Pass4itsure is Part of A Recommended Learning Path from New Exam Systems That Combines Instructor-led Training with Hands-on Instruction, E-Learning and Self-Study.
A best online resource to prepare for the EC-COUNCIL 212-89 exam: latest 212-89 practice test. The latest 212-89 exam dumps pdf. Pass4itsure full 212-89 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/212-89.html (Total Questions: 163 Q&A 212-89 Dumps Pdf) can help you pass your first exam!
New 2021 EC-COUNCIL 212-89 dumps pdf from google drive (Update Questions)
New EC-COUNCIL 212-89 exam practice questions(q1-q13)
QUESTION 1 ___________________ record(s) user\\’s typing. A. Spyware B. adware C. Virus D. Malware Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 The role that applies appropriate technology and tries to eradicate and recover from the incident is known as: A. Incident Manager B. Incident Analyst C. Incident Handler D. Incident coordinator Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Risk management consists of three processes, risk assessment, mitigation, and evaluation. The risk assessment determines the extent of the potential threat and the risk associated with an IT system through its SDLC. How many primary steps does NIST\\’s risk assessment methodology involve? A. Twelve B. Four C. Six D. Nine Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 The steps followed to recover computer systems after an incident are: A. System restoration, validation, operation and monitoring B. System restoration, operation, validation, and monitoring C. System monitoring, validation, operation and restoration D. System validation, restoration, operation and monitoring Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 CERT members can provide critical support services to first responders such as: A. Immediate assistance to victims B. Consolidated automated service process management platform C. Organizing spontaneous volunteers at a disaster site D. A + C Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Computer Forensics is the branch of forensic science in which legal evidence is found in any computer or any digital media device. Of the following, who is responsible for examining the evidence acquired and separating the useful evidence? A. Evidence Supervisor B. Evidence Documenter C. Evidence Manager D. Evidence Examiner/ Investigator Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 An incident is analyzed for its nature, intensity and its effects on the network and systems. Which stage of the incident response and handling process involves auditing the system and network log files? A. Incident recording B. Reporting C. Containment D. Identification Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 An audit trail policy collects all audit trails such as series of records of computer events, about an operating system, application or user activities. Which of the following statements is NOT true for an audit trail policy: A. It helps calculating intangible losses to the organization due to incident B. It helps tracking individual actions and allows users to be personally accountable for their actions C. It helps in compliance to various regulatory laws, rules,and guidelines D. It helps in reconstructing the events after a problem has occurred Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which of the following is NOT one of the techniques used to respond to insider threats: A. Placing malicious users in quarantine network, so that attack cannot be spread B. Preventing malicious users from accessing unclassified information C. Disabling the computer systems from network connection D. Blocking malicious user accounts Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which of the following is NOT one of the common techniques used to detect Insider threats: A. Spotting an increase in their performance B. Observing employee tardiness and unexplained absenteeism C. Observing employee sick leaves D. Spotting conflicts with supervisors and coworkers Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 The USB tool (depicted below) that is connected to a male USB Keyboard cable and not detected by anti-spyware tools is most likely called:
A. Software Key Grabber B. Hardware Keylogger C. USB adapter D. Anti-Keylogger Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 In which of the steps of NIST\\’s risk assessment methodology are the boundary of the IT system, along with the resources and the information that constitute the system identified? A. Likelihood Determination B. Control recommendation C. System characterization D. Control analysis Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 The service organization that provides 24×7 computer security incident response services to any user, company, the government agency or organization is known as: A. Computer Security Incident Response Team CSIRT B. Security Operations Center SOC C. Digital Forensics Examiner D. Vulnerability Assessor Correct Answer: A
This blog shares the latest EC-COUNCIL 212-89 exam questions, and answers! EC-COUNCIL 212-89 pdf, EC-COUNCIL 212-89 exam video! Get full Pass4itsure 100% pass & stable EC-COUNCIL 212-89 dumps!
The best online resource to prepare for the Microsoft AZ-204 exam: Pass4itsure full az-204 dumps (Total Questions: 185 Q&A AZ-204 Dumps). The latest AZ-204 exam dumps can help you pass your first exam!
Free share Microsoft AZ-204 online resource
Exam AZ-204: Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Developer Associate
New 2021 Microsoft AZ-204 dumps pdf from google drive (Update Questions)
The following are the new 2021 Microsoft AZ-204 exam practice questions(q1-q13), covering real exam answers and questions! You can test yourself!
QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP You plan to create a Docker image that runs as ASP.NET Core application named ContosoApp. You have a setup script named setupScript.ps1 and a series of application files including ContosoApp.dll. You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements: Call setupScript.ps1 when the container is built. Run ContosoApp.dll when the container starts. The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setupScript.ps1 are stored. Which four commands should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Step 1: WORKDIR /apps/ContosoApp Step 2: COPY ./The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setupScript.ps1 are stored. Step 3: EXPOSE ./ContosApp/ /app/ContosoApp Step 4: CMD powershell ./setupScript.ps1 ENTRYPOINT [“dotnet”, “ContosoApp.dll”] You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements: Call setupScript.ps1 when the container is built. Run ContosoApp.dll when the container starts. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/containers/tutorial-custom-docker-image
QUESTION 2 You are developing a software solution for an autonomous transportation system. The solution uses large data sets and Azure Batch processing to simulate navigation sets for entire fleets of vehicles. You need to create compute nodes for the solution on Azure Batch. What should you do? A. In the Azure portal, add a Job to a Batch account. B. In a .NET method, call the method: BatchClient.PoolOperations.CreateJob C. In Python, implement the class: JobAddParameter D. In Azure CLI, run the command: az batch pool create E. In a .NET method, call the method: BatchClient.pool operations.CreatePool F. In Python, implement the class: TaskAddParameter G. In the Azure CLI, run the command: az batch account create Correct Answer: B A Batch job is a logical grouping of one or more tasks. A job includes settings common to the tasks, such as priority and the pool to run tasks on. The app uses BatchClient.JobOperations.CreateJob method to create a job on your pool. Note: Step 1: Create a pool of compute nodes. When you create a pool, you specify the number of compute nodes for the pool, their size, and the operating system. When each task in your job runs, it\\’s assigned to execute on one of the nodes in your pool. Step 2: Create a job. A job manages a collection of tasks. You associate each job to a specific pool where that job\\’s tasks will run. Step 3: Add tasks to the job. Each task runs the application or script that you uploaded to process the data files it downloads from your Storage account. As each task completes, it can upload its output to Azure Storage. Incorrect Answers: C, F: To create a Batch pool in Python, the app uses the PoolAddParameter class to set the number of nodes, VM size, and a pool configuration. E: BatchClient.PoolOperations does not have a CreateJob method. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/quick-run-dotnethttps://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/batch/quick-run-python
QUESTION 3 You are developing an internal website for employees to view sensitive data. The website uses Azure Active Directory (AAD) for authentication. You need to implement multifactor authentication for the website. What should you do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Upgrade to Azure AD Premium. B. In Azure AD conditional access, enable the baseline policy. C. In Azure AD, create a new conditional access policy. D. In Azure AD, enable application proxy. E. Configure the website to use Azure AD B2C. Correct Answer: AC A: Multi-Factor Authentication comes as part of the following offerings: Azure Active Directory Premium licenses – Full featured use of Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Service (Cloud) or Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server (On-premises). Multi-Factor Authentication for Office 365 Azure Active Directory Global Administrators C: MFA Enabled by conditional access policy. It is the most flexible means to enable two-step verification for your users. Enabling using conditional access policy only works for Azure MFA in the cloud and is a premium feature of Azure AD. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-getstarted
QUESTION 4 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You are developing an Azure Service application that processes queue data when it receives a message from a mobile application. Messages may not be sent to the service consistently. You have the following requirements: Queue size must not grow larger than 80 gigabytes (GB). Use first-in-first-out (FIFO) ordering of messages. Minimize Azure costs. You need to implement the messaging solution. Solution: Use the .Net API to add a message to an Azure Storage Queue from the mobile application. Create an Azure VM that is triggered by Azure Storage Queue events. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Don\\’t use a VM, instead create an Azure Function App that uses an Azure Service Bus Queue trigger. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-create-storage-queue-triggered-function
QUESTION 5 You develop a website. You plan to host the website in Azure. You expect the website to experience high traffic volumes after it is published. You must ensure that the website remains available and responsive while minimizing cost. You need to deploy the website. What should you do? A. Deploy the website to a virtual machine. Configure the virtual machine to automatically scale when the CPU load is high. B. Deploy the website to an App Service that uses the Shared service tier. Configure the App service plan to automatically scale when the CPU load is high. C. Deploy the website to an App Service that uses the Standard service tier. Configure the App service plan to automatically scale when the CPU load is high. D. Deploy the website to a virtual machine. Configure a Scale Set to increase the virtual machine instance count when the CPU load is high. Correct Answer: C Windows Azure Web Sites (WAWS) offers 3 modes: Standard, Free, and Shared. Standard mode carries an enterprise-grade SLA (Service Level Agreement) of 99.9% monthly, even for sites with just one instance. Standard mode runs on dedicated instances, making it different from the other ways to buy Windows Azure Web Sites. Incorrect Answers: B: Shared and Free modes do not offer the scaling flexibility of Standard, and they have some important limits. Shared mode, just as the name states, also uses shared Compute resources, and also has a CPU limit. So, while neither Free nor Shared is likely to be the best choice for your production environment due to these limits.
QUESTION 6 DRAG DROP You are deploying an Azure Kubernetes Services (AKS) cluster that will use multiple containers You need to create the cluster and verify that the services for the containers are configured correctly and available. Which four commands should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate command segments from the list of command segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
QUESTION 7 You are writing code to create and run an Azure Batch job. You have created a pool of compute nodes. You need to choose the right class and its method to submit a batch job to the Batch service. Which method should you use? A. JobOperations.EnableJobAsync(String, IEnumerable,CancellationToken) B. JobOperations.CreateJob() C. CloudJob.Enable(IEnumerable) D. JobOperations.EnableJob(String, IEnumerable) E. CloudJob.CommitAsync(IEnumerable, CancellationToken) Correct Answer: E A Batch job is a logical grouping of one or more tasks. A job includes settings common to the tasks, such as priority and the pool to run tasks on. The app uses BatchClient.JobOperations.CreateJob method to create a job on your pool. The Commit method submits the job to the Batch service. Initially, the job has no tasks. { CloudJob job = batchClient.JobOperations.CreateJob(); job.Id = JobId; job.PoolInformation = new PoolInformation { PoolId = PoolId }; job.Commit(); } … References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/quick-run-dotnet
QUESTION 8 Your company is developing an Azure API. You need to implement authentication for the Azure API. You have the following requirements: All API calls must be secure. Callers to the API must not send credentials to the API. Which authentication mechanism should you use? A. Basic B. Anonymous C. Managed identity D. Client certificate Correct Answer: C Use the authentication-managed-identity policy to authenticate with a backend service using the managed identity of the API Management service. This policy essentially uses the managed identity to obtain an access token from Azure Active Directory for accessing the specified resource. After successfully obtaining the token, the policy will set the value of the token in the Authorization header using the Bearer scheme. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/api-management/api-management-authentication-policies
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP You are developing an application to use Azure Blob storage. You have configured Azure Blob storage to include change feeds. A copy of your storage account must be created in another region. Data must be copied from the current storage account to the new storage account directly between the storage servers. You need to create a copy of the storage account in another region and copy the data. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT You are developing a back-end Azure App Service that scales based on the number of messages contained in a Service Bus queue. A rule already exists to scale up the App Service when the average queue length of unprocessed and valid queue messages is greater than 1000. You need to add a new rule that will continuously scale down the App Service as long as the scale up condition is not met. How should you configure the Scale rule? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Service bus queue You are developing a back-end Azure App Service that scales based on the number of messages contained in a Service Bus queue. Box 2: ActiveMessage Count ActiveMessageCount: Messages in the queue or subscription that are in the active state and ready for delivery. Box 3: Count Box 4: Less than or equal to You need to add a new rule that will continuously scale down the App Service as long as the scale up condition is not met. Box 5: Decrease count by
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT You are developing a ticket reservation system for an airline. The storage solution for the application must meet the following requirements: Ensure at least 99.99% availability and provide low latency. Accept reservations event when localized network outages or other unforeseen failures occur. Process reservations in the exact sequence as reservations are submitted to minimize overbooking or selling the same seat to multiple travelers. Allow simultaneous and out-of-order reservations with a maximum five-second tolerance window. You provision a resource group named airlineResourceGroup in the Azure South-Central US region. You need to provision a SQL SPI Cosmos DB account to support the app. How should you complete the Azure CLI commands? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area
Box 1: BoundedStaleness Bounded staleness: The reads are guaranteed to honor the consistent-prefix guarantee. The reads might lag behind writes by at most “K” versions (that is, “updates”) of an item or by “T” time interval. In other words, when you choose bounded staleness, the “staleness” can be configured in two ways: The number of versions (K) of the item The time interval (T) by which the reads might lag behind the writes Incorrect Answers: Strong Strong consistency offers a linearizability guarantee. Linearizability refers to serving requests concurrently. The reads are guaranteed to return the most recent committed version of an item. A client never sees an uncommitted or partial write. Users are always guaranteed to read the latest committed write. Box 2: –enable-automatic-failover true\ For multi-region Cosmos accounts that are configured with a single-write region, enable automatic-failover by using Azure CLI or Azure portal. After you enable automatic failover, whenever there is a regional disaster, Cosmos DB will automatically failover your account.
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT You are building a traffic monitoring system that monitors traffic along six highways. The system produces time series analysis-based reports for each highway. Data from traffic sensors are stored in Azure Event Hub. Traffic data is consumed by four departments. Each department has an Azure Web App that displays the time-seriesbased reports and contains a WebJob that processes the incoming data from Event Hub. All Web Apps run on App Service Plans with three instances. Data throughout must be maximized. Latency must be minimized. You need to implement the Azure Event Hub. Which settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 HOTSPOT You need to secure the Shipping Function app. How should you configure the app? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Scenario: Shipping Function app: Implement secure function endpoints by using app-level security and include Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). Box 1: Function Box 2: JSON based Token (JWT) Azure AD uses JSON based tokens (JWTs) that contain claims Box 3: HTTP How a web app delegates sign-in to Azure AD and obtains a token User authentication happens via the browser. The OpenID protocol uses standard HTTP protocol messages. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/authentication-scenarios
Why choosing Pass4itsure exam dumps!
Latest Pass4itsure candidates pass feedback
Pass4itsure Microsoft dumps discount code 2021 free share
Share the Pass4itsure Microsoft dumps discount code “Microsoft”. Pass4itsure value your money and gives you a 15% discount on the purchase of a complete AZ-204 exam preparation product set practice test software, PDF Q&A.
The last sentence:
This blog shares the latest Microsoft AZ-204 exam questions, and answers! Microsoft AZ-204 pdf, Microsoft AZ-204 exam video! Get full Pass4itsure 100% pass & stable Microsoft AZ-204 dumps!
This is an important reminder for preparing and passing the Salesforce CRT-251 exam! Some free sharing tips about Salesforce CRT-251 exam resources (CRT-251 exam questions, CRT-251 exam dumps, CRT-251 pdf). Download Salesforce CRT-251 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/crt-251.html (Total Questions: 650 Q&A CRT-251 Dumps).
Salesforce CRT-251 preparation resources
You need:
Salesforce CRT-251 Practice testing questions (Youtube)
Share Salesforce Sales Cloud ConsultantCRT-251 practice test for free
QUESTION 1 Universal Containers has an upcoming maintenance window where read-only access will be available Which two actions will Universal Containers be able to perform during this window? Choose 2 answers A. Run and view Salesforce reports B. Post report information on Chatter C. Update case data for a customer D. Review existing cases for an account Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2 A Consultant arrives for a requirements workshop, but key resources are absent. What is the likely reason the key resources are absent? A. The proper roles, resources, and risks were not identified. B. The resources were not on the Project Kick-off C. The purpose and scope were not defined D. The project plan did not receive sign-off Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A new support center has only one part-time Service Rep. Which step should a Consultant take to ensure that Case Aging is tracked accurately? A. Let the Service Rep change the Business Hours on the Case B. User a time-dependent Workflow Rule to update Case Status C. Use an Escalation Rule to assign open Cases to another user D. Let the service Rep enter the appropriate Case age Value Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 The Forecast Category on the Opportunity record maps directly, on a one-to-one basis, to the aggregates on the Forecast tab. A. True B. False Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 The sales representatives at Universal containers use various email applications and often receive important customer emails while they are away from the office. Sales management wants to ensure sales representatives are recording email activity with customers in salesforce while they are away from the office. What should a consultant recommend to meet this requirement? A. Download and install a salesforce universal connector for their smartphone and computers B. Copy and paste emails manually to the customer record in Salesforce from their smartphones and computers C. Download and install the salesforce for outlook connector on their smartphones and computers D. Forward emails using their email-to-salesforce email address from their smartphones and computers Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Cloud Kicks requires sales associates to record all activities within Salesforce. Which sales metric can be derived from these activities? A. Close Rate B. Close Rate C. Rate of Contact D. Marketing Influence Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Universal Containers is devising a separate sales methodology to upsell service contracts to its existing customer base. The company would like to track and report on these deals separately from other deals. What should a consultant recommend to meet this requirement? A. Add upsell as a stage and create a summary report by opportunity stage B. Create an opportunity record type and sales process for reporting on these deals C. Create separate page layout and report to flag and report on these deals D. Create a customer filed on opportunity to flag and report on these deals. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which two areas can an Administrator make Open CTI features available to users when building a Lightning App using the App Manager? Choose 2 answer A. On utility bar of the Lightning App B. On a record Highlights Panel C. On a record Activity Feed List D. On the Calendar right hand panel Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9 Territory mgt is enabled. Users should be able to track account plans for each account they have access to A. Create lookup relationship account -> account plan B. Create master detail relationship account -> account plan C. Review territory mananagement settings D. Validation rule Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Universal Containers wants to implement a website for a new product launch. The site should be publicly available, allow visitors to submit requests for information, and be managed by the non-technical marketing team. Which solution should the consultant recommend? A. Lightning Platform B. Salesforce Mobile Sites C. Lightning Components D. Customer Community Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Cloud Kicks has three unique product lines, each with a unique sales cycle. Prospect qualification is consistent across the product lines; sales representatives then follow the specific product line\\’s sales cicle Which two actions should a Consultant recommend to achieve these requirements? Choose 2 answers A. Define the default opportunity teams for each opportunity record type. B. Define sales stages that align with opportunity record types. C. Create sales process to map to each opportunity record type D. Create opportunity record types for each sales process. E. Create public groups for each opportunity sale process. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12 A Salesforce partner regularly works with Salesforce Account Executives to close deals with clients that are looking for a partner to implement Sales Cloud. As new partner sales reps are on-boarded, they spend quite a bit of time trying to determine which Account Executive maps to which Accounts and Opportunities. What should the Consultant recommend when rolling this out? A. Add a Lookup field on the Opportunity to indicate Partner Executives B. Add the Title field to all Contact Layout C. Implement Account Contact Roles D. Implement Account Partner Roles Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Universal Containers was bought by a larger company and needs to provide information on a monthly basis to the new parent company to help predict sales. Which data should the new parent company review? A. Dashboard of user login history B. Count of new lead records created C. Number of activities tied to opportunities D. Opportunity pipeline report grouped by month Correct Answer: D
Select Pass4itsure Salesforce CRT-251 exam dumps to pass Salesforce CRT-251 exam. For more detail visit the URL here: https://www.pass4itsure.com/crt-251.html 2020 Salesforce CRT-251 exam dumps pdf. Study hard to pass the exam easily! Good Luck to you!
Passing the important SAP C_TADM54_75 exam is a tedious and repetitive process. Usually need to consider using C_TADM54_75 dumps for a long time to prepare learning materials to complete the test in order to achieve a passing score. Recommend https://www.pass4itsure.com/c_tadm54_75.html Pass4itsure C_TADM54_75 exam dumps pdf. Free share: Viewing questions 1-13 out of 209 questions. There are also C_TADM54_75 practice questions (YouTube Link) for free.
Basic Key Points About Pass4itsure SAP C_TADM54_75 Exam Dumps
SAP Certified Technology Associate C_TADM54_75 exam dumps practice questions
QUESTION 1 You are running an AS Java-based SAP system. You are maintaining local settings using the Visual Administrator. These settings become effective immediately. You want to make sure that the new settings are still valid after the next restart of your system. How do you fulfill this requirement? Please choose the correct answer. A. No further steps are necessary in this scenario. B. Mark check box “Activate in profile”. C. Maintain the same settings in the global settings using the Visual Administrator. D. Maintain the same settings in the Config Tool. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 For an AS ABAP+Java system, the SAP Web Dispatcher communicates with which of the following? A. Both the ABAP and Java message server B. The Java message server C. The ABAP message server Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which statements are correct for RDBMS? There are 3 correct answers to this question. A. Manage large amounts of data in a multiuser environment so that many users can concurrently access the same data. B. Control access to data in terms of security, using its own user authorization concept C. Maintain relationships between data D. Recover data to point of known consstency n the event of a system failure E. Deliver high performance for processing of data requests Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4 Which of the following statements regarding the functions offered by CCMS-based monitoring are true? There are 2 correct answers to this question. A. It is possible to monitor more than one SAP system by using the functions offered by CCMS monitoring. B. Correctly configured threshold values to be used for monitoring purposes can be switched by using operation modes. C. You need a special key (generated within SAP Solution Manager) to create your own monitor definitions in transaction RZ20. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5 What can be done with a maintenance transaction? Choose the correct answer(s). A. Import Support Packages. B. Calculate Support Package Stacks for your SAP systems. C. Approve objects in your download basket. D. Import SAP Notes. E. Import SAP enhancement packages Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 Which ABAP software components are installed during the installation of an SAP ECC 6.0 system? You find those in System -> Status of your SAP ECC 6.0 system. There are 2 correct answers to this question. A. SAP_CRM B. SAP_HR C. SAP_APPL Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7 What catch-phrase best describes SAP\\’s software maintenance strategy? Please choose the correct answer. A. “3-3-1 maintenance” B. “5-1-2 maintenance” C. “4-2-2 maintenance” Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which work process types are there in an AS ABAP system? (More than one answers are true) A. Update work process B. Enqueue work process C. Background work process D. Message Server E. Dialog work process F. Spool work process G. Internet Communication Manager (ICM) Correct Answer: ABCEF https://help.sap.com/saphelp_nw70/helpdata/en/05/0e41e6ba5911d188b20000e83539c3/frameset.htm
QUESTION 9 You have configured the connection between the User Management of an AS ABAPbased system and a Directory Server via LDAP. From where can you start the synchronization of user data between these environments? Please choose the correct answer. A. From the environment where the user has been created B. Always from the SAP system C. Always from the Directory Server D. As defined in customizing in transaction LDAP (Directory Service Connection) Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 You would like to install an SAP ECC system. Which of the following components can be installed in a separate installation procedure? There are 2 correct answers to this question. A. The central instance B. The database instance C. An Internet Communication Manager D. The standalone message server Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11 How can you determine the patch level of your AS ABAP-based SAP system – concerning the current patch level of the applied Support Packages? There are 2 correct answers to this question Response: A. You can access this information by using the information that can be found under the menu path “System ->Status”. B. Calling “disp+work -v” or “dw -v” (depending on the operating system) will give you this information. C. You can find this information by using the transaction “PATCH”. D. You can find that information within the transaction “SPAM”. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12 Which of the following statements regarding the monitoring of an AS ABAP + Java system are true, when you are using a separate central monitoring system? Please choose the correct answer A. For monitoring an AS ABAP + Java-based SAP system, you will use the agent SAPCCMSR for monitoring the AS Java. B. The central monitoring system must be of a higher SAP release of the monitored SAP system. C. Central monitoring of AS ABAP + Java-based SAP systems can only be carried out using a separate AS ABAP + Java-based SAP system. D. The central monitoring system must have the System ID “CEN”. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which applications/solutions are parts of SAP Business Suite? There are 3 correct answers to this question. A. SAP CRM B. SAP Business One C. SAP SOA D. SAP SRM E. SAP ERP Correct Answer: ADE
Why choose Pass4itsure
Pass4itsure is now offering the unique and your desired SAP C_TADM54_75 exam questions dumps with answers which will assist you in passing your exam fast. You will find our study material beneficial in your exams.
Use coupon code “2020PASS” to enjoy12% off
The latest discount code “2020PASS” is provided below.
If you want to get the success of the C_TADM 54_75 SAP Certified Technical Assistant certificate, you should purchase https://www.pass4itsure.com/c_tadm54_75.html SAP C_TADM 54_75 dumps question. This is the most successful C_TADM 54_75 dumps PDF to increase Your chance to win the C_TADM 54_75 SAP Certified Technical Assistant certification exam.
How difficult is CISSP? This question has two parts: 1. How difficult is it to prepare for the exam? 2.How can I prepare for the exam? It is as difficult as you may think it is and is as easier as you think it is. It is very important to take as many practical tests as possible. It is recommended to choose https://www.pass4itsure.com/cissp.html as the preferred CISSP study guide. Best for you: CISSP exam dumps pdf free download.
Know what CISSP is
CISSP stands for Certified Information System Security Expert, and it is a certification created by the International Information System Security Certification Consortium (ISC) 2 in 1991. CISSP certification is a way to show your knowledge and prove your expertise. You can establish and lead an information security plan.
You have to pass the exam itself, a 6-hour, 250-question, 8-domain Goliath. The minimum passing score is 70%.
Multiple learning resources (free) for CISSP exam study guide – Pass4itsure
QUESTION 1 What Is the FIRST step in establishing an information security program? A. Establish an information security policy. B. Identify factors affecting information security. C. Establish baseline security controls. D. Identify critical security infrastructure. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Intellectual property rights are PRIMARY concerned with which of the following? A. Owner\\’s ability to realize financial gain B. Owner\\’s ability to maintain copyright C. Right of the owner to enjoy their creation D. Right of the owner to control delivery method Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is a characteristic of the initialization vector when using Data Encryption Standard (DES)? A. It must be known to both sender and receiver. B. It can be transmitted in the clear as a random number. C. It must be retained until the last block is transmitted. D. It can be used to encrypt and decrypt information. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 The PRIMARY outcome of a certification process is that it provides documented A. interconnected systems and their implemented security controls. B. standards for security assessment, testing, and process evaluation. C. system weakness for remediation. D. security analyses needed to make a risk-based decision. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which area of embedded devices are most commonly attacked? A. Application B. Firmware C. Protocol D. Physical Interface Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is generating alarms that a user account has over 100 failed login attempts per minute. A sniffer is placed on the network, and a variety of passwords for that user are noted. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring? A. A dictionary attack B. A Denial of Service (DoS) attack C. A spoofing attack D. A backdoor installation Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 When using third-party software developers, which of the following is the MOST effective method of providing software development Quality Assurance (QA)? A. Retain intellectual property rights through contractual wording. B. Perform overlapping code reviews by both parties. C. Verify that the contractors attend development planning meetings. D. Create a separate contractor development environment. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 [Miss the Question] A. Verify the camera\\’s log for recent logins outside of the Internet Technology (IT) department. B. Verify the security and encryption protocol the camera uses. C. Verify the security camera requires authentication to log into the management console. D. Verify the most recent firmware version is installed on the camera. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner? A. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity B. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving C. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security D. Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which of the following MUST system and database administrators be aware of and apply when configuring systems used for storing personal employee data? A. Secondary use of the data by business users B. The organization\\’s security policies and standards C. The business purpose for which the data is to be used D. The overall protection of corporate resources and data Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 How does an organization verify that an information system\\’s current hardware and software match the standard system configuration? A. By reviewing the configuration after the system goes into production B. By running vulnerability scanning tools on all devices in the environment C. By comparing the actual configuration of the system against the baseline D. By verifying all the approved security patches are implemented Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 A company receives an email threat informing of an Imminent Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack targeting its web application, unless ransom is paid. Which of the following techniques BEST addresses that threat? A. Deploying load balancers to distribute inbound traffic across multiple data centers B. Set Up Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) to filter out malicious traffic C. Implementing reverse web-proxies to validate each new inbound connection D. Coordinate with and utilize capabilities within Internet Service Provider (ISP) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification handles the management of security tokens and the underlying policies for granting access? Click on the correct specification in the image below. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
This kind of exam preparation is useful!
Pass4itsure Features
Pass4itsure discount code 2020
Please read the picture carefully to get 12% off!
P.S.
The above shared information about how to study for the CISSP exam to pass the exam preparation materials and recommended websites. Simple but effective exam preparation will ensure that you pass the exam quickly and successfully! Get advice and CISSP study guide from https://www.pass4itsure.com/cissp.html (Dumps Q&As: 970).
Get everything you need to pass the CompTIA CS0-001 exam: Choose https://www.pass4itsure.com/cs0-001.html best dump of CS0-001 exam online preparation materials. Get the CompTIA CS0-001 exam preparation questions in PDF format. Download CompTIA CS0-001 real exam questions and verified answers. Pass CompTIA CS0-001 exam tips! Share with you!
CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-001) English language exam will retire October 21, 2020. The new CySA+ (CS0-002) is now available.
Popular Tips Tricks – CS0-001 Dumps
Pass4itsure is the leading site to get the desired success in CompTIA CSA+ CS0-001 exam. It provides the latest study materials for the CS0-001 exam, because it contains all contemporary questions with CS0-001 dump PDF files. All these materials are prepared by CompTIA experts, which will definitely help you achieve good results in the CS0-001 exam.
Comptia CySA+ CS0-001 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 A company has monthly scheduled windows for patching servers and applying configuration changes. Out-of-window changes can be done, but they are discouraged unless absolutely necessary. The systems administrator is reviewing the weekly vulnerability scan report that was just released. Which of the following vulnerabilities should the administrator fix without waiting for the next scheduled change window? A. The administrator should fix dns (53/tcp). BIND `NAMED\\’ is an open-source DNS server from ISC.org. The BINDbased NAMED server (or DNS servers) allow remote users to query for version and type information. B. The administrator should fix smtp (25/tcp). The remote SMTP server is insufficiently protected against relaying. This means spammers might be able to use the company\\’s mail server to send their emails to the world. C. The administrator should fix http (80/tcp). An information leak occurs on Apache web servers with the UserDir module enabled, allowing an attacker to enumerate accounts by requesting access to home directories and monitoring the response. D. The administrator should fix http (80/tcp). The `greeting.cgi\\’ script is installed. This CGI has a well-known security flaw that lets anyone execute arbitrary commands with the privileges of the http daemon. E. The administrator should fix general/tcp. The remote host does not discard TCP SYN packets that have the FIN flag set. Depending on the kind of firewall a company is using, an attacker may use this flaw to bypass its rules. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A company has a popular shopping cart website hosted geographically diverse locations. The company has started hosting static content on a content delivery network (CDN) to improve performance. The CDN provider has reported the company is occasionally sending attack traffic to other CDN-hosted targets. Which of the following has MOST likely occurred? A. The CDN provider has mistakenly performed a GeoIP mapping to the company. B. The CDN provider has misclassified the network traffic as hostile. C. A vulnerability scan has tuned to exclude web assets hosted by the CDN. D. The company has been breached, and customer PII is being exfiltrated to the CDN. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A technician is running an intensive vulnerability scan to detect which ports are open to exploit. During the scan, several network services are disabled and production is affected. Which of the following sources would be used to evaluate which network service was interrupted? A. Syslog B. Network mapping C. Firewall logs D. NIDS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A cybersecurity analyst has several SIEM event logs to review for possible APT activity. The analyst was given several items that include lists of indicators for both IP addresses and domains. Which of the following actions is the BEST approach for the analyst to perform? A. Use the IP addresses to search through the event logs. B. Analyze the trends of the events while manually reviewing to see if any of the indicators match. C. Create an advanced query that includes all of the indicators, and review any of the matches. D. Scan for vulnerabilities with exploits known to have been used by an APT. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 SIMULATION The developers recently deployed new code to three web servers. A daily automated external device scan report shows server vulnerabilities that are failing items according to PCI DSS. If the vulnerability is not valid, the analyst must take the proper steps to get the scan clean. If the vulnerability is valid, the analyst must remediate the finding. After reviewing the information provided in the network diagram, select the STEP 2 tab to complete the simulation by selecting the correct Validation Result and Remediation Action for each server listed using the drop-down options. Instructions STEP 1: Review the information provided in the network diagram. STEP 2: Given the scenario, determine which remediation action is required to address the vulnerability. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button.
Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation. WEB_SERVER01: VALID – IMPLEMENT SSL/TLS WEB_SERVER02: VALID – SET SECURE ATTRIBUTE WHEN COOKIE SHOULD SENT VIA HTTPS ONLY WEB_SERVER03: VALID – IMPLEMENT CA SIGNED CERTIFICATE
QUESTION 6 Which of the following remediation strategies are MOST effective in reducing the risk of a network-based compromise of embedded ICS? (Select two.) A. Patching B. NIDS C. Segmentation D. Disabling unused services E. Firewalling Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 7 A business recently installed a kiosk that is running on a hardened operating system as a restricted user. The kiosk user application is the only application that is allowed to run. A security analyst gets a report that pricing data is being modified on the server, and management wants to know how this is happening. After reviewing the logs, the analyst discovers the root account from the kiosk is accessing the files. After validating the permissions on the server, the analyst confirms the permissions from the kiosk do not allow to write to the server data. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the pricing data modifications on the server? A. Data on the server is not encrypted, allowing users to change the pricing data. B. The kiosk user account has execute permissions on the server data files. C. Customers are logging off the kiosk and guessing the root account password. D. Customers are escaping the application shell and gaining root-level access. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A security analyst is performing a stealth black-box audit of the local WiFi network and is running a wireless sniffer to capture local WiFi network traffic from a specific wireless access point. The SSID is not appearing in the sniffing logs of the local wireless network traffic. Which of the following is the best action that should be performed NEXT to determine the SSID? A. Set up a fake wireless access point B. Power down the wireless access point C. Deauthorize users of that access point D. Spoof the MAC addresses of adjacent access points Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 In comparison to non-industrial IT vendors, ICS equipment vendors generally: A. rely less on proprietary code in their hardware products. B. have more mature software development models. C. release software updates less frequently. D. provide more expensive vulnerability reporting. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10 Which of the following actions should occur to address any open issues while closing an incident involving various departments within the network? A. Incident response plan B. Lessons learned report C. Reverse engineering process D. Chain of custody documentation Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 A vulnerability scan returned the following results for a web server that hosts multiple wiki sites: Apache-HTTPD-cve-2014-023: Apache HTTPD: mod_cgid denial of service CVE-2014-0231 Due to a flaw found in mog_cgid, a server using mod_cgid to host CGI scripts could be vulnerable to a DoS attack caused by a remote attacker who is exploiting a weakness in non-standard input, causing processes to hang indefinitely.
The security analyst has confirmed the server hosts standard CGI scripts for the wiki sites, does not have mod_cgid installed, is running Apache 2.2.22, and is not behind a WAF. The server is located in the DMZ, and the purpose of the server is to allow customers to add entries into a publicly accessible database. Which of the following would be the MOST efficient way to address this finding? A. Place the server behind a WAF to prevent DoS attacks from occurring. B. Document the finding as a false positive. C. Upgrade to the newest version of Apache. D. Disable the HTTP service and use only HTTPS to access the server. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Joe, an analyst, has received notice that a vendor who is coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. Which of the following should Joe use to BEST accommodate the vendor? A. Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor\\’s IP address. B. Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site. C. Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site. D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which of the following countermeasures should the security administrator apply to MOST effectively mitigate Bootkitlevel infections of the organization\\’s workstation devices? A. Remove local administrator privileges. B. Configure a BIOS-level password on the device. C. Install a secondary virus protection application. D. Enforce a system state recovery after each device reboot. Correct Answer: A
Discount Code “2020PASS” – Pass4itsure
The latest discount code “2020PASS” is provided below.
I suggest you can have a try on https://www.pass4itsure.com/cs0-001.html website, it is really valid CompTIA CS0-001 certification dumps. Use them correctly and you will not fail.
I believe there are many people looking for Oracle 1Z0-071 dumps, 1Z0-071 exam pdf, 1Z0-071 test questions because this is the best way to pass the exam! Now I can proudly tell you: Get the latest 1z0-071 pdf dumps from us, https://www.pass4itsure.com/1z0-071.html The best 1z0-071 exam preparation materials.
Oracle PL/SQL Developer Certified Associate 1Z0-071 Exam Practice Test (Real Exam Questions)
QUESTION 1 Examine the structure of the MARKS table:
Which two statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.) A. SELECT SUM(DISTINCT NVL(subject1,0)), MAX(subject1) FROM marks WHERE subject1 > subject2; B. SELECT student_name subject1 FROM marks WHERE subject1 > AVG(subject1); C. SELECT SUM(subject1+subject2+subject3) FROM marks WHERE student_name IS NULL; D. SELECT student_name,SUM(subject1) FROM marks WHERE student_name LIKE `R%\\’; Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 View the exhibit and examine the data in the PROJ_TASK_DETAILS table. (Choose the best answer.)
The PROJ_TASK_DETAILS table stores information about project tasks and the relation between them. The BASED_ON column indicates dependencies between tasks. Some tasks do not depend on the completion of other tasks. You must generate a report listing all task IDs, the task ID of any task upon which it depends and the name of the employee in charge of the task upon which it depends. Which query would give the required result? A. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge FROM proj_task_details p JOIN proj_task_details d ON (p.task_id = d.task_id); B. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge FROM proj_task_details p FULL OUTER JOIN proj_task_details d ON (p.based_on = d.task_id); C. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge FROM proj_task_details p JOIN proj_task_details d ON (p.based_on = d.task_id); D. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge FROM proj_task_details p LEFT OUTER JOIN proj_task_details d ON (p.based_on = d.task_id); Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which three are true about multitable INSERT statements? A. They can be performed on external tables using SQL* Loader. B. They can be performed on relational tables. C. They can be performed only by using a subquery. D. They can insert each computed row into more than one table. E. They can be performed on views. F. They can be performed on remote tables. Correct Answer: ABC Reference: https://www.akadia.com/services/ora_multitable_insert.html
QUESTION 4 Which two statements are true about the SET VERIFY ON command? (Choose two.) A. It can be used in SQL Developer and SQL*Plus B. It displays values for variables used only in the WHERE clause of a query C. It can be used only in SQL*Plus D. It displays values for variables prefixed with andand E. It displays values for variables created by the DEFINE command Correct Answer: CE Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/opal/sqlplus-101-substitution-variables#4_1_8
QUESTION 5 Examine the description of the PROMOTIONS table:
You want to display the unique promotion costs in each promotion category. Which two queries can be used? (Choose two.) A. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category || ` has \\’ || promo_cost AS COSTS FROM promotions ORDER BY 1; B. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1; C. SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 2; D. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost ||` in \\’|| DISTINCT promo_category FROM promotions ORDER BY 1; E. SELECT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions ORDER BY 1; Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 Which three are key components of an Entity Relationship Model? (Choose three.) A. an activity B. a table C. a relationship D. an attribute E. a unique identifier F. an entity Correct Answer: CDF The three main components of the ER Model are entities, attributes and relationships. Reference: https://www.dlsweb.rmit.edu.au/Toolbox/knowmang/content/data_concepts/e_r_model.htm
QUESTION 7 Which three are true about system and object privileges? (Choose three.) A. WITH GRANT OPTION can be used when granting an object privilege to both users and roles B. Adding a primary key constraint to an existing table in another schema requires a system privilege C. Adding a foreign key constraint pointing to a table in another schema requires the REFERENCES object privilege D. Revoking a system privilege that was granted with WITH ADMIN OPTION has a cascading effect E. Revoking an object privilege that was granted with the WITH GRANT OPTION clause has a cascading effect. F. WITH GRANT OPTION cannot be used when granting an object privilege to PUBLIC Correct Answer: ACE Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/network.111/b28531/authorization.htm#DBSEG004
QUESTION 8 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of ORDERS and CUSTOMERS tables. (Choose the best answer.)
You executed this UPDATE statement:
Which statement is true regarding the execution? A. It would not execute because a subquery cannot be used in the WHERE clause of an UPDATE statement. B. It would not execute because two tables cannot be referenced in a single UPDATE statement. C. It would execute and restrict modifications to the columns specified in the SELECT statement. D. It would not execute because a SELECT statement cannot be used in place of a table name. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 These are the steps for a correlated subquery, listed in random order: 1. The WHERE clause of the outer query is evaluated. 2. A candidate row is fetched from the table specified in the outer query. 3. This is repeated for the subsequent rows of the table, until all the rows are processed. 4. Rows are returned by the inner query, after being evaluated with the value from the candidate row in the outer query. Which is the correct sequence in which the Oracle server evaluates a correlated subquery? A. 2, 1, 4, 3 B. 4, 1, 2, 3 C. 4, 2, 1, 3 D. 2, 4, 1, 3 Correct Answer: D References: http://rajanimohanty.blogspot.co.uk/2014/01/correlated-subquery.html
QUESTION 10 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION and INVENTORIES tables.
You have a requirement from the supplies department to give a list containing PRODUCT_ID, SUPPLIER_ID, and QUANTITY_ON_HAND for all the products wherein QUANTITY_ON_HAND is less than five. Which two SQL statements can accomplish the task? (Choose two.) A. SELECT i.product_id, i.quantity_on_hand, pi.supplier_id FROM product_information pi JOIN inventories i ON (pi.product_id=i.product_id) WHERE quantity_on_hand B. SELECT product_id, quantity_on_hand, supplier_id FROM product_information NATURAL JOIN inventories AND quantity_on_hand C. SELECT i.product_id, i.quantity_on_hand, pi.supplier_id FROM product_information pi JOIN inventories i ON (pi.product_id=i.product_id) AND quantity_on_hand D. SELECT i.product_id, i.quantity_on_hand, pi.supplier_id FROM product_information pi JOIN inventories i USING (product_id) AND quantity_on_hand Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11 Examine the structure of the SALES table.
Which two statements are true about the SALES1 table? (Choose two.) A. It will not be created because the column-specified names in the SELECT and CREATE TABLE clauses do not match. B. It will have NOT NULL constraints on the selected columns which had those constraints in the SALES table. C. It will not be created because of the invalid WHERE clause. D. It is created with no rows. E. It has PRIMARY KEY and UNIQUE constraints on the selected columns which had those constraints in the SALES table. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12 In the customers table, the CUST_CITY column contains the value \\’Paris\\’ for the CUST_FIRST_NAME \\’Abigail\\’. Evaluate the following query:
What would be the outcome? A. Abigail PA B. Abigail Pa C. Abigail IS D. An error message Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 You need to calculate the number of days from 1st January 2019 until today. Dates are stored in the default format of DD-MON-RR. Which two queries give the required output? A. SELECT TO_CHAR(SYSDATE, ‘DD-MON-YYYY Correct Answer: A
You can pass Atlassian ACP-100 exam very simply and easily with our free ACP-100 dumps. https://www.pass4itsure.com/acp-100.html Pass4itsure provides real Atlassian ACP-100 exam questions and accurate answers. New updates for ACP-100 dumps pdf can also be downloaded for 365 days.
Atlassian Certifications ACP-100 Exam Practice Test (Real Exam Questions)
QUESTION 1 A dashboard displays an Issue Statistics gadget as shown.
The dashboard owner wants to change the order of the statuses shown in the gadget to appear as follows. 1. To Do 2. In Progress 3. Ready For QA 4. Blocked 5. Rejected 6. Done Which action will permanently arrange the statuses into the required order? A. Reorder the statues on the Status administration page. B. Change the Sort Direction option in the gadget to Ascending. C. Change the category of the statuses. D. Add numbers to the status names to allow them to be sorted in numerical order. E. Change the gadget Sort By field to Total. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://community.atlassian.com/t5/Jira-questions/How-to-change-order-of-statuses-in-a-Two-Dimensionfilter/qaq-p/320423
QUESTION 2 You want to introduce Jira to your small non-profit organization. Since you are unsure of the optimal deployment option you have gathered some requirements: You need to manage a team of up to 15 employees. You need to be able to track a backlog of staff action items. You want to easily visualize the progress of ongoing work. The solution must require minimal administration since your organization only has a part-time IT volunteer. What solution is most appropriate for your organization? A. Jira Service Desk Cloud B. Jira Software Data Center C. Jira Service Desk Data Center D. Jira Core Server Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 You have planned, tested, and performed a Jira upgrade. The upgrade appeared to be a success; however, after several hours of use, your users are reporting significant problems and you decide to roll back. Which two effects do you expect to see after the rollback? (Choose two.) A. Emails will automatically be sent out to tell people about the rollback. B. New issues entered between upgrade and rollback will be lost. C. The color scheme will be set back to default to indicate there was a rollback. D. Jira will go back to the same schemes as before the upgrade. E. Jira will need to be reconnected to other systems it was integrated with. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 4 Which statement is true about changing a project\\’s key? A. Users have to update issue filters referencing the old project key. B. Unshared project schemes will be automatically renamed to reflect the new project key. C. External links to issues in that project need to be updated to match the new project key. D. The old project key can be reused for a new project. E. Internal Jira links referencing an old key will continue to work. Correct Answer: E Reference: https://confluence.atlassian.com/adminjiraserver075/editing-a-project-key-935391076.html
QUESTION 5 Your Jira has 25,000 active users across the globe using 100 projects with over a million issues. Another administrator has made a change to a field configuration scheme and you now need to re-index Jira. What would be the impact of rebuilding the index in the foreground? A. Issues will take longer to display during the re-index. B. Database backups cannot be run until the re-indexing is complete. C. The configuration change will not be applied until re-indexing is complete. D. Searches using the field may show erroneous results. E. All users will be locked out of Jira until re-indexing completes. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 An issue is showing the Time Tracking section as follows:
There is clearly an hour\\’s difference between the Original and Remaining estimates. Identify two possible reasons Logged Time is showing as Not Specified. (Choose two.) A. Time tracking was not enabled when the work was logged. B. The remaining estimate was adjusted without logging any effort. C. The hour\\’s work was logged via a REST call by the user. D. The work log would have exceeded the project\\’s time allowance, so it cannot be counted. E. The original estimate was increased. F. You do not have view permission to see the logged work. Correct Answer: AB Reference: https://confluence.atlassian.com/adminjiraserver/configuring-time-tracking-938847808.html
QUESTION 7 The OPS team will start using Jira to track and approve Change Requests in the OPS project. They have these workflow requirements: Requests can be approved by two individuals only. The approvers will change weekly. Jira is connected to your corporate LDAP with Read-Only permissions. What is the best way to structure permissions for the OPS project to support these workflow requirements? A. Create the group it-approvers in the Jira Internal Directory and have the approvers maintain it. B. Create a new project role for approvers and have the Project Role (Administrators) maintain it. C. Request the group it-approvers to be created in the corporate LDAP directory and add it to the Approve Issues permission for the project. D. Request the group it-approvers to be created in the corporate LDAP directory and have the Project Role (Administrators) maintain it in Jira. E. Add individual names to Project Role (Administrators) and add this role to the Approve Issues permission for the project. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 A user says she can see the Ready for Testing transition but cannot successfully execute it. Why can\\’t the user execute this transition?QUESTION 8 A user says she can see the Ready for Testing transition but cannot successfully execute it. Why can\\’t the user execute this transition?
A. The status property of Code Review prevents the Developer role from executing the transition. B. A Condition on the transition requires the user to be in the Developer role. C. A Validator on the workflow transition requires the user to be in the Developer role. D. The status property of In Progress prevents the Developer role from executing the transition. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 A public relations firm is using Jira to track projects by client engagement. Each new engagement with a client is tracked in a new project. Users are complaining that it is hard to navigate and search hundreds of projects. View the Exhibit, which shows a sample of their projects on the View All Projects page.
Identify three project settings that will immediately improve the viewing of projects on this page and the search results in Issue Navigator. (Choose three.) A. Add URLs for search engine optimization. B. Add project tags. C. Add client logos as project avatars. D. Create project categories by client. E. Add project descriptions. F. Set the project lead to the appropriate Project Administrator. Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 10 One of your teams is maintaining and updating an application that has grown into three distinct modules. The modules are on different release cycles. The team is struggling to track the versions of the modules, because they have similar numbering schemes. Which action would you recommend? A. Define an issue type for each module. B. Create a new Version field for each module. C. Split the modules into separate components. D. Split the project into several projects, one for each module. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://jira.atlassian.com/browse/JRACLOUD-3501?page=com.atlassian.jira.plugin.system.issuetabpanels%3Acomment-tabpanelandshowAll=true
QUESTION 11 You needed to replace the legacy Jira group all-staff-europe with a newly created all-staff-global group. You created the new group and you migrated all users to the new group. Then you deleted the legacy group. Which four problems might users report after the change? (Choose four.) A. Filter subscriptions send out errors instead of issues statistics. B. Workflow transitions are hidden from certain users. C. Users are not able to perform bulk change operations. D. Users are not able to log in to Jira anymore. E. Comments that were restricted to the legacy group are lost. F. Filter results return an incorrect number of issues. Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 12 Contractors will begin using your Jira instance. You receive the following requirements for them:
How should you manage global permissions for the contractors user group? A. Grant them the Browse Users permission. B. Grant them the Bulk Change permission. C. Grant them the Jira System Administrators permission. D. Grant them the Manage Group Filter Subscriptions permission. E. Grant them the Create Shared Objects permission. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://confluence.atlassian.com/adminjiracloud/managing-project-permissions-776636362.html
QUESTION 13 A team of technical writers works in the WRITE project. The project uses a single, shared workflow. To better match the team\\’s way of working they request a workflow change: The initial status of their project\\’s workflow should be changed from Open to Awaiting Inspiration. You navigate to the Workflows section of the administration, update the Name of the status in the workflow designer and publish your change. What are two implications of this change? (Choose two.) A. The workflow scheme for the WRITE project will need to be published before the change takes effect. B. Awaiting Inspiration will be created as a new Status in Jira. C. Transitions to the Awaiting Inspiration status will fail until the post functions for those transitions are updated. D. Filters and Gadgets that referred to the Open status by name will be broken. E. The Open Status will be changed to Awaiting Inspiration in all workflows using that status. Correct Answer: AB
Free ACP-100 pdf answers, ACP-100 actual test pdf,Atlassian exam lab questions, ACP-100 simulator download, ACP-100 training videos, ACP-100 exam tips, free questions
Obtaining ACP-100 pdf dump is the easiest way to obtain ACP-100 certification in the shortest time. https://www.pass4itsure.com/acp-100.html can help people quickly obtain ACP-100 certification. Certificationvce provides the latest and free Atlassian ACP-100 exam dumps pdf and practice exam.
How much questions are given for Microsoft 70-489 dumps exam? The Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions (070-489) exam is a 97Q exam that assesses how pass4itsure teams can effectively position Microsoft 070-489 dumps in the MCP, MCSD. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Microsoft opportunities. Pass4itsure prepare and manage a virtual classroom environment and use collaboration tools to maximize student participation and comprehension. However, if we show it with both creative and professional manner, then we will get the best result. The Pass4itsure 70-489 dumps exam training materials is so successful training materials. It is most suitable for you, quickly select it please. The pass4itsure 70-489 dumps pdf exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions.
Exam Code: 70-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Compared with other training materials, why Pass4itsure’s Microsoft 070-489 exam training materials is more welcomed by the majority of candidates? The pass4isture 70-489 dumpsDeveloping Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions exam is required for Microsoft CMCP, MCSD certification. The computer-based,multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of how to prepare and manage a virtual classroom environment and use collaboration tools to maximize student participation and comprehension. We all know that the major problem in the IT industry is a lack of quality and practicality. Candidates can prepare for the exam by taking the Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions course. Now Pass4itsure provide you a effective method to pass Microsoft certification 070-489 exam. It will play a multiplier effect to help you pass the exam.
PASS4ITSURE Microsoft 070-489 DUMPS TRAINING PROGRAM ONLINE HERE(1-14)
QUESTION 1 You develop a SharePoint-hosted app. The app includes the following code segment: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
The app must display user profile data for the user that is logged in. The user profile data must include the PreferredName, Department, and WorkPhone properties. You need to ensure that the app displays the required user profile data. Which code segment should you insert at line 12?
A. var a = new SP.UserProfiles.UserProfile();
B. var a = new SP.UserProfiles.SocialFollowingManager(context);
C. var a = SP.UserProfiles.Profileloader.GetProfileLoader(context);
D. var a = new SP.UserProfiles.PeopleManager(context);
070-489 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You use Visual Studio to design a SharePoint solution for a company that provides computer support services to customers around the world. The solution must list the customer service representatives that resolve the highest number of support requests. The solution also must allow filtering of customer service representatives by region. You need to configure the solution to meet the requirements. Which steps should you take? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add a Recommended Items Web Part to the page.
B. Add and configure a Refinement Web Part to the page.
C. Add regions as property filters to the Search Results Web Part.
D. Configure the query for the Content Search Web Part.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You develop a SharePoint app for a toy company that uses the Representational State Transfer (REST) API for search. The site collections in the app have been crawled recently and use the default search schema. The app includes the following code segment: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You create the following result sources.
You need to ensure that the app only displays PDF documents. Which code segment should you insert at line 03?
A. varresultSourceId = “Site PDF”;
B. varresuitSourceId = “4C50FE18-B254-47A1-ABAD-0B6C4577D914”;
C. varresultSourceId = “0F41A999-523A-41ED-AAAD-9D414A0FC3B4”;
D. varresultSourceId = “82951A0C-6385-4E29-8D7F-4AB92FE9F536”; 070-489 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
A legal company uses SharePoint for document and records management. You search all documents by using extractors and managed properties. FAST Query Language (FQL) is enabled for the result sources, and the content of the document is indexed as full text. All documents are named by using the following pattern: “AAA-Axxxx-AA”. You must find documents that were created in May 2012 and contain the ordered keywords “liable”, “advocate”, and “adjudication”. Results that are returned must include only document names that begin with “HCT-Q” and end only with “AB”. You need to create the FQL query that returns the required results. Which FQL statements should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Write> =05/01/2012 and write<=05/31/2012
B. string(‘liable advocate adjudication”, mode=”onear”)
C. title:HCT-Q*
D. title:HCT-Q????-AB
E. NEAR (liable, advocate, adjudication)
F. write:range (2012-05-01, 2012-05-31)
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B (not E):
The ordered variant ofNEAR, and requires an ordered match of the terms. TheONEARoperator can be used to restrict the result set to items that haveNterms within a certain distance of Returns only items that don’t match the operand. The operand may be any valid FQL expression.one another.
D (not C):
* All documents are named by using the following pattern: “AAA-Axxxx-AA”.
* Results that are returned must include only document names that begin with “HCT-Q” and end only with “AB”.
F (not A):
* Range. Enables range matching expressions. The RANGE operator is used for numeric and date/time managed properties.
* FQL provides the datetime data type for date and time. The following ISO 8601-compatible datetime formats are supported in queries:
YYYY-MM-DD
YYYY-MM-DDThh:mm:ss
YYYY-MM-DDThh:mm:ssZ
YYYY-MM-DDThh:mm:ssfrZ
Reference: FAST Query Language (FQL) syntax reference
QUESTION 5
You have a SharePoint farm. You create a web service that connects to an extension point in the Search service. The web service processes string content and returns the string in all capitalized letters. The web service includes the properties in the following table.
You start the SharePoint Management Shell. You create the following Windows PowerShell cmdlet: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need to complete the Windows PowerShell cmdlet to register the Content Enrichment service. Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You develop a SharePoint app that reads data from an external source by using Business Connectivity Services (BCS). The following markup defines the subscription: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
Employee identification (ID) numbers that are less than 100 must be ignored.
You need to configure the subscription.
What should you do?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You configure a SharePoint app to collect diagnostic information. The app must meet the following requirements: Record messages about all unrecoverable events that limit the functionality of the app, but do not stop the app. Record all events that include unexpected exceptions. Minimize the effects of logging on app performance. You need to configure the application to meet the requirements. Which trace log level should you use?
A. High
B. Medium
C. Unexpected
D. Monitorable
E. Verbose
070-489 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You develop a SharePoint app that displays information about automobile parts. You need to create a user profile property to classify automobile parts into categories. Which property name should you specify?
A. part-Classification
B. part.classification
C. part_classification
D. Part Classification
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You develop a SharePoint app that reads social data from your company’s SharePoint site.
You need to access the SocialFeedManager object.
Which object or URL should you use?
A. http:///_api/social.feed
B. SocialFeedManager(ClientRuntimeContext, ObjectPath);
C. http:///social.feed
D. SPSocialFeedManager(UserProfile);
070-489 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
You have a custom Web Part that retrieves data across multiple task lists.
Pages that contain the Web Part load slowly.
You need to ensure that pages load as quickly as possible.
Which methods should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. CrossListQueryCache.GetSiteData(SPContext.Current.Site, siteUrl)
B. CrossListQueryCache.GetSiteData(SPContext.Current.Site)
C. Cache.Get(siteUrl)
D. SPList.GetItems(spQuery)
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: GetSiteData method (SPSite, String)
Gets the cache data from the specified site and from the specified webUrl.
C: Cache.Get Method
Retrieves the specified item from the Cache object.
QUESTION 11
You have a SharePoint publishing site. The marketing team tags their documents by using a managed metadata field named Location. The site has been fully crawled. Documents are tagged with city names only. A SharePoint app on the site displays search results by using the following term set.
You create the following code segment to query the contents of the site: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need to create a Keyword Query Language (KQL) expression to return results for all assets in the Central region. Which code segment should you insert at line 02?
A. varqueryTerms = “Location”;
B. varqueryTerms = “577c8e48-d5d9-4e5f-8e35-408c723feb11”;
C. varqueryTerms = “b49f64b3-4722-4336-9a5c-56c326b344d4”;
D. varqueryTerms = “owstaxidlocation: 1acfae8a-70b4-4ce0-bfbf-96c0e711f 8df” 070-489 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
You create a SharePoint site collection for a law firm. You create the following objects in the site collection.
A user searches for a legal case. The search results must contain only current cases. You need to create a custom result type that displays only current cases. Which object should you use?
A. Cases
B. MPCaseID
C. case
D. ows_CaseID
E. CaseID
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
You access a Records Management site in SharePoint. You create the following segment: (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
Search results must display documents that contain specific keywords by using the following custom display template:
You need to implement the custom display template. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
070-489 pdf Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You use Visual Studio to design a SharePoint solution for a company that sells wine to customers around the world. The solution must return the total number of cases sold per country. The solution also must allow employees to sort cases of wine that are returned. Employees must sort cases by country, date, and reason for the return. You need to configure the solution to meet the requirements. Which steps should you take? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add a Refinement Web Part to the page.
B. Configure the query for the Content Search Web Part.
C. Add country as a property filter to the Search Results Web Part.
D. Add a Calendar Web Part to the page.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A:
* From question:
. Employees must sort cases by country, date, and reason for the return.
* On the REFINERS tab, you can choose to limit returned results by adding preselected refiners to your query.
You can specify that the search results that are returned in the Search Results Web Part should be limited to one or more values from the refiners. The list shows all managed properties that are enabled as refiners in the search schema.
B: The Search Results Web Part shows the search results of a query that was entered in a Search Box Web Part.
C: From question:
The solution must return the total number of cases sold per country.
Note:
* Use property filters to query the content of managed properties that are set to queryable in the search schema.
First, this is the problem of resonance. We truly understand the needs of the candidates, and comprehensively than any other site. The pass4itsure feature is helpful in selecting the 70-489 dumps exam questions according to your potential. And keep attempting the same question several time so you can overcome the exam anxiety. If you still desperately cram knowledge and spend a lot of precious time and energy to prepare for passing Microsoft certification 070-489 exam, and at the same time do not know how to choose a more effective shortcut to pass Microsoft certification 070-489 exam. Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-489 questions and answers will help to prepare for your exam training materials you need.
What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?
Second, focus. In order to do the things we decided to complete, we have to give up all the unimportant opportunities. Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund. Like actual certification 070-489 dumps exams, multiple-choice questions (multiple-choice questions) to help you pass the exam. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.
Third, the quality of the product. People always determine a good or bad thing based on the surface. We may have the best products of the highest quality, but if we shows it with a shoddy manner, it naturally will be as shoddy product. We believe in “Actions speak louder than words” that’s why Pass4itsure recommend you to must try its free 70-489 dumps demo, you will notice the intuitive UI and also you will find it very easy to customize the preparation mode. The our Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-489 exam training materials, the verified exam, these questions and answers reflect the professional and practical experience of Pass4itsure.
High Pass Rate Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-489 Dumps Practice Exam, Real Microsoft 70-489 Dumps Answers, We Help You Pass Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions.
Career competitive is similar with playing tennis, if you want to defeat your opponents every time, you will improve yourself continuously. You can choose Microsoft 70-410 dumps materials to help you clear exams. 2017 newest Microsoft 070-410 dumps Installing and Configuring with free https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-410.html dumps exam questions with 100% Pass Rate on Slideboom.
Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 06, 2017
Q&As: 503
Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Training Program Online Here:
Question No : 21 You develop a SubVI that only outputs a value and need to use this SubVI in a (calling) VI.
Which of the following is the best way to enforce dataflow to control the execution of the
SubVI? A. Use the SubVI in a Sequence structure B. Modify the SubVI to have dummy inputs that can be used from the calling VI C. Modify the SubVI to have Error clustersthat can be used from the calling VI D. Modify the SubVI to have a global variable and use it from the calling VI
070-410 exam Answer: C Explanation: What is the value in Shift Register Answer after the following code has executed?
Question No : 22
A. 16 B. 24 C. 32 D. 10 Answer: C Explanation:
Question No : 23Which Chart update mode should be used to draw new data from left to right, then clear t
he chart and draw new data again from left to right? A. Strip Chart B. Scope Chart C. Sweep Chart D. Step Chart 070-410 dumpsAnswer: B Explanation:
Question No : 24Which of the following illustrates an advantage of a global variable over a local variable? A. A global variable can pass data between two independent VIs runningsimultaneously B. Only the global variable can pass array data, local variables cannot C. Global variables follow the dataflow model, and therefore cannot cause raceconditions D. Global variables do not require owned labels to operate Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 25Which timing function (VI) is the best choice for timing control logic in applications that run
for extended periods of time? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
070-410 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 26 Under which of the following conditions does a For loop stop executing? A. When afalsevalue is present at the conditional terminal and the conditionalterminal
isC:\Documents and Settings\RraAsShHiIdD\Desktop\untitled.JPG B. When the value of the iteration terminal,C:\Documents and
Settings\RraAsShHiIdD\Desktop\untitled.JPG, is one less than the value of thecount
terminal,C:\Documents and Settings\RraAsShHiIdD\Desktop\untitled.JPG C. When the value of the iteration terminal,C:\Documents and
Settings\RraAsShHiIdD\Desktop\untitled.JPG, is one more than the value of thecount
terminal,C:\Documents and Settings\RraAsShHiIdD\Desktop\untitled.JPG D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation:
Question No : 27 You are inputting data that represents a circle. The circle data includes an x position, a position, and a radius. All three pieces of data are double-precision. In the future, you m
need to store the color of the circle, represented as an integer. How should you repres
the circle on your front panel window? A. Three separate controls for the two positions and the radius. B. A cluster containing all of the data. C. A type definition containing a cluster. D. An array with three elements.
070-410 vce Answer: C Explanation:
Question No : 28Which of the following will cause an event to be captured by the LabVIEW Event Structure? A. Changing a value on a Front Panel control via a mouse click B. Update of a Front Panel control using a property node C. Programmatic update of a Front Panel control via a control reference D. Using VI Server to update aFront Panel control Answer: A Explanation:
Question No : 29 Which of the following does not conform to data flow programming paradigm? A. Shift Registers B. Tunnels C. SubVIs D. Local Variables 070-410 exam Answer: D Explanation:
Question No : 30 You must store data that other engineers must analyze with Microsoft Excel. Which file
storage format should you use? A. Tab-delimited ASCII B. Custom binary format C. TDM D. Datalog Answer: A Explanation:
Question No : 31What is the result of the following Array addition? A. a.1-D Array of {80, 20, 40, 10,-60} B. b.1-D Array of {120, 30,-60} C. c.1-D Array of {120, 30} D. d.2-D Array of {{120, 90, 20}, {60, 30,-40}} 070-410 dumps Answer: C Explanation:
Question No : 32Which of the following statements is false? A. A SubVI connector pane defines where to wire inputs and outputs B. The color of a SubVI connector pane terminal matches the data type it isconnected to C. You must have an icon/connector to use a SubVI D. A SubVI icon can beedited from the functions palette Answer: D Explanation:
Question No : 33 The most efficient method for creating an array is: A. Using a Forloop with Auto-indexing B. Placing a build array function in a Whileloop C. Initializing an array and then replacing elements in a Whileloop D. Using a Whileloopwith Auto-Indexing 070-410 pdf Answer: A Explanation:
Question No : 34The following block diagram represents which common type of VI architecture? A. Multiple Case Structure VI B. General VI C. State Machine VI D. Parallel Loop VI Answer: C Explanation: Question No : 35
Which of the following statements is true about the iteration terminal? A. It returnsthe number of times the loop has executed B. It returns the number of times the loop has executed, plus one C. It returns the number of times the loop has executed, minus one D. It returns a constant number 070-410 vce Answer: C Explanation:
Question No : 36For implementing state diagrams that allow future application scalability, the best choice for
a base structure is? A. Sequence structure B. Case structure C. Formula node D. Object-Oriented structure Answer: B Explanation:
Question No : 37Which of the following Block Diagrams could produce this result in Waveform Graph?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
070-410 exam Answer: A Explanation:
Question No : 38 If an input name on the Show Context Help window is in bold for a SubVI, which of the
following conditions are true? (Choose all apply) A. Input values must be scalar. B. An input is recommended, but not required. C. An input is required. D. A broken run arrow will result unless the input is wired. Answer: C,D Explanation:
Question No : 39 Which of the following apply to Property Nodes? (Choose all apply) A. Property Nodes allow attributes of front panel objects to be
programmaticallymanipulated. B. Property Nodes can be used to update the values contained in a front panelobject. C. More than one Property Node can be used for a single front panel object. D. Property Nodes contained in aSubVI will always cause the front panel to beloaded in
memory. 070-410 dumps Answer: A,B,C,D Explanation:
You will get an outstanding advantage over others while applying a same position. You will get better Pass4itsure 70-410 dumps benefits and salary. Our Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-410.html dumps will be the best preparation tool for every candidate.
The dashboard owner wants to change the order of the statuses shown in the gadget to appear as follows.
