off
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A new support center has only one part-time Service Rep. Which step should a Consultant take to ensure that Case
Aging is tracked accurately?
A. Let the Service Rep change the Business Hours on the Case
B. User a time-dependent Workflow Rule to update Case Status
C. Use an Escalation Rule to assign open Cases to another user
D. Let the service Rep enter the appropriate Case age Value
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The Forecast Category on the Opportunity record maps directly, on a one-to-one basis, to the aggregates on the Forecast tab.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
The sales representatives at Universal containers use various email applications and often receive important customer
emails while they are away from the office. Sales management wants to ensure sales representatives are recording
email activity with customers in salesforce while they are away from the office.
What should a consultant recommend to meet this requirement?
A. Download and install a salesforce universal connector for their smartphone and computers
B. Copy and paste emails manually to the customer record in Salesforce from their smartphones and computers
C. Download and install the salesforce for outlook connector on their smartphones and computers
D. Forward emails using their email-to-salesforce email address from their smartphones and computers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Cloud Kicks requires sales associates to record all activities within Salesforce. Which sales metric can be derived from
these activities?
A. Close Rate
B. Close Rate
C. Rate of Contact
D. Marketing Influence
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Universal Containers is devising a separate sales methodology to upsell service contracts to its existing customer base.
The company would like to track and report on these deals separately from other deals. What should a consultant
recommend to meet this requirement?
A. Add upsell as a stage and create a summary report by opportunity stage
B. Create an opportunity record type and sales process for reporting on these deals
C. Create separate page layout and report to flag and report on these deals
D. Create a customer filed on opportunity to flag and report on these deals.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which two areas can an Administrator make Open CTI features available to users when building a Lightning App using
the App Manager? Choose 2 answer
A. On utility bar of the Lightning App
B. On a record Highlights Panel
C. On a record Activity Feed List
D. On the Calendar right hand panel
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Territory mgt is enabled. Users should be able to track account plans for each account they have access to
A. Create lookup relationship account -> account plan
B. Create master detail relationship account -> account plan
C. Review territory mananagement settings
D. Validation rule
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Universal Containers wants to implement a website for a new product launch. The site should be publicly available,
allow visitors to submit requests for information, and be managed by the non-technical marketing team. Which solution
should the consultant recommend?
A. Lightning Platform
B. Salesforce Mobile Sites
C. Lightning Components
D. Customer Community
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Cloud Kicks has three unique product lines, each with a unique sales cycle. Prospect qualification is consistent across
the product lines; sales representatives then follow the specific product line\\’s sales cicle Which two actions should a
Consultant recommend to achieve these requirements? Choose 2 answers
A. Define the default opportunity teams for each opportunity record type.
B. Define sales stages that align with opportunity record types.
C. Create sales process to map to each opportunity record type
D. Create opportunity record types for each sales process.
E. Create public groups for each opportunity sale process.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 12
A Salesforce partner regularly works with Salesforce Account Executives to close deals with clients that are looking for a
partner to implement Sales Cloud. As new partner sales reps are on-boarded, they spend quite a bit of time trying to
determine which Account Executive maps to which Accounts and Opportunities. What should the Consultant
recommend when rolling this out?
A. Add a Lookup field on the Opportunity to indicate Partner Executives
B. Add the Title field to all Contact Layout
C. Implement Account Contact Roles
D. Implement Account Partner Roles
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Universal Containers was bought by a larger company and needs to provide information on a monthly basis to the new
parent company to help predict sales. Which data should the new parent company review?
A. Dashboard of user login history
B. Count of new lead records created
C. Number of activities tied to opportunities
D. Opportunity pipeline report grouped by month
Correct Answer: D

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  • Exam Code: C_TADM54_75
  • Certification Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate
  • Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate – System Administration (SAP ASE) with SAP NetWeaver 7.5
  • NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 209
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SAP Certified Technology Associate C_TADM54_75 exam dumps practice questions

QUESTION 1
You are running an AS Java-based SAP system. You are maintaining local settings using the Visual Administrator.
These settings become effective immediately. You want to make sure that the new settings are still valid after the next
restart of your system. How do you fulfill this requirement? Please choose the correct answer.
A. No further steps are necessary in this scenario.
B. Mark check box “Activate in profile”.
C. Maintain the same settings in the global settings using the Visual Administrator.
D. Maintain the same settings in the Config Tool.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
For an AS ABAP+Java system, the SAP Web Dispatcher communicates with which of the following?
A. Both the ABAP and Java message server
B. The Java message server
C. The ABAP message server
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which statements are correct for RDBMS? There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Manage large amounts of data in a multiuser environment so that many users can concurrently access the same
data.
B. Control access to data in terms of security, using its own user authorization concept
C. Maintain relationships between data
D. Recover data to point of known consstency n the event of a system failure
E. Deliver high performance for processing of data requests
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements regarding the functions offered by CCMS-based monitoring are true? There are 2
correct answers to this question.
A. It is possible to monitor more than one SAP system by using the functions offered by CCMS monitoring.
B. Correctly configured threshold values to be used for monitoring purposes can be switched by using operation
modes.
C. You need a special key (generated within SAP Solution Manager) to create your own monitor definitions in
transaction RZ20.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 5
What can be done with a maintenance transaction? Choose the correct answer(s).
A. Import Support Packages.
B. Calculate Support Package Stacks for your SAP systems.
C. Approve objects in your download basket.
D. Import SAP Notes.
E. Import SAP enhancement packages
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
Which ABAP software components are installed during the installation of an SAP ECC 6.0 system? You find those in
System -> Status of your SAP ECC 6.0 system. There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. SAP_CRM
B. SAP_HR
C. SAP_APPL
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
What catch-phrase best describes SAP\\’s software maintenance strategy? Please choose the correct answer.
A. “3-3-1 maintenance”
B. “5-1-2 maintenance”
C. “4-2-2 maintenance”
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which work process types are there in an AS ABAP system? (More than one answers are true)
A. Update work process
B. Enqueue work process
C. Background work process
D. Message Server
E. Dialog work process
F. Spool work process
G. Internet Communication Manager (ICM)
Correct Answer: ABCEF
https://help.sap.com/saphelp_nw70/helpdata/en/05/0e41e6ba5911d188b20000e83539c3/frameset.htm


QUESTION 9
You have configured the connection between the User Management of an AS ABAPbased system and a Directory
Server via LDAP. From where can you start the synchronization of user data between these environments? Please
choose the correct answer.
A. From the environment where the user has been created
B. Always from the SAP system
C. Always from the Directory Server
D. As defined in customizing in transaction LDAP (Directory Service Connection)
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
You would like to install an SAP ECC system. Which of the following components can be installed in a separate
installation procedure? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The central instance
B. The database instance
C. An Internet Communication Manager
D. The standalone message server
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 11
How can you determine the patch level of your AS ABAP-based SAP system – concerning the current patch level of the
applied Support Packages? There are 2 correct answers to this question Response:
A. You can access this information by using the information that can be found under the menu path “System ->Status”.
B. Calling “disp+work -v” or “dw -v” (depending on the operating system) will give you this information.
C. You can find this information by using the transaction “PATCH”.
D. You can find that information within the transaction “SPAM”.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements regarding the monitoring of an AS ABAP + Java system are true, when you are using
a separate central monitoring system? Please choose the correct answer
A. For monitoring an AS ABAP + Java-based SAP system, you will use the agent SAPCCMSR for monitoring the AS
Java.
B. The central monitoring system must be of a higher SAP release of the monitored SAP system.
C. Central monitoring of AS ABAP + Java-based SAP systems can only be carried out using a separate AS ABAP +
Java-based SAP system.
D. The central monitoring system must have the System ID “CEN”.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which applications/solutions are parts of SAP Business Suite? There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. SAP CRM
B. SAP Business One
C. SAP SOA
D. SAP SRM
E. SAP ERP
Correct Answer: ADE

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QUESTION 1
What Is the FIRST step in establishing an information security program?
A. Establish an information security policy.
B. Identify factors affecting information security.
C. Establish baseline security controls.
D. Identify critical security infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Intellectual property rights are PRIMARY concerned with which of the following?
A. Owner\\’s ability to realize financial gain
B. Owner\\’s ability to maintain copyright
C. Right of the owner to enjoy their creation
D. Right of the owner to control delivery method
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a characteristic of the initialization vector when using Data Encryption Standard (DES)?
A. It must be known to both sender and receiver.
B. It can be transmitted in the clear as a random number.
C. It must be retained until the last block is transmitted.
D. It can be used to encrypt and decrypt information.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
The PRIMARY outcome of a certification process is that it provides documented
A. interconnected systems and their implemented security controls.
B. standards for security assessment, testing, and process evaluation.
C. system weakness for remediation.
D. security analyses needed to make a risk-based decision.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Which area of embedded devices are most commonly attacked?
A. Application
B. Firmware
C. Protocol
D. Physical Interface
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is generating alarms that a user account has over 100 failed login attempts per
minute. A sniffer is placed on the network, and a variety of passwords for that user are noted. Which of the following is
MOST likely occurring?
A. A dictionary attack
B. A Denial of Service (DoS) attack
C. A spoofing attack
D. A backdoor installation
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
When using third-party software developers, which of the following is the MOST effective method of providing software
development Quality Assurance (QA)?
A. Retain intellectual property rights through contractual wording.
B. Perform overlapping code reviews by both parties.
C. Verify that the contractors attend development planning meetings.
D. Create a separate contractor development environment.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
[Miss the Question]
A. Verify the camera\\’s log for recent logins outside of the Internet Technology (IT) department.
B. Verify the security and encryption protocol the camera uses.
C. Verify the security camera requires authentication to log into the management console.
D. Verify the most recent firmware version is installed on the camera.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?
A. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity
B. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving
C. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security
D. Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which of the following MUST system and database administrators be aware of and apply when configuring systems
used for storing personal employee data?
A. Secondary use of the data by business users
B. The organization\\’s security policies and standards
C. The business purpose for which the data is to be used
D. The overall protection of corporate resources and data
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
How does an organization verify that an information system\\’s current hardware and software match the standard
system configuration?
A. By reviewing the configuration after the system goes into production
B. By running vulnerability scanning tools on all devices in the environment
C. By comparing the actual configuration of the system against the baseline
D. By verifying all the approved security patches are implemented
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
A company receives an email threat informing of an Imminent Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack targeting its
web application, unless ransom is paid. Which of the following techniques BEST addresses that threat?
A. Deploying load balancers to distribute inbound traffic across multiple data centers
B. Set Up Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) to filter out malicious traffic
C. Implementing reverse web-proxies to validate each new inbound connection
D. Coordinate with and utilize capabilities within Internet Service Provider (ISP)
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification handles the management of security tokens and the
underlying policies for granting access? Click on the correct specification in the image below.
Hot Area:

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QUESTION 1
A company has monthly scheduled windows for patching servers and applying configuration changes. Out-of-window
changes can be done, but they are discouraged unless absolutely necessary. The systems administrator is reviewing
the weekly vulnerability scan report that was just released. Which of the following vulnerabilities should the administrator
fix without waiting for the next scheduled change window?
A. The administrator should fix dns (53/tcp). BIND `NAMED\\’ is an open-source DNS server from ISC.org. The BINDbased NAMED server (or DNS servers) allow remote users to query for version and type information.
B. The administrator should fix smtp (25/tcp). The remote SMTP server is insufficiently protected against relaying. This
means spammers might be able to use the company\\’s mail server to send their emails to the world.
C. The administrator should fix http (80/tcp). An information leak occurs on Apache web servers with the UserDir
module enabled, allowing an attacker to enumerate accounts by requesting access to home directories and monitoring
the response.
D. The administrator should fix http (80/tcp). The `greeting.cgi\\’ script is installed. This CGI has a well-known security
flaw that lets anyone execute arbitrary commands with the privileges of the http daemon.
E. The administrator should fix general/tcp. The remote host does not discard TCP SYN packets that have the FIN flag
set. Depending on the kind of firewall a company is using, an attacker may use this flaw to bypass its rules.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A company has a popular shopping cart website hosted geographically diverse locations. The company has started
hosting static content on a content delivery network (CDN) to improve performance. The CDN provider has reported the
company is occasionally sending attack traffic to other CDN-hosted targets.
Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?
A. The CDN provider has mistakenly performed a GeoIP mapping to the company.
B. The CDN provider has misclassified the network traffic as hostile.
C. A vulnerability scan has tuned to exclude web assets hosted by the CDN.
D. The company has been breached, and customer PII is being exfiltrated to the CDN.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
A technician is running an intensive vulnerability scan to detect which ports are open to exploit. During the scan, several
network services are disabled and production is affected. Which of the following sources would be used to evaluate
which network service was interrupted?
A. Syslog
B. Network mapping
C. Firewall logs
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A cybersecurity analyst has several SIEM event logs to review for possible APT activity. The analyst was given several
items that include lists of indicators for both IP addresses and domains. Which of the following actions is the BEST
approach for the analyst to perform?
A. Use the IP addresses to search through the event logs.
B. Analyze the trends of the events while manually reviewing to see if any of the indicators match.
C. Create an advanced query that includes all of the indicators, and review any of the matches.
D. Scan for vulnerabilities with exploits known to have been used by an APT.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
SIMULATION
The developers recently deployed new code to three web servers. A daily automated external device scan report shows
server vulnerabilities that are failing items according to PCI DSS.
If the vulnerability is not valid, the analyst must take the proper steps to get the scan clean.
If the vulnerability is valid, the analyst must remediate the finding.
After reviewing the information provided in the network diagram, select the STEP 2 tab to complete the simulation by
selecting the correct Validation Result and Remediation Action for each server listed using the drop-down options.
Instructions
STEP 1: Review the information provided in the network diagram.
STEP 2: Given the scenario, determine which remediation action is required to address the vulnerability.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button.

Certificationvce CS0-001 exam questions-q5

Certificationvce CS0-001 exam questions-q5-2

Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation.
WEB_SERVER01: VALID – IMPLEMENT SSL/TLS
WEB_SERVER02: VALID – SET SECURE ATTRIBUTE WHEN COOKIE SHOULD SENT VIA HTTPS ONLY
WEB_SERVER03: VALID – IMPLEMENT CA SIGNED CERTIFICATE

QUESTION 6
Which of the following remediation strategies are MOST effective in reducing the risk of a network-based compromise of
embedded ICS? (Select two.)
A. Patching
B. NIDS
C. Segmentation
D. Disabling unused services
E. Firewalling
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 7
A business recently installed a kiosk that is running on a hardened operating system as a restricted user. The kiosk user
application is the only application that is allowed to run. A security analyst gets a report that pricing data is being
modified on the server, and management wants to know how this is happening. After reviewing the logs, the analyst
discovers the root account from the kiosk is accessing the files. After validating the permissions on the server, the
analyst confirms the permissions from the kiosk do not allow to write to the server data.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the pricing data modifications on the server?
A. Data on the server is not encrypted, allowing users to change the pricing data.
B. The kiosk user account has execute permissions on the server data files.
C. Customers are logging off the kiosk and guessing the root account password.
D. Customers are escaping the application shell and gaining root-level access.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
A security analyst is performing a stealth black-box audit of the local WiFi network and is running a wireless sniffer to
capture local WiFi network traffic from a specific wireless access point. The SSID is not appearing in the sniffing logs of
the local wireless network traffic. Which of the following is the best action that should be performed NEXT to determine
the SSID?
A. Set up a fake wireless access point
B. Power down the wireless access point
C. Deauthorize users of that access point
D. Spoof the MAC addresses of adjacent access points
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
In comparison to non-industrial IT vendors, ICS equipment vendors generally:
A. rely less on proprietary code in their hardware products.
B. have more mature software development models.
C. release software updates less frequently.
D. provide more expensive vulnerability reporting.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which of the following actions should occur to address any open issues while closing an incident involving various
departments within the network?
A. Incident response plan
B. Lessons learned report
C. Reverse engineering process
D. Chain of custody documentation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A vulnerability scan returned the following results for a web server that hosts multiple wiki sites:
Apache-HTTPD-cve-2014-023: Apache HTTPD: mod_cgid denial of service CVE-2014-0231
Due to a flaw found in mog_cgid, a server using mod_cgid to host CGI scripts could be vulnerable to a DoS attack
caused by a remote attacker who is exploiting a weakness in non-standard input, causing processes to hang
indefinitely.

Certificationvce CS0-001 exam questions-q11

The security analyst has confirmed the server hosts standard CGI scripts for the wiki sites, does not have mod_cgid
installed, is running Apache 2.2.22, and is not behind a WAF. The server is located in the DMZ, and the purpose of the
server is to allow customers to add entries into a publicly accessible database.
Which of the following would be the MOST efficient way to address this finding?
A. Place the server behind a WAF to prevent DoS attacks from occurring.
B. Document the finding as a false positive.
C. Upgrade to the newest version of Apache.
D. Disable the HTTP service and use only HTTPS to access the server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Joe, an analyst, has received notice that a vendor who is coming in for a presentation will require access to a server
outside the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. Which of the
following should Joe use to BEST accommodate the vendor?
A. Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor\\’s IP address.
B. Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
C. Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following countermeasures should the security administrator apply to MOST effectively mitigate Bootkitlevel infections of the organization\\’s workstation devices?
A. Remove local administrator privileges.
B. Configure a BIOS-level password on the device.
C. Install a secondary virus protection application.
D. Enforce a system state recovery after each device reboot.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle PL/SQL Developer Certified Associate
Exam Code: 1Z0-071
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c SQL
Updated: Jun 10, 2020
Q&As: 380

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Oracle 1Z0-071 Exam Video Practice Test

Oracle PL/SQL Developer Certified Associate 1Z0-071 Exam Practice Test (Real Exam Questions)

QUESTION 1
Examine the structure of the MARKS table:

Certificationvce 1Z0-071 exam questions-q1

Which two statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT SUM(DISTINCT NVL(subject1,0)), MAX(subject1) FROM marks WHERE subject1 > subject2;
B. SELECT student_name subject1 FROM marks WHERE subject1 > AVG(subject1);
C. SELECT SUM(subject1+subject2+subject3) FROM marks WHERE student_name IS NULL;
D. SELECT student_name,SUM(subject1) FROM marks WHERE student_name LIKE `R%\\’;
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
View the exhibit and examine the data in the PROJ_TASK_DETAILS table. (Choose the best answer.)

Certificationvce 1Z0-071 exam questions-q2

The PROJ_TASK_DETAILS table stores information about project tasks and the relation between them.
The BASED_ON column indicates dependencies between tasks.
Some tasks do not depend on the completion of other tasks.
You must generate a report listing all task IDs, the task ID of any task upon which it depends and the name of the
employee in charge of the task upon which it depends.
Which query would give the required result?
A. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge FROM proj_task_details p JOIN proj_task_details d ON (p.task_id
= d.task_id);
B. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge FROM proj_task_details p FULL OUTER JOIN proj_task_details d
ON (p.based_on = d.task_id);
C. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge FROM proj_task_details p JOIN proj_task_details d ON
(p.based_on = d.task_id);
D. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge FROM proj_task_details p LEFT OUTER JOIN proj_task_details d
ON (p.based_on = d.task_id);
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which three are true about multitable INSERT statements?
A. They can be performed on external tables using SQL* Loader.
B. They can be performed on relational tables.
C. They can be performed only by using a subquery.
D. They can insert each computed row into more than one table.
E. They can be performed on views.
F. They can be performed on remote tables.
Correct Answer: ABC
Reference: https://www.akadia.com/services/ora_multitable_insert.html

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about the SET VERIFY ON command? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used in SQL Developer and SQL*Plus
B. It displays values for variables used only in the WHERE clause of a query
C. It can be used only in SQL*Plus
D. It displays values for variables prefixed with andand
E. It displays values for variables created by the DEFINE command
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/opal/sqlplus-101-substitution-variables#4_1_8

QUESTION 5
Examine the description of the PROMOTIONS table:

Certificationvce 1Z0-071 exam questions-q5

You want to display the unique promotion costs in each promotion category. Which two queries can be used? (Choose
two.)
A. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category || ` has \\’ || promo_cost AS COSTS FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
B. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
C. SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 2;
D. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost ||` in \\’|| DISTINCT promo_category FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
E. SELECT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which three are key components of an Entity Relationship Model? (Choose three.)
A. an activity
B. a table
C. a relationship
D. an attribute
E. a unique identifier
F. an entity
Correct Answer: CDF
The three main components of the ER Model are entities, attributes and relationships.
Reference: https://www.dlsweb.rmit.edu.au/Toolbox/knowmang/content/data_concepts/e_r_model.htm

QUESTION 7
Which three are true about system and object privileges? (Choose three.)
A. WITH GRANT OPTION can be used when granting an object privilege to both users and roles
B. Adding a primary key constraint to an existing table in another schema requires a system privilege
C. Adding a foreign key constraint pointing to a table in another schema requires the REFERENCES object privilege
D. Revoking a system privilege that was granted with WITH ADMIN OPTION has a cascading effect
E. Revoking an object privilege that was granted with the WITH GRANT OPTION clause has a cascading effect.
F. WITH GRANT OPTION cannot be used when granting an object privilege to PUBLIC
Correct Answer: ACE
Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/network.111/b28531/authorization.htm#DBSEG004

QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of ORDERS and CUSTOMERS tables. (Choose the best answer.)

Certificationvce 1Z0-071 exam questions-q8

You executed this UPDATE statement:

Certificationvce 1Z0-071 exam questions-q8-2

Which statement is true regarding the execution?
A. It would not execute because a subquery cannot be used in the WHERE clause of an UPDATE statement.
B. It would not execute because two tables cannot be referenced in a single UPDATE statement.
C. It would execute and restrict modifications to the columns specified in the SELECT statement.
D. It would not execute because a SELECT statement cannot be used in place of a table name.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
These are the steps for a correlated subquery, listed in random order:
1.
The WHERE clause of the outer query is evaluated.
2.
A candidate row is fetched from the table specified in the outer query.
3.
This is repeated for the subsequent rows of the table, until all the rows are processed.
4.
Rows are returned by the inner query, after being evaluated with the value from the candidate row in the outer query.
Which is the correct sequence in which the Oracle server evaluates a correlated subquery?
A. 2, 1, 4, 3
B. 4, 1, 2, 3
C. 4, 2, 1, 3
D. 2, 4, 1, 3
Correct Answer: D
References: http://rajanimohanty.blogspot.co.uk/2014/01/correlated-subquery.html

QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION and INVENTORIES tables.

Certificationvce 1Z0-071 exam questions-q10

You have a requirement from the supplies department to give a list containing PRODUCT_ID, SUPPLIER_ID, and
QUANTITY_ON_HAND for all the products wherein QUANTITY_ON_HAND is less than five.
Which two SQL statements can accomplish the task? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT i.product_id, i.quantity_on_hand, pi.supplier_id FROM product_information pi JOIN inventories i ON
(pi.product_id=i.product_id) WHERE quantity_on_hand
B. SELECT product_id, quantity_on_hand, supplier_id FROM product_information NATURAL JOIN inventories AND
quantity_on_hand
C. SELECT i.product_id, i.quantity_on_hand, pi.supplier_id FROM product_information pi JOIN inventories i ON
(pi.product_id=i.product_id) AND quantity_on_hand
D. SELECT i.product_id, i.quantity_on_hand, pi.supplier_id FROM product_information pi JOIN inventories i USING
(product_id) AND quantity_on_hand
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Examine the structure of the SALES table.

Certificationvce 1Z0-071 exam questions-q11

Which two statements are true about the SALES1 table? (Choose two.)
A. It will not be created because the column-specified names in the SELECT and CREATE TABLE clauses do not
match.
B. It will have NOT NULL constraints on the selected columns which had those constraints in the SALES table.
C. It will not be created because of the invalid WHERE clause.
D. It is created with no rows.
E. It has PRIMARY KEY and UNIQUE constraints on the selected columns which had those constraints in the SALES
table.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
In the customers table, the CUST_CITY column contains the value \\’Paris\\’ for the CUST_FIRST_NAME \\’Abigail\\’.
Evaluate the following query:

Certificationvce 1Z0-071 exam questions-q12

What would be the outcome?
A. Abigail PA
B. Abigail Pa
C. Abigail IS
D. An error message
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You need to calculate the number of days from 1st January 2019 until today.
Dates are stored in the default format of DD-MON-RR.
Which two queries give the required output?
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(SYSDATE, ‘DD-MON-YYYY
Correct Answer: A

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