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QUESTION 6
System Administrator, Cliff Warner, asks you how he can prevent the discovery of non-SNMP enabled devices in his infrastructure. Which advice should you offer?
A. Disable ICMP on the Data Collectors.
B. Change the ICMP packet size to zero.
C. Disable ICMP discovery in the Discovery profiles.
D. Continue to permit the discovery of all devices because CA Performance Management only monitors SNMP-based devices by default.
070-347 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION 7
While logged in as a tenant administrator you begin creating the user accounts for that tenant. You want to assign a specific role to an account. However, the role does not appear to be among the available roles. What is the likely reason for this?
A. The role has not been created.
B. The role was assigned to another tenant.
C. You do not have permission to see the role.
D. Only CA Technologies Services can perform this action.
Answer: A
QUESTION 8
To help ensure that CA Performance Center operations run smoothly, which guidelines should you follow? (Choose three)
A. Check log files daily or at least weekly.
B. Purge log files manually every two weeks to avoid performance and space issues.
C. Test the Vertica database for consistency at least once a week using DBVisualizer.
D. Only change logging levels in the log4j.xml files for a service if advised to do so by CA Technologies support.
E. If you have access to the CA Performance Center server,run the grep-i command with the appropriate keyword to search multiple log files for error instances.
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Answer: A,D,E
QUESTION 9 The following application is set to auto-run at startup: Which approach would most reliably solve the problem this application will encounter? (Choose one.)
A. It should callThread.sleep() for ten seconds before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry device has completed its boot up process
B. Threads should be moved to their own standalone class so that they do not cause a security exception
C. Theint values in the MenuItem constructor should equal the y MenuString length to leave enough room for the string
D. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry device has completed its boot up process
E. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry device has completed its boot up process
F. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry device has completed its boot up process
G. ThemakeMenu method of MainScreen must be overridden to use a menu
Answer: D,E,F
QUESTION 10 A developer is designing a BlackBerry device application that provides summaries of large amounts of data. The summaries require extensive computations. Which design approach will meet these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. Store the full set of data locally on removable media using a compressed format

B. Supplement memory available on the BlackBerry device and compute the results locally
C. Use URL encodings to expedite the transfer of data between a remote server and the BlackBerry device
D. Compute the summary on a remote server and access the results through a BlackBerry Enterprise Server connection
E. Use local storage and the floating point processor on the BlackBerry device to speed up computations
070-347 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 11 A customer needs an application that will store temporary data and expose it to other BlackBerry device applications. Which API will meet this requirement? (Choose one.)
A. RuntimeStore
B. PersistentStore
C. Location Based Services
D. Global Events
E. Connector
Answer: A
QUESTION 12 An application requires the creation of a custom field that can display animation. Which class and
method combination should be used to accomplish this task? (Choose one.)
A. Field.paint(Graphics graphics)
B. MainScreen.paint(Graphics graphics)
C. Field.subpaint(Graphics graphics)
D. Screen.draw(Graphics graphics)
E. GameCanvas.paint(Graphics graphics)
070-347 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Consider the Counter class whose code is below:
Assuming that the go() method is always invoked serially, why is a different count printed at the end
almost every time that it is invoked? (Choose one.)

A. Therun() method is not declared “synchronized”
B. The _count variable is not declared “synchronized”
C. The ++ operator is not atomic
D. The _count variable overflows
E. The Counter class is not declared “synchronized”
Answer: C
QUESTION 14 A developer is writing a game with custom graphics and animations that will need to fit on multiple
screen sizes for various BlackBerry devices. The developer needs to minimize the number of images
created for the game. Which API will support these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SVG
B. Display
C. Transition
D. Multimedia
E. Game
070-347 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 15 Which three of the following options are contained in a component pack? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Device Simulator
B. JavaDocs
C. API Library
D. Code signing keys
E. Unit Tests Framework
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION 16 Which push header should be used to verify that push requests are received by a BlackBerry device
application? (Choose one.)
A. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Transport
B. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-Before Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
C. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-After: Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
D. X-Rim-Push-Priority: High
E. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Application
070-347 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION 17 An application is needed that can store a list of sales data and customer information. The application
will also need the ability to search through this data and summarize it in an efficient manner. Which data
storage mechanism will assist in meeting all of these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SQLite
B. PersistentStore
C. RecordStore D.
RuntimeStore E.
FileConnection
Answer: D

QUESTION 18 Which two of the following classes could be used to check the coverage status? (Choose two.)
A. Radio
B. ConnectionFactory
C. TransportInfo
D. CoverageSate
E. CoverageInfo
070-347 pdf Answer: C,E
QUESTION 19 A developer has been asked to create an application that will display the full name of all people in a
BlackBerry device user address book. The following code is written:
Which two of the following actions must be taken before this code is executed to ensure
compatibility across all versions of BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose two.)
A. The application should initialize all entries of thecontactName String array to empty Strings
B. The application should use theContact.countValues method to verify that the Contact.NAME field
contains an entry
C. The application should verify that it can write to the user address book using
theApplicationPermissions API
D. The application should use theisNull method to verify that the Contact.NAME values are not null
E. The application should use theContactList.isSupportedField method to verify that the
Contact.NAME field can be read
Answer: B,E
QUESTION 20 Consider the code below:

How will the connection route be affected? (Choose one.)
A. The connection is never routed through the BlackBerry Infrastructure
B. The connection is routed over the cellular network
C. The connection is routed over the Wi-Fi
D. The connection is routed over the BlackBerry Internet Service -B
E. The connection is never routed through the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
070-347 vce Answer: E
QUESTION 21 Consider the addTask() method defined below. Its purpose is to receive incoming tasks and put them
into a Vector, _tasks. Another thread will continuously remove the task at index 0 from the Vector.
Assuming that addTask() is being invoked at a rate roughly equal to the rate at which the tasks are being
processed, which concurrency issue may occur during execution? (Choose one.)
A. Livelock
B. Deadlock
C. Race condition
D. Starvation
E. Unfairness
Answer: D
QUESTION 22 Consider the following small application which creates a linked list like structure:

After execution, at which statement does the ListElement object created at line 6 become a candidate for
garbage collection? (Choose one.)
A. 16
B. 17
C. 21C.21
D. 22D.22
E. 23E.23
070-347 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 23 Which keys are required to use the encryption classes in the Java API in order to store encrypted data
on a BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Code development keys
B. Code signing keys
C. Code runtime keys
D. Code encryption keys
E. Code storage keys
Answer: B

QUESTION NO 24
The permanent licenses on the controller will be deleted with the use of which command?
A. delete license
B. write erase
C. Licenses cannot be deleted once activated
D. write erase all
070-347 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which statement is true about the Content Security License?
A. Applied to the master controller
B. Applied to all the controllers in the network
C. It is based on number of users
D. It is based on number of APs
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26 What is the best practice regarding licensing for a backup master to support Master Redundancy?
A. Backup master only requires the AP license
B. License limits should be the same on primary master and backup Master
C. Licenses are pushed from the primary to the backup Master along with the configuration
D. Backup Master does not require licenses to support master redundancy
070-347 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 27
Which may be applied directly to an interface? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Access List (ACL)
B. Firewall Policy
C. Roles
D. RF Plan Map
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 28
What new firewall action was added specifically for use with Aruba’s Content Security Service?
VisualRF supports import of floor plans from:
A. dst-nat
B. dual-nat
C. route dst-nat
D. redirect to tunnel
070-347 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 29
When creating a firewall policy, which of the following parameters are required? (Choose all the
correct answers.)
A. Destination
B. Service
C. Source
D. Log
E. Action
Answer: A,B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 30
In all unmodified default AAA profiles, in which default initial role is the user placed?
A. trusted-ap
B. guest
C. pre-guest
D. logon
070-347 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 31
When are the system-defined default roles added to the configuration on the controller?
A. when the controller is first booted
B. when an RF Proctect license is added to the controller
C. when created manually
D. when a PEF-NG license is added to the controller
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 32
When a user first associates to the WLAN, what role are they given?
A. the guest role
B. the stateful role
C. the initial role in the server group profile
D. the initial role in the AAA profile
70-347 dumps
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following could be used to set a user’s post-authentication role or VLAN association?
(Choose all the correct answers.)
A. AAA default role for authentication method
B. Server Derivation Rule
C. Vendor Specific Attributes
D. AP Derivation Rule
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which describe “roles” as used on Aruba Mobility Controllers? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Roles are assigned to users.
B. Roles are applied to interfaces.
C. Policies are built from roles.
D. A user can belong to only one role at a time.
070-347 pdf 
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 35
Which netdestination aliases are built into the controller? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. mswitch
B. any
C. user
D. guest
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 36
What are aliases used for?
A. improve performance
B. simplify the configuration process
C. tie IP addresses to ports
D. assign rules to policies
070-347 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following statements allows a user to initiate an HTTP session to other devices?
A. any alias internal-nets svc-dns permit
B. user any svc-http permit
C. user user svc-http permit
D. any any svc-http permit
Answer: B,D



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QUESTION NO: 68
Wendy manages ten Google AdWords accounts for her clients. She would like to organize her billing so that she makes one payment for the clients account rather than ten individual payments, i.e., one for each client she manages. What approach should Wendy follow in this instance?
A. Google does not allow multiple accounts to be billed to one invoice.
B. Google recommends that Wendy move her accounts into the My Client Center with her cred it card.
C. Google recommends that Wendy enroll in the Manager Defined Spend.
D. Google recommends that Wendy subscribe to the Manager Order-level monthly invoice.
70-765 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 69
You are a consultant for several clients and you manage their Google AdWords campaigns. You’re using the AdWords Editor to manage these campaigns. One of your clients has provided you with 110 new keywords for their Google AdWords campaign. Using the Google AdWords Editor, how can you add these new keywords?
A. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Keywords tab.
B. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Settings tab.
C. Google AdWords Editor will only allow upto 100 changes to the keywords at a time. You’ll need to add 100 keywords, upload the changes, and then add the remaining 10 keywords through the Keywords tab in the Editor.
D. Google AdWords Editor doesn’t allow you to add keywords offline. The keywords must be added through the My Client Center.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 70
Julie’s company has created a video ad for the Google Content Network and she has elected to use the CPC pricing. Julie’s manager is concerned that the CPC pricing will be expensive, as the company will have to pay each time the video is played. What should Julie tell her manager about the costs of the CPC pricing?
A. The company will pay for each click to watch the video, as long as the person watches the video in its entirety.
B. The company will pay for each click on the video that leads a user to the destination websit e.
C. The company will pay for each click to watch the video. billing so that she makes one payment for the clients account rather than ten individual payments, i.e., one for each client she manages. What approach should Wendy follow in this instance?
A. Google does not allow multiple accounts to be billed to one invoice.
B. Google recommends that Wendy move her accounts into the My Client Center with her cred it card.
C. Google recommends that Wendy enroll in the Manager Defined Spend.
D. Google recommends that Wendy subscribe to the Manager Order-level monthly invoice.
70-765 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 69
You are a consultant for several clients and you manage their Google AdWords campaigns. You’re using the AdWords Editor to manage these campaigns. One of your clients has provided you with 110 new keywords for their Google AdWords campaign. Using the Google AdWords Editor, how can you add these new keywords?
A. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Keywords tab.
B. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Settings tab.
C. Google AdWords Editor will only allow upto 100 changes to the keywords at a time. You’ll need to add 100 keywords, upload the changes, and then add the remaining 10 keywords through the Keywords tab in the Editor.
D. Google AdWords Editor doesn’t allow you to add keywords offline. The keywords must be added through the My Client Center.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 70
Julie’s company has created a video ad for the Google Content Network and she has elected to use the CPC pricing. Julie’s manager is concerned that the CPC pricing will be expensive, as the company will have to pay each time the video is played. What should Julie tell her manager about the costs of the CPC pricing?
A. The company will pay for each click to watch the video, as long as the person watches the video in its entirety.
B. The company will pay for each click on the video that leads a user to the destination websit e.
C. The company will pay for each click to watch the video. castle near Phoenix, Arizona. The castle is a landmark for Phoenix residents and it’s a popular place for weddings, banquets, and parties. Which one of the following is the best choice for targeting Sally’s market to a very specific area?
A. Customized targeting
B. Region and City targeting
C. Country targeting
D. City targeting
70-765 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
Ivan has created advertisements for his online printing business. His ads have been running for two months, and he’d like to get a sense of where his ads are geographically being shown. How can Ivan see the geographical information where his Google AdWords are being shown?
A. Ivan must create an IP Address report, and then resolve the IP addresses to locations.
B. Ivan must create a Geographic Performance Report in his account.
C. Unless Ivan creates a location targeting ad, he won’t see this information.
D. Ivan must create an IP Address Report; Google will resolve the IP Address to locations.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 75
Bill and Sally are working together on a large Google AdWords campaign, though they are in two separate locations. Sally has exported her proposed changes to Bill in the Google AdWords Editor and Bill has imported the Account Snapshot through his Google AdWords Editor. When Bill examines the proposed changes Sally has made, how will he know which changes are proposed?
A. Proposed changes are in purple.
B. He’ll need to compare his version with Sally’s version of the campaigns.
C. Proposed changes are in red.
D. Proposed changes are in blue.
70-765 vce Answer: D

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Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Q&As: 204

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Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  You need to recommend which recovery solution will restore access to all of the mailboxes in AccountingDB if EX1 fails. The solution must restore access to email messages as quickly as possible. Which recovery solution should you recommend?
A. On EX2, create a new mailbox database. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the New-MailboxRestoreRequest cmdlet for all of the mailboxes in the database.
B. On EX2, create a new mailbox database. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet for all of the mailboxes in the database.
C. On replacement hardware, run setup /mode:recoverserver. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. On replacement hardware, run setup /mode:recoverserver. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the New-MailboxRestoreRequest cmdlet for all of the mailboxes in the database.
070-341 exam Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation/Reference: Restore Data Using a Recovery Database  Create a Recovery Database
Question No : 11 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You need to recommend to a solution to deploy the Outlook app. Which three actions
should you recommend performing in sequence?
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Question No : 12 – (Topic 2)
You need to identify which business requirement will be met by implementing the planned hardware load balancer.
Which business requirement should you identify?
A. Minimize the hardware costs required for a load balancing solution.
B. Minimize the software costs required for a load balancing solution.
C. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Client Access server.
D. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Mailbox server.
070-341 dump Answer: C
Explanation:
NOT A
Introducing a load balancing solution will not minimize hardware costs
NOT B
Introducing a hardware load balancing solution will not minimize software costs
NOT D
A hardware load balancer connects to the Client Access servers not the Mailbox servers.
C
Question No : 13 – (Topic 2)  A hardware load balancer connects to the Client Access servers not the Mailbox servers AND is designed to minimize user interruptions Understanding Load Balancing in Exchange 2010: Exchange 2010 Help You need to resolve the search issue reported by the users in the New York office. You restart the Microsoft Exchange Search service and discover that the active copy of the mailbox database has a content indexing status of Unknown. What should you do next?
A. Rebuild the content index.
B. Run the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet and specify the -manualresume parameter.
C. Restart the Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Replication service.
D. Run the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet and specify the -catalogonly parameter.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Content Indexing also known as CI is a great feature to speed up item searching through
mailboxes.
Microsoft Exchange Search service Exchange 2013 introduces the following changes to Exchange Search: The underlying content indexing engine has been replaced with Microsoft Search Foundation, which provides performance and functionality improvements and serves as the common underlying content indexing engine in Exchange and SharePoint. The management interface, however, remain the same. By default, the Search Foundation handles the most common file formats in email
attachments. You no longer need to install Microsoft Office Filter Packs for Exchange Search. For a list of the file formats handled by Exchange Search, see File Formats Indexed By Exchange Search. You can add support for any additional file formats by install IFilters, as in Exchange 2010. Content indexing is more efficient because it now processes messages in the transport pipeline. As a result, messages addressed to multiple recipients or distribution groups are processed only once. An annotation stream is attached to the message, significantly speeding up content indexing while consuming fewer resources.
A
One of the first actions most Exchange Administrators generally take when troubleshooting suspected problems with Exchange Content Indexing will be to rebuild the impacted Mailbox Database’s content index files (either manually or by using the ResetSearchIndex.ps1 script found in the \Exchange Server\Scripts directory). Makes sure that Exchange content index always remain healthy.
NOT B
Not a database replication issue If the content index catalog for a mailbox database copy gets corrupted, you may need to
reseed the catalog. Seeding is also known as updating. Use the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet to seed or reseed a mailbox database copy.

EXAMPLE 1
This example seeds a copy of the database DB1 on the Mailbox server MBX1. Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy -Identity DB1\MBX1 The ManualResume switch specifies whether to automatically resume replication on the database copy. With this parameter, you can manually resume replication to the database copy.
NOT C
Not related to an indexing issue. In Exchange 2013, the Microsoft Exchange Replication service periodically monitors the
health of all mounted databases. In addition, it also monitors the Extensible Storage Engine (ESE) for any I/O errors or failures. When the service detects a failure, it notifies Active Manager. Active Manager then determines which database copy should be mounted and what it requires to mount that database. In addition, it tracks the active copy of a mailbox database (based on the last mounted copy of the database) and provides the tracking results information to the Client Access server to which the client is connected.
NOT D
Content index needs to be rebuilt If the content index catalog for a mailbox database copy gets corrupted, you may need to
reseed the catalog. Seeding is also known as updating. Use the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet to seed or reseed a mailbox database copy.
EXAMPLE 1
This example seeds a copy of the database DB1 on the Mailbox server MBX1. Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy -Identity DB1\MBX1 The CatalogOnly parameter specifies that only the content index catalog for the database copy should be seeded.
Exchange Search: Exchange 2013 Help

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QUESTION 1
Which platform has an API that can be used to obtain a list of vulnerable software on user devices?
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. Cisco Firepower
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/630/fdm/fptd-fdm-config-guide-630/fptd-fdm-getstarted.html

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 200-901 exam questions q2

What is represented in this YANG module?
A. interface
B. BGP
C. OpenFlow
D. topology
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://github.com/CiscoDevNet/dnav3-code/blob/master/intro-mdp/yang/models/Cisco-IOS-XE-interfacesoper.yang

QUESTION 3
Which mechanism is used to consume a RESTful API design when large amounts of data are returned?
A. data sets
B. scrolling
C. pagination
D. blobs
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://nordicapis.com/everything-you-need-to-know-about-api-pagination/

QUESTION 4
Which API is used to obtain data about voicemail ports?
A. Webex Teams
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Finesse Gadgets D. Webex Devices
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
On which network plane is routing protocol traffic handled?
A. management plane
B. data plane
C. authentication plane
D. control plane
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/understanding_cppr

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 200-901 exam questions q6

A REST API returns this JSON output for a GET HTTP request, which has been assigned to a variable called
“vegetables”. Using Python, which output is the result of this command? print(filter(lambda 1: 1[ `type\\’ ] == `fruit\\’,
vegetables) [0][`items\\’][0][`items\\’][0])
A. {`color\\’: `green\\’, `items\\’: [`kiwi\\’, `grape\\’]}
B. [`kiwi\\’, `grape\\’]
C. lettuce
D. kiwi
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 200-901 exam questions q7

An administrator attempts to perform a GET using the Cisco IOS XE RESTCONF API to return the hostname of a
device. The sequence diagram illustrates the HTTP messages observed. Which change to the API request resolves the
issue?
A. Remove the –H ‘Accept: application/yang-data+json’ HTTP header because it is not required.
B. Use –u cisco:cisco instead of –u ‘cisco:cisco’
C. Change the request method from –X “GET” to –X “POST”
D. Add Content-Type HTTP header with ‘application/yang-data+json’ using –H ‘Content-Type: application/yangdata+json’
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct networking devices on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 200-901 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Cisco 200-901 exam questions q8-2
 
QUESTION 9
Which two use cases are supported by Meraki APIs? (Choose two.)
A. Build location-aware apps from Wi-Fi and LoRaWAN devices.
B. Build a custom Captive Portal for Mobile Apps.
C. Configure network devices via the Dashboard API.
D. Deploy applications onto the devices.
E. Retrieve live streams from a Meraki Camera.
Correct Answer: AE
 
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
Pass4itsure Cisco 200-901 exam questions q10
The definition of the YANG module and a RESTCONF query sent to a Cisco IOS XE device is shown. Which statement
is correct if the RESTCONF interface responds with a 204 status code?
A. The query retrieved the logging severity level.
B. The query updated the logging severity level or created it if not present on the device.
C. The query failed at retrieving the logging severity level.
D. The query failed to set the logging severity level due to an invalid path.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/1611/b_1611_programmability_cg/restconf_programmable_interface.html
 
QUESTION 11
A function my_func() returns True when it executes normally. Which Python snippet tests my_func()?
Pass4itsure Cisco 200-901 exam questions q11
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://github.com/django/django/blob/master/tests/auth_tests/test_mixins.py
 
QUESTION 12
FILL BLANK
Fill in the blanks to complete the Python script to request a service ticket using the APIC-EM REST API for the user
“devnetuser”.
import requests
import json
controller = `devnetapi.cisco.com/sandbox/apic_em\\’
url = “https://” + controller + “api/va/ticket”
payload = {`username\\’: `_________________\\’, `password\\’: `370940885\\’}
header = {`Content-type\\’: `application.json\\’}
response = _______________________.post(url, data=json.dumps(payload), \
headers= ______________________, verify=False)
r_json = response.json()
print(r_json)
ticket = r_json[“response”][“serviceTicket”]
print(ticket)
A.
Correct Answer: See below.
 

Mar 2020 200-901 Exam Crack, Cisco 200-901 Latest Questions https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-901.html(Q&As: 102) 200-901 Dumps Practice Exam Questions.Pass4itsure 200-901 preparation materials help you to pass exam on the first try. 

I have planned a series of learning topics for the az-103 exam. Take a look and share with others who might be preparing for the exam, AZ-103 Study Guide!Alternatively you can choose https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-103.html Latest Microsoft AZ-103 exam dumps and practice test questions.Happily passed the Microsoft Azure Administrator exam!

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2020 AZ-103 Study Guide!

You can start preparing for the exam with the help of a wealth of information and practical Microsoft documentation. For registration information and videos of typical exam question formats, see Microsoft Certification Exam Overview.

View:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-103
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/community-blog-post.aspx?BlogId=8&Id=375217

Take a practice test to become familiar with the resources and services provided by Azure.

Free Share Microsoft Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 practice test:

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure policy as shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q1

What is the effect of the policy?
A. You are prevented from creating Azure SQL Servers in ContosoRG1 only.
B. You can create Azure SQL servers in ContosoRG1 only.
C. You can create Azure SQL servers in any resource group within Subscription1.
D. You are prevented from creating Azure SQL servers anywhere in Subscription1.
Correct Answer: B
You are prevented from creating Azure SQL servers anywhere in Subscription 1 with the exception of ContosoRG1

QUESTION 2
You have an on-premises network that includes a Microsoft SQL Server instance named SQL1.
You create an Azure Logic App named App1.
You need to ensure that App1 can query a database on SQL1.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q2-2

To access data sources on premises from your logic apps, you can create a data gateway resource in Azure so that
your logic apps can use the on-premises connectors. Box 1: From an on-premises computer, install an on-premises
data gateway. Before you can connect to on-premises data sources from Azure Logic Apps, download and install the onpremises data gateway on a local computer. Box 2: From the Azure portal, create an on-premises data gateway Create
Azure resource for gateway After you install the gateway on a local computer, you can then create an Azure resource
for your gateway. This step also associates your gateway resource with your Azure subscription.
1.Sign in to the Azure portal. Make sure you use the same Azure work or school email address used to install the
gateway.
2.On the main Azure menu, select Create a resource > Integration > On-premises data gateway.
3.On the Create connection gateway page, provide this information for your gateway resource.
4.To add the gateway resource to your Azure dashboard, select Pin to dashboard. When you\\’re done, choose Create.
Box 3: From the Logic Apps Designer in the Azure portal, add a connector After you create your gateway resource and
associate your Azure subscription with this resource, you can now create a connection between your logic app and your
on-premises data source by using the gateway.
5.In the Azure portal, create or open your logic app in the Logic App Designer.
6.Add a connector that supports on-premises connections, for example, SQL Server.
7.Set up your connection

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q2-3

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-gateway-connection

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1.
You have 5 TB of data that you need to transfer to Subscription1.
You plan to use an Azure Import/Export job.
What can you use as the destination of the imported data?
A. Azure SQL Database
B. Azure File Storage
C. An Azure Cosmos DB database
D. The Azure File Sync Storage Sync Service
E. Azure Data Factory
F. A virtual machine
Correct Answer: B
Azure Import/Export service is used to securely import large amounts of data to Azure Blob storage and Azure Files by
shipping disk drives to an Azure datacenter.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service

QUESTION 4
You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and
hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016.
You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery.
You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and a Hyper-V site named Site1.
You need to add Host1 to ASR1.
What should you do?
A. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the vault registration key. Install the
Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
B. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the storage account key. Install the
Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
C. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the vault registration key. Install the
Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
D. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the storage account key. Install the
Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
Correct Answer: A
Download the Vault registration key. You need this when you install the Provider. The key is valid for five days after you
generate it.
Install the Provider on each VMM server. You don\\’t need to explicitly install anything on Hyper-V hosts.
Incorrect Answers:
B, D: Use the Vault Registration Key, not the storage account key.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-on-premises-azure

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains the resources in the following table.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q5

A web server runs on VM1 and VM2.
When you request a webpage named Page1.htm from the Internet, LB1 balances the web requests to VM1 and VM2,
and you receive a response.
On LB1, you have a rule named Rule1 as shown in the Rule1 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q5-2

You have a health probe named Probe1 as shown in the Probe1 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q5-3

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q5-4

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q5-5

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You manage a virtual network named VNet1 that is hosted in the West US Azure region. VNet1 hosts two virtual
machines named VM1 and VM2 that run Windows Server. You need to inspect all the network traffic from VM1 to VM2
for a
period of three hours. Solution: From Azure Network Watcher, you create a connection monitor.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Azure Network Watcher provides tools to monitor, diagnose, view metrics, and enable or disable logs for resources in
an Azure virtual network.
The connection monitor capability monitors communication at a regular interval and informs you of reachability, latency,
and network topology changes between the VM and the endpoint.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-monitoring-overview

QUESTION 7
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named adatum.com.
You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users.
What should you do?
A. Configure a playbook in Azure AD conditional access policy.
B. Create an Azure AD conditional access policy.
C. Create and configure the Identify Hub.
D. Install and configure Azure AD Connect.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-mfasettings

QUESTION 8
You plan to migrate an on-premises Hyper-V environment to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery. The Hyper-V
environment is managed by using Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
The Hyper-V environment contains the virtual machines in the following table.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q8

Which virtual machine can be migrated by using Azure Site Recovery?
A. DC1
B. FS1
C. CA1
D. SQL1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You configure the multi-factor authentication status for three users as shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q9

You create a group named Group1 and add Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 to the group. For all cloud apps, you create a
conditional access policy that includes Group1. The policy requires multi-factor authentication.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q9-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q9-3

Box 1: No
Disabled is the default state for a new user not enrolled in Azure MF A.
Box 2: Yes
Enforced: The user has been enrolled and has completed the registration process for Azure MFA.
Web browser apps require login in this case.
Box 3: Yes
Enabled: The user has been enrolled in Azure MFA, but has not registered. They receive a prompt to register the next
time they sign in.
Web browser apps require login in this case.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-userstates

QUESTION 10
You have a Recovery Service vault that you use to test backups. The test backups contain two protected virtual
machines.
You need to delete the Recovery Services vault.
What should you do first?
A. From the Recovery Service vault, stop the backup of each backup item.
B. From the Recovery Service vault, delete the backup data;
C. Modify the disaster recovery properties of each virtual machine.
D. Modify the locks of each virtual machine.
Correct Answer: A
You can\\’t delete a Recovery Services vault if it is registered to a server and holds backup data; If you try to delete a
vault, but can\\’t, the vault is still configured to receive backup data; Remove vault dependencies and delete vault In the
vault dashboard menu, scroll down to the Protected Items section, and click Backup Items. In this menu, you can stop
and delete Azure File Servers, SQL Servers in Azure VM, and Azure virtual machines.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q10

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-delete-vault

QUESTION 11
You have two Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft
account that you use to sign in to both tenants. You need to configure the default sign-in tenant for the Azure portal.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure portal, configure the portal settings.
B. From the Azure portal, change the directory.
C. From Azure Cloud Shell, run Set-AzureRmContext.
D. From Azure Cloud Shell, run Set-AzureRmSubscription.
Correct Answer: B
Change the subscription directory in the Azure portal.
The classic portal feature Edit Directory, that allows you to associate an existing subscription to your Azure Active
Directory (AAD), is now available in Azure portal. It used to be available only to Service Admins with Microsoft accounts,
but
now it\\’s available to users with AAD accounts as well.
To get started:
1.Go to Subscriptions.
2.Select a subscription.
3.Select Change directory. Incorrect Answers:
C: The Set-AzureRmContext cmdlet sets authentication information for cmdlets that you run in the current session. The
context includes tenant, subscription, and environment information.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/updates/edit-directory-now-in-new-portal/

QUESTION 12
You plan to support many connections to your company\\’s automatically uses up to five instances when CPU utilization
on the instances exceeds 70 percent for 10 minutes. When CPU utilization decreases, the solution must automatically
reduce the number of instances.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Answer: See below.
Correct Answer: A
Step 1: Locate the Homepage App Service plan Step 2: Click Add a rule, and enter the appropriate fields, such as
below, and the click Add. Time aggregation: average Metric Name: Percentage CPU Operator: Greater than Threshold
70 Duration: 10 minutes Operation: Increase count by Instance count: 4 Step 3: We must add a scale in rule as well.
Click Add a rule, and enter the appropriate fields, such as below, then click Add. Operator: Less than Threshold 70
Duration: 10 minutes Operation: Decrease count by Instance count: 4

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q12

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/virtual-machine-scale-sets- autoscaleportal https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/monitoring-and-diagnostics/insights-autoscale-best-practices

QUESTION 13
Your company has an Azure subscription named Subscription1.
The company also has two on-premises servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 is
configured as a DNS server that has a primary DNS zone named adatum.com. Adatum.com contains 1,000 DNS
records.
You manage Server1 and Subscription1 from Server2. Server2 has the following tools installed:
The DNS Manager console
Azure PowerShell
Azure CLI 2.0
You need to move the adatum.com zone to Subscription1. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you use?
A. Azure PowerShell
B. Azure CLI
C. the Azure portal
D. the DNS Manager console
Correct Answer: B
Azure DNS supports importing and exporting zone files by using the Azure command-line interface (CLI). Zone file
import is not currently supported via Azure PowerShell or the Azure portal.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/dns-import-export

Hope this helps.

2020 Microsoft azure certification

Microsoft technologies keeps updating its Certifications frequently.

2020 Microsoft azure certification
  • Exam AZ – 100, AZ – 101, AZ – 102 are for the Azure Administrator role ( AZ – 100 and AZ – 101 will retire on May 1st 2019, and there will be a single exam for the same role – AZ – 103)
  • Exam AZ – 202, AZ – 203 are for the Azure Developer role
  • Exam AZ – 300, AZ – 301, AZ – 302 are for the Azure Architect role
  • Exam AZ – 400 is for the Azure DevOps Engineer role

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Certificationvce shares the latest Microsoft MCSA 70-740 exam dumps for free exam practice tests and online downloads! “Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016” 70-740 exam. Ready to pass the 70-740 exam please click https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-740.html (full exam dump)

Microsoft MCSA 70-740 Exam pdf

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Exam 70-740: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-740.aspx

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments (10-15%)
  • Implement Storage Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement Hyper-V (20-25%)
  • Implement Windows Containers (5-10%)
  • Implement High Availability (30-35%)
  • Maintain and Monitor Server Environments (10-15%)

Microsoft MCSA 70-740 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a new file server named Server1 that runs a

Server Core installation of Windows Server 2016. 

Server1 has an ReFS-formatted volume D: and NTFS-formatted volume E: The volumes do not contain any data. 

You install the Data Deduplication role service on Server1. 

You need to implement Data Deduplication for volumes on D: and E:. 

Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Format-Volume D: -FileSystem EXFat and Enable-DeDupVolume

-Volume D:,E:. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

You are a server administrator at a company named Contoso, Ltd. 

Contoso has a Windows Server 2016 Hyper-V environment configured as shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q2

All of the virtual switches are of the external type.
You need to ensure that you can move virtual machines between the hosts without causing the virtual machines to
disconnect from the network.
Solution: You implement live migration by using Host2 and Host4.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to create a report that lists all of the share permissions assigned to the security principals on Server1.
How should you complete the command? To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlets to the correct targets. Each cmdlet
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q3-1

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Served that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Windows Application Proxy role
service installed. You are publishing an application named. App1 that will use Integrated Windows authentication as
shown in the following graphic.pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q4

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q4-2

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 hosts a line-of-business application named App1. App1 has a memory leak that occasionally causes the
application to consume an excessive amount of memory.
You need to log an event in the Application event log whenever App1 consumes more than 4 GB of memory.
Solution: You create an event trace data collector.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have two servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You plan to create a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster that will contain both servers.
You need to configure the network cards on the servers for the planned NLB configuration. Solution: You configure the
network cards to be on the same subnet and to have static IP addresses. You configure the cluster to use multicast.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/networking/technologies/network-load-balancing

QUESTION 7
You want to capture the state, data, and hardware configuration of a running virtual machine.
Which checkpoint can be very useful if you need to recreate a specific state or condition of a running virtual machine so
that you can troubleshoot a problem?
A. Production
B. Standard
Correct Answer: B
Standard checkpoints capture the state, data, and hardware configuration of a running virtual machine and are intended
for use in development and test scenarios.

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has several servers that run Windows Server 2016. Contoso has a Hyper-V
environment that uses failover clustering and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). The environment contains
several Windows containers and several virtual machines.
The WSUS deployment contains one upstream server that is located on the company\\’s perimeter network and several
downstream servers located on the internal network. A firewall separates the upstream server from the downstream
servers.
You plan to deploy a human resources application to a new server named HRServer5. HRServer5 contains a
FAT32-formatted data volume.
The CIO of Contoso identifies the following requirements for the company\\’s IT department:
Deploy a failover cluster to two new virtual machines.
Store all application databases by using Encrypted File System (EFS).
Ensure that each Windows container has a dedicated IP address assigned by a DHCP server.
Produce a report that lists the processor time used by all of the processes on a server named Server1 for five hours.
Encrypt all communication between the internal network and the perimeter network, including all WSUS
communications.
Automatically load balance the virtual machines hosted in the Hyper-V cluster when processor utilization exceeds 70
percent.
You need to configure the storage solution for the planned failover cluster.
You create two new generations 2 virtual machines on two separate Hyper-Vhosts named VM11 and VM12.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence next? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of
actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q8-1

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a line-of-business application named
App1. App1 has a memory leak that occasionally causes the application to consume an excessive amount of memory.
You need to log an event in the Application event log whenever App1 consumes more than 4 GB of memory.
Solution: You create a performance counter alert data collector.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your company has a testing environment that contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com The domain
contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server. 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM)
installed IPAM has the following configuration.pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q10

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q10-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-740 exam question q10-2

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices An answer choice may be
correct for more than one question in the series Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that
runs Windows Server 2016 and a two-node scale-out file server cluster named Cluster1 A virtual machine named VM1
runs on Server1 You need to migrate the storage on VM1 to Cluster1
Which tool should you use?
A. the clussvc.exe command
B. the cluster.exe command
C. the Computer Management console
D. the configurehyperv.exe command
E. the Disk Management console
F. the Failover Cluster Manager console
G. the Hyper-V Manager console
H. the Server Manager Desktop app
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 12
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has two network adapters that support
single root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV). The network adapters are from two different vendors.
You plan to install the Hyper-V server role on Server1, and then to create a virtual machine named VM1 that runs
Windows Server 2016. VM1 will use SR-IOV.
You need to ensure that VM1 can use both network adapters for load balancing and failover.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, create two virtual switches without embedded teaming. On VM1, create one NIC team.
B. On Server1, create one virtual switch without embedded teaming. On VM1, create one NIC team.
C. On Server1, create one NIC team. On VM1, create one NIC team.
D. On Server1, create one virtual switch that has embedded teaming. On VM1, create two NIC teams.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a network that contains several servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You need to use Desired State Configuration (DSC) to configure the servers to meet the following requirements:
-Install the Web Server server role.
-Start the World Wide Web Publishing service.
How should you configure the DSC resources? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct locations. Each
value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view
content.
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The latest Oracle Certified Associate 1z0-808 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1

Given: 

public class X { 

static int i; 

int j; 

public static void main(String[] args) { 

X x1 = new X(); 

X x2 = new X(); 

x1.i = 3; 

x1.j = 4; 

x2.i = 5; 

x2.j = 6; 

System.out.println( 

x1.i + ” “+ 

x1.j + ” “+ 

x2.i + ” “+ 

x2.j); 

What is the result? 

A. 3 4 5 6 

B. 3 4 3 6 

C. 5 4 5 6 

D. 3 6 4 6 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 2

Which two are valid array declaration? 

A. Object array[]; 

B. Boolean array[3]; 

C. int[] array; 

D. Float[2] array; 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 3

Given the code fragment:pass4itsure 1z0-808 exam question q3

Which statement is true?
A. After line 8, three objects are eligible for garbage collection
B. After line 8, two objects are eligible for garbage collection
C. After line 8, one object is eligible for garbage collection
D. After line 8, none of the objects are eligible for garbage collection
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Which three statements describe the object-oriented features of the Java language?
A. Objects cannot be reused.
B. A subclass can inherit from a superclass.
C. Objects can share behaviors with other objects.
D. A package must contain more than one class.
E. Object is the root class of all other objects.
F. A main method must be declared in every class.
Correct Answer: BCF


QUESTION 5
Given:
public class MyClass {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String s = ” Java Duke “;
int len = s.trim().length();
System.out.print(len);
}
}
What is the result?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 11
D. 10
E. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Java – String trim() Method
This method returns a copy of the string, with leading and trailing whitespace omitted.

 

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:pass4itsure 1z0-808 exam question q6

Which code fragment prints blue, cyan, ?

pass4itsure 1z0-808 exam question q6-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Given:pass4itsure 1z0-808 exam question q7

How many objects have been created when the line / / do complex stuff is reached?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Six
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Given:pass4itsure 1z0-808 exam question q8

What is the result?
A. 3 4 5 6
B. 3 4 3 6
C. 5 4 5 6
D. 3 6 4 6
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Given:pass4itsure 1z0-808 exam question q9

What is the result?
A. C B A
B. C
C. A B C
D. Compilation fails at line n1 and line n2
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Given:pass4itsure 1z0-808 exam question q10

What is the result?
A. 9 5
B. 81 25
C. Compilation fails.
D. 0 0
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
int [] array = {1,2,3,4,5};
for (int i: array) {
if ( i
keyword1 ;
}
System.out.println(i);
if ( i == 3) {
keyword2 ;
}}
What should keyword1 and keyword2 be respectively, in oreder to produce output 2345?
A. continue, break
B. break, break
C. break, continue
D. continue, continue
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
A method is declared to take three arguments. A program calls this method and passes only two arguments. What is the
results?
A. Compilation fails.
B. The third argument is given the value null.
C. The third argument is given the value void.
D. The third argument is given the value zero.
E. The third argument is given the appropriate falsy value for its declared type. F) An exception occurs when the method
attempts to access the third argument.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which is true about the switch statement?
A. Its expression can evaluate to a collection of values.
B. The break statement, at the end of each case block, is optional.
C. Its case label literals can be changed at runtime.
D. It must contain the default section.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/switch-statement-in-java/

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-735: OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-735.aspx

Candidates for this exam are OEM, ODM, or IDH Windows image builders who are familiar with using the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit
(Windows ADK) to manage and deploy Windows 10. These candidates install or assemble hardware with genuine preinstalled Windows 10.
These candidates also create complete images for deployment to customer devices such as desktops, laptops, and tablets.

pass4itsure 70-735 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam.

Prepare the Imaging Environment (20-25%)

  • Install deployment tools and scripts
  • Add customizations to the image
  • Create a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE)

Service the Offline Image (40-45%)

  • Add drivers to the image
  • Add language packs to the image
  • Add update packages to the image
  • Service in-box applications
  • Optimize the image
  • Deploy the image

Service the Online Image (35-40%)

  • Preinstall Office 2016
  • Create restore packages
  • Prepare the recovery environment
  • Reseal the image
  • Deploy and validate the image

Latest effective Microsoft MCP 70-735 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in these sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are building a new image of Windows 10 that contains a push-button reset solution.
You need to test whether push-button reset works as expected.
Solution: From Windows 10, you press and hold the SHIFT key, and then you restart the computer. After the computer
restarts, you click Troubleshoot, and then you click Reset this PC.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/12415/windows-10-recovery-options https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/push-button-reset-overview

 

QUESTION 2
You have a computer that runs Windows 10. The computer starts in UEFI mode and has a 64-bit processor.
You insert a USB key in the computer. The USB key has a drive letter of F.
You need to ensure that you can start the computer by using the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) from
the USB key.
Which two commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. makewinpemedia.cmd /UFD C:\WinPe F:
B. makewinpemedia.cmd /ISO C:\WinPe F:
C. copper.cmd amd64 C:\WinPe
D. dism.exe /Export-Image /SourceImageFile:C:\WinPE\boot.wim/SourceIndex:1/DestinationImageFile:F:\boot.wim
E. copper.cmd x86 C:\WinPe
Correct Answer: AE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/winpe-create-usb-bootable-drive

 

QUESTION 3
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-735 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-735 exam question q3-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/usmt/usmt-scanstate-syntax

 

QUESTION 4
You have a reference image of the 64-bit version of Windows 10. The reference image contains an application named
App1. You need to ensure that App1 is pinned to the Start menu.
Which tool or tools should you use to apply the custom Start layout to the image?
A. image.exe and Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE)
B. dism.exe and File Explorer
C. Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT)
D. Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM)
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/customize-the-start-screen

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in these sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are configuring a reference computer for a new UEFI-based deployment image of the 64-bit version of Windows 10.
The reference computer has two physical hard disk drives.
You need to configure a partition on Disk 0 to support a recovery partition.
Solution: You create a primary partition of 250 MB that uses the NTFS file system.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
This partition must be at least 300 MB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/configure-uefigpt-based-hard-drive-partitions

 

QUESTION 6
You plan to deploy an image of Windows 10 to several computers by using an answer file.
You need to identify which configuration pass you must use to configure each of the following settings:
Manufacturer in the Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup component.
UILanguage in the Microsoft-Windows-International-Core component
Which configuration pass should you use for each setting? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-735 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You have an image of Windows 10.
You obtain a feature update for Windows 10.
You need to include the feature update in the image. The solution must minimize the size of the image.
What should you do?
A. Mount the image. Run dism.exe /Add-Package, and then run dism.exe /Optimize-Image. Unmount the image.
B. Deploy the image to a computer. Install the feature update. Optimize the drive, and then capture the image.
C. Download the new installation media for Windows 10. Install Windows 10 on a computer, and then capture the
image.
D. Mount the image. Run dism.exe /Add-Package, and then run dism.exe /Cleanup-Wim. Unmount the image.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located on a network that is disconnected
from the Internet.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You download the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) setup on Computer1.
You need to create an installation source on a USB drive that can be used to install Windows ADK on Server1.
Which installation option should you use when you run the Windows ADK setup on Computer1?
A. /list
B. /layout
C. /ceip
D. /features
E. /installpath
Correct Answer: B
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/dn621908.aspx

 

QUESTION 9
You use an answer file to automate the installation of Windows 10.
You need to add your company\\’s support information to computers that you deploy.
Which component should you add to the answer file?
A. Microsoft-Windows-Setup
B. Microsoft-Windows-PnpCustomizationsNonWinPE
C. Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup
D. Microsoft-Windows-Deployment
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/customize/desktop/unattend/microsoft-windows-shell-setup-oeminformation

 

QUESTION 10
You have a reference computer that runs Windows 10. The computer contains a provisioning package named
Package1.ppkg. Package1.ppkg is located in C:\Packages\.
You plan to create an image of the reference computer.
You run sysprep.exe on the computer, and then you start the computer by using Windows Preinstallation Environment
(Windows PE).
You need to ensure that the image uses the least amount of disk space possible.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-735 exam question q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in these sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are building a new image of Windows 10 that contains a push-button reset solution.
You need to test whether push-button reset works as expected.
Solution: From Windows 10, you open the Settings app, you click Update and security, and then you click Recovery.
From Reset this PC, you click Get Started.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/12415/windows-10-recovery-options https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/push-button-reset-overview

 

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has the Windows Assessment and
Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You are building a new image of Windows 10.
You need to specify how the hard disk will be partitioned during the Windows 10 installation.
What should you do?
A. Mount the Install.Wim file.
B. Mount the Boot.Wim file.
C. Modify the Winpeshl.ini file.
D. Create an answer file.
E. Modify the Windows.ini file.
F. Create a provisioning package.
G. Load a catalog file (.clg).
H. Create a cabinet file (.cab).
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have an image of Windows 10 for a new desktop computer model.
You plan to deploy the computer to two regions.
You need to add a language interface pack to the image.
Which parameter should you specify when you run dism.exe?
A. /Add-Capability
B. /Add-Driver
C. /Add-Package
D. /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage
E. /Apply-CustomDataImage
F. /Apply-Image
G. /Apply-Unattend
H. /Export-Image
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/add-and-remove-language-packs-offline-using-dism

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Easily pass the Microsoft SQL Server 2012 70-462 exam: “Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases” – https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-462.html (Q&As: 321) Free share the latest 70-462 dumps questions and answers! Practice the test online! Improve your skills and exam experience!

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Exam 70-462: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-462.aspx

This exam is intended for database professionals who perform installation, maintenance, and configuration tasks. Other responsibilities include setting up database systems, making sure those systems operate efficiently, and regularly storing, backing up, and securing data from unauthorized access.

pass4itsure 70-462 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam.

  • Install and configure (20–25%)
  • Maintain instances and databases (15–20%)
  • Optimize and troubleshoot (15–20%)
  • Manage data (20–25%)
  • Implement security (15–20%)
  • Implement high availability (5–10%)

Latest effective Microsoft SQL Server 2012 70-462 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answers choices. An answer choice may be
correct for more than one question in the series.
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database.
The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting database is only updated from the transactional database.
The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:pass4itsure 70-462 exam question q1

One of the hard disk drives that stores the reporting database fail at 23:32 hours.
You need to ensure that the reporting database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal.
What should you do?
A. Perform a page restore.
B. Perform a partial restore.
C. Perform a point-in-time restore.
D. Restore the latest full backup.
E. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
F. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
G. Restore the latest full backup and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore each log backup taken before
the time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
H. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most
recent full backup.
Correct Answer: E
To recover the database, you must restore the latest full backup and then restore the latest differential backup.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A page restore is used to repair isolated damaged pages. It is faster than a file restores id only a few individual pages
are damaged.
B: Partial restores allow a database that contains multiple filegroups to be restored and recovered in stages. It works
with all recovery models but is more flexible for the full and bulk-logged models than for the simple model.
C: Point in time restores are not supported for the simple backup model as log files are not part of the backup.
D: The latest full backup was performed at 01:00 hours, 22 hours and 32 minutes before the hard disk failure. A
differential backup was made at 13:00 hours, 10 hours and 32 minutes before the hard disk failure. A differential backup
contains
data that has been added or updated since the last full backup and should be restored to minimize data loss.
F, G: There is no log backup in the simple backup model.
H: Only the latest differential backup needs to be restored.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms186216%28v=sql.110%29.aspx
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175168%28v=sql.110%29.aspx https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms177425%28v=sql.110%29.aspx https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175526%28v=sql.110%29.aspx

 

QUESTION 2
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named Orders. Orders contain a table named OrderShip that is
defined as follows:pass4itsure 70-462 exam question q2 A NULL value represents a domestic order. Ninety percent of the values in CountryCode are NULL.
Customers require a procedure that will return orders for all customers from a specified country. You create a new
procedure:

pass4itsure 70-462 exam question q2-1

Performance of this procedure is slow.
You need to alter the schema to optimize this query. Objects created must use a minimum amount of resources.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?

pass4itsure 70-462 exam question q2-2

A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: B
Filtered statistics can improve query performance for queries that select from well-defined subsets of data. References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190397.aspx

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Your company has a data warehouse that contains all of the sales data for your company. Several business applications
read data from the data warehouse.
You plan to deploy an indexing strategy for a 2-TB table named FactSales contains a clustered index.
You need to recommend a solution for index maintenance that meets the following requirements:
Maintenance must be performed only when index fragmentation reaches 50 percent.
Maintenance must minimize the impact on the database reads from the business applications.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-462 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-462 exam question q3-1

Step 1: Partition the table
Step 2: Create a partition function
To migrate SQL Server partition definitions to SQL Data Warehouse simply:
Eliminate the SQL Server partition scheme.
Add the partition function definition to your CREATE TABLE.
Step 3: Create a partition scheme
Partitioning requires a partition function and a partition scheme.
Step 4: Rebuild the clustered index
Rebuild the clustered index onto a new partition function/scheme.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tables-partition
https://blog.sqlrx.com/2017/02/24/sql-2016-partitioning-an-existing-table-with-a-columnstore-index/

 

QUESTION 4
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a
view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report.
You need to display dates and times in several international formats.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh213505.aspx

 

QUESTION 5
You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables.
The first table contains sales per month and the second table contains orders per day.
Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively.
You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables.
What should you do?
A. Join the two fact tables.
B. Merge the fact tables.
C. Create a time dimension that can join to both fact tables at their respective granularity.
D. Create a surrogate key for the time dimension.
Correct Answer: D
With dimensionally modeled star schemas or snowflake schemas, decision support queries follow a typical pattern: the
the query selects several measures of interest from the fact table, joins the fact rows with one or several dimensions along
the surrogate keys, places filter predicates on the business columns of the dimension tables, groups by one or several
business columns, and aggregates the measures retrieved from the fact table over a period of time.
The following demonstrates this pattern, which is also sometimes referred to as a star join query:
select ProductAlternateKey,
CalendarYear,sum(SalesAmount)
from FactInternetSales Fact
join DimTime
on Fact.OrderDateKey = TimeKey
join DimProduct
on DimProduct.ProductKey =
Fact.ProductKey
where CalendarYear between 2003 and 2004
and ProductAlternateKey like \\’BK%\\’
group by ProductAlternateKey,CalendarYear

 

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. An answer choice may be
correct for more than one question in the series.
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named Contoso on a server named Server01.
You need to prevent users from disabling server audits in Server01.
What should you create?
A. An Alert
B. A Resource Pool
C. An Extended Event session
D. A Policy
E. A Database Audit Specification
F. A SQL Profiler Trace
G. A Server Audit Specification
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database server. One of the databases on the server supports a highly active
OLTP application.
Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data into the application.
You need to identify which queries are taking longer than 1 second to run over an extended period of time.
What should you do?
A. use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of
more than 1,000.
B. Use sp_configure to set a value for the blocked process threshold. Create an extended event session.
C. Use the Job Activity monitor to review all processes that are actively running. Review the Job History to find out the
duration of each step.
D. Run the sp_who command from a query window.
E. Run the DBCC TRACEON 1222 command from a query window and review the SQL Server event log.
Correct Answer: A
Use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of more
than 1,000.
Incorrect:
Not B: The SQL Server lock monitor is responsible for implementing the logic to detect a blocking scenario if the
`blocked process threshold\\’ value is greater than 0. However, the lock monitor only wakes up every 5 seconds to
detect this
condition (it is also looking for other conditions such as deadlocks). Therefore, if you set a `blocked process threshold\\’
value to 1, it will not detect a process that has been blocking for 1 second. The minimum time it can detect a blocked process is 5 seconds.
Not E: The Traceflag 1222 Shows Deadlocks, not the Duration of a query.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/tools/sql-server-profiler/sql-server-profiler

 

QUESTION 8
You have a default installation of SQL Server that hosts an Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) application.
Users report that they experience poor overall query performance for the application.
You query the wait statistics and discover that the two top waits are CXPACKET and SOS_SCHEDULER_YIELD.
You need to modify the SQL Server settings to resolve the issue causing the poor query performance.
Which two settings should you modify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. max degree of parallelism (MAXDOP)
B. Minimum Memory
C. optimize for ad hoc workloads
D. Boost SQL Server priority
E. cost threshold for parallelism
Correct Answer: AE
A: Lower the MAXDOP.
When high CXPACKET values are encountered, a possible issue, even in the case when parallelism is evenly distributed, is
when the cost of creating the parallel plan is higher than the cost of the serialized thread. This is often something that is
overlooked and by the rule of thumb of reaching for the altering of the Max Degree of Parallelism (MAXDOP), by setting it to
1 (each and every query will be processed by the single CPU core). Configuring MAXDOP settings to 1 should be the last resource used in troubleshooting excessive CXPACKET wait times.
When a high CXPACKET value is accompanied by a LATCH_XX and with PAGEIOLATCH_XX or
SOS_SCHEDULER_YIELD, it is an indicator that slow/inefficient parallelism itself is the actual root cause of the
performance issues. And in
such a scenario if the LATCH_XX waits are ACCESS_METHODS_DATASET_PARENT or
ACCESS_METHODS_SCAN_RANGE_GENERATOR class, then it is highly possible that the parallelism level is the
bottleneck and the actual root cause of the query performance issue. This is a typical example when MAXDOP should be reduced.
E: The Cost Threshold for Parallelism (CTFP) value is in seconds and it means that for every query for which SQL
Server estimates that running time will be longer than 5 seconds, a parallel plan will be created.
To prevent unwanted parallelism, the CTFP number could be increased and by the aforementioned rule of thumb, a
minimum value of 25. Recent analysis indicates that 50 should be the optimal minimal number for modern computers.
References: https://www.sqlshack.com/troubleshooting-the-cxpacket-wait-type-in-sql-server/

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following will show you a history of job errors that have occurred in jobs scheduled to run in an SQL Server
2012 installation?
A. Look at the sys.all_job_hist table.
B. In Management Studio, navigate to SQL Server Agent -> Error Logs and look at the log for the corresponding date.
C. Open the c:\error\job.log file and search for the particular job and the errors you wish to view.
D. You must use T-SQL to write a job-logging procedure to monitor jobs.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. An answer choice may be
correct for more than one question in the series.
You administer a SQL Server server that contains a database named SalesDb. SalesDb contains a schema named
Customers that have a table named Regions. A user named UserA is a member of a role named Sales. UserA is granted
the Select permission on the Regions table. The Sales role is granted the Select permission on the Customers schema.
You need to ensure that the following requirements are met:
The Sales role does not have the Select permission on the Customers schema.
UserA has the Select permission on the Regions table.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. DENY SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM Sales
B. DENY SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM Sales
C. REVOKE SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM Sales
D. REVOKE SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM Sales
E. DENY SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM UserA
F. DENY SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM UserA
G. REVOKE SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM UserA
H. REVOKE SELECT ON Schema::Customers FOR UserA
I. EXEC sp_addrolemember `Sales\\’, `UserA\\’
J. EXEC sp_droprolemember `Sales\\’, `UserA\\’
Correct Answer: D
References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188369.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187750.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff848791.aspx

 

QUESTION 11
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server.
A process that normally runs in less than 10 seconds has been running for more than an hour.
You examine the application log and discover that the process is using session ID 60.
You need to find out whether the process is being blocked.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. SELECT * FROM sys.dm_exec_requests WHERE session_id = 60
B. SELECT * FROM sys.dm_exec_sessions WHERE session_id = 60
C. DBCC INPUTBUFFER (60)
D. DBCC OPENTRAN
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/system-dynamic-management-views/sys-dm-exec-requests-transact-sql

 

QUESTION 12
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that has a Trustworthy set to On. You create a stored procedure that
returns database-level information from Dynamic Management Views.
You grant User1 access to execute the stored procedure.
You need to ensure that the stored procedure returns the required information when User1 executes the stored
procedure. You need to achieve this goal by granting the minimum permissions required.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Grant the VIEW SERVER STATE permission to User1.
B. Move the stored procedure to the User1 schema.
C. Modify the stored procedure to include the EXECUTE AS OWNER statement. Grant VIEW SERVER STATE
permissions to the owner of the stored procedure.
D. Grant the db_datareader role on the database to User1.
E. Create a SQL Server login that has VIEW SERVER STATE permissions. Modify the stored procedure to include the
EXECUTE AS (new login) statement.
Correct Answer: CE
References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187861.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms191291.aspx

 

QUESTION 13
You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server instance.
You need to ensure that data can be replicated from a production server to two reporting servers in real time.
You also need to ensure that data on the reporting server is always accessible.
Which solution should you use?
A. Availability Groups
B. Extended Events
C. Snapshot Replication
D. Policy-Based Management
Correct Answer: A
The AlwaysOn Availability Groups feature is a high-availability and disaster recovery solution that provides an enterprise-
a level alternative to database mirroring. Introduced in SQL Server 2012, AlwaysOn Availability Groups maximizes the
availability of a set of user databases for an enterprise. An availability group supports a failover environment for a
discrete set of user databases, known as availability databases, that fail over together. An availability group supports a
set of read-write primary databases and one to four sets of corresponding secondary databases. Optionally, secondary
databases can be made available for read-only access and/or some backup operations. An availability group fails over
at the level of an availability replica. Failovers are not caused by database issues such as a database becoming suspect
due to a loss of a data file, deletion of a database, or corruption of a transaction log.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/sql/sql-server-2012/hh510230(v=sql.110)

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300-475 CLDACI – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/cldaci.html

  • ACI Architecture, Fabric and Physical Topology
  • ACI Design and Configuration
  • APIC Automation Using Northbound API
  • ACI Integration and
  • ACI Day 2 Operations

Latest effective Cisco 300-475 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
In Cisco ACI, which two statements are true about contexts? (Choose two.)
A. A tenant can have multiple contexts.
B. A context defines a Layer 2 address domain; whereas the bridge domain defines the unique Layer 3 MAC address
domain.
C. A context is equivalent to a virtual routing and forwarding instance in the networking world.
D. A context can be associated with only one bridge domain.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which answer accurately describes the fat tree design implemented as part of the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. Clos architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to spines. Policies are enforced on leafs and spines.
B. Clos architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to leafs. Policies are enforced on leafs only.
C. Multitier architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to spines. Policies are enforced on spines only.
D. Multitier architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to leafs. Policies are enforced on leafs only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three components are directly related to the Cisco ACI automation framework? (Choose three.)
A. JSON / XML
B. LLDP
C. RESTful API
D. HTTP / HTTPS
E. STP
F. OVA
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 4
Which three Cisco ACI migration options are available? (Choose three.)
A. application-centric
B. hybrid approach
C. application port-centric
D. hybrid application-centric
E. network port-centric
F. network-centric
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 5
Assuming that a service device you are integrating into the Cisco ACI is dedicated to one tenant, where should you
configure the logical device and associated concrete devices?
A. within the tenant context
B. in the device\\’s base hypervisor UI
C. within the management tenant
D. on the service device itself
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
How can system and pod health scores be viewed?
A. GUI system dashboard
B. cumulonimbus collector
C. Cisco APIC Python D. Cisco Health Score Viewer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
In a Cisco ACI cluster, which protocol is used by the Cisco APIC for discovering neighbors?
A. LLDP
B. IS-IS
C. EIGRP
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two guidelines or restrictions are valid when using traceroute? (Choose two.)
A. When the traceroute source or destination is an endpoint, the endpoint must be dynamic and not static.
B. The traceroute source and destination IP addresses are configured as a combination of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses.
C. Traceroute only supports endpoint-to-endpoint mode.
D. A traceroute that is initiated from the tenant endpoints shows the default gateway as an intermediate hop that
appears at the ingress leaf switch.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which three languages can be leveraged when developing programmatic interaction with the Cisco APIC? (Choose
three.)
A. Python
B. Ruby
C. Dash
D. Puppet
E. XML
F. HTML
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
The Cisco APIC REST API for Cisco APIC accepts and returns HTTP or HTTPS messages that contain which two types
of documents? (Choose two.)
A. HTML
B. JSON
C. Chef
D. XML
E. Python
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
Which two encoding languages are used by the Cisco APIC API? (Choose two.)
A. JSON
B. JAVA
C. BSON
D. XML
E. YAML
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
When creating EPGs in the Cisco ACI, what does this automatically create on an associated DVS?
A. network ports
B. port groups
C. ACLs
D. VLANs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are the two valid SPAN or ERSPAN source options to copy the traffic from the ports as part of troubleshooting?
(Choose two.)
A. one or more switch ports
B. a Layer 3 subinterface (l3extLIfP)
C. VLANs or EPGs
D. a destination IP for the ERSPAN with an IPv6 address
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Service graphs and service functions have which three characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. Service graphs can only consist of a single service appliance.
B. Service graph edges are directional.
C. Taps (hardware-based packet copy service) can be attached to different points in the service graph.
D. Service appliances are dynamically detected and configured when added to a service graph.
E. The service graph restricts the administrator to linear service chains.
F. Traffic can be reclassified again in the network after a service appliance emits it.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 15
What unique feature does the Cisco AVS have?
A. provides cross-consistency in features, management, and control through the Cisco APIC
B. allows for integration to the VMware vCenter
C. works as an edge device
D. has APIs for both northbound and southbound integration
Correct Answer: A

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