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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Sep 02, 2017
Q&As: 204

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Refer to the exhibit.
Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
200-105 dumps

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true?
(Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
200-105 exam Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E
are correct.
The command “show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We
don’t know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct.
The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge
priority 32768 -> C is correct.
All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type “p2p”, which means Point-to

point environment – not a shared media -> D is not correct.
The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not
guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Answer: C
Explanation:
Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example
Reference 1:
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port
states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening,
learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

200-105 dumps

Background Information
802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco
Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST.
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such
as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w
standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively
includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such
as BackboneFast and UplinkFast. Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features:
Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the
802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0.
All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas
in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs.
Port Roles—Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port.
Port States—Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding.
Port Types—Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port.
Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives
legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence
benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

Refer to the exhibit.
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
200-105 dumps

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the
discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has
a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of
Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely
belong to Switch4.
Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two
switches. But how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the
BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A
lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by
Switch3 have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same
Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID
(Port ID = port priority + port index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they
use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index values, which are unique to each
port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port
connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of
Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role)

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
200-105 dumps Answer: B
Explanation: RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of
Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in
BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge ,
RSTP operates at Layer 2.

Question No : 5. Which of the following would be the fastest device for accessing data?
A. A floppy disk
B. A zip disk
C. A hard disk

D. A magnetic tape drive.
Answer: C
Question No : 6. Which of the following is hardware?
A. A database
B. A spreadsheet.
C. A mouse
D. An operating system
200-105 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 7. Which of the following is a peripheral device?
A. Arithmetic logic unit
B. Control unit
C. Immediate access store
D. Backing tape store.
Answer: D
Question No : 8. The generic name of the devices, which are connected to, and controlled by, the central processing
unit, is:
A. Keyboards
B. Ram
C. Monitors
D. Peripherals
200-105 vce Answer: D
Question No : 9. Which of the following printers is the most suitable for a secretary to produce the final copy of a
document?
A. Dot matrix
B. Laser
C. Plotter

D. Any of them
Answer: B
Question No : 10. Which type of memory is used to store the current status of computer application whilst it is being
processed?
A. EPROM
B. PROM
C. ROM D. RAM
Answer: D
Question No : 11. Which of the following is an input device?
A. A monitor
B. A scanner
C. A plotter
D. Speakers
200-105 exam Answer: B
Question No : 12. Small businesses often use computer systm to run the company. Typically it is most likely to be:
A. A Mainframe computer
B. A microprocessor
C. A mini computer
D. A personal computer
Answer: D
Question No : 13. Which of the following could be considered typical users of a mainframe computer?
A. A bank
B. A school
C. A doctor’s surgery
D. A small business
200-105 dumps Answer:A

Question No : 14. Which list shows the correct order of memory capacity for these computers, smallest first?
A. Mainframe computer, personal computer and minicomputer
B. Personal computer, minicomputer and mainframe computer.
C. Personal computer, mainframe computer and minicomputer
D. Mainframe computer, minicomputer and personal computer.
Answer: B
Question No : 15. What is the name of the terminal, with limited processing capabilities, which is usually connected to a
mainframe computer?
A. A dumb terminal
B. An intelligent terminal
C. A terminal adapter
D. A terminal node.
200-105 pdf Answer:A

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Exam Code: 70-774
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 102

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Administer and Provision HDInsight Clusters

  • Deploy HDInsight clusters
  • Deploy and secure multi-user HDInsight clusters
  • Ingest data for batch and interactive processing
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QUESTION 19.A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks.
If the project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
70-774 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 20.Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product
request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the
objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a
straightforward development effort.
As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?
A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the
project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
Answer: B
QUESTION 21.The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects.
A procurement professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a
decentralized contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
70-774 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Medial home states that:
A. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver
comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
B. A proprietorship of primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver comprehensive
care over the long-term in their own variety of settings.
C. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families that do not deliver
comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
D. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver
comprehensive care just foe a short period of time in a variety of settings.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which of the following are the four aspects that all the businesses are required to produce financial
statements at least annually?
A. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
B. Journals, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
C. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of cash flow
D. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of controlled liabilities, statement of expense
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Balance sheet is majorly composed of:
A. heading, body and notes
B. heading, preliminary side bullets and notes
C. footers, body and notes
D. heading, body and footers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
At the top of the balance sheet there is a three-line heading that includes name of the organization, name
ff statement and
A. One date
B. Two dates
C. Three dates
D. none of the above
70-774 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
A major difference between the balance sheet of an investor-owned and a non-profit health care
organization is in the section.
A. owners’ asset
B. owners’ liability
C. owners’ equity
D. owners’ expense
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Two dates are often shown so that the reader can compare two successive periods, this is called:
A. comparative net assets
B. comparative balance sheet
C. comparative income statement
D. comparative cash flows
70-774 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
The resources that the organization owns, typically recorded at their original costs are called assets.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
The financial obligations of the organization are known as:
A. comparative net assets
B. liabilities
C. expenses
D. none of the above
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Net assets are:
A. The difference between an organization’s assets and liabilities
B. The difference between an owner’s assets and liabilities
C. The difference between a shareholder’s assets and expenses
D. The difference between a stakeholder’s assets and expenses
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
In investor-owned organizations, the accounting equation is:
A. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and owner’s equity
B. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and shareholder’s equity
C. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and proprietor’s equity
D. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and net assets
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
If assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and net assets in an accounting equation then this equation is
feasible for:
A. Investor-owned organizations
B. Profit-based organizations
C. Non-profit based organizations
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is NOT included in current assets?
A. Cash and cash equivalents
B. short-term investments
C. patient accounts receivables
D. long-term investments
70-774 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
A measure of how quickly an asset can be converted into cash is called:
A. Cash conversion
B. Asset conversion
C. Liquidity
D. Equity
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Cash (or cash equivalents) is the most liquid asset on the balance sheet.
A. True
B. False
70-774 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
By subtracting contractual allowances and charity care discounts from gross patient accounts receivables,
what remains is:
A. Patients accounts payable
B. Patients accounts receivable
C. Patients accounts bill
D. Patients cash income
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Health care organizations also present an estimate of how much of their patient accounts receivables they
likely will not be able to collect, this estimate is called:
A. Allowance for collectables
B. Expense for collectables
C. Allowance for uncollectables
D. Expense for uncollectables
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Supplies refer to small-dollar items that will be used up or fully consumed within more than two years.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1(CIPTV1)
Updated: Aug 28, 2017
Q&As: 189

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Question: 1
Which of the following statement(s) in the DATASETS procedure alters the name of a SAS data
set stored in a SAS data library?
A. RENAME statement only
B. CHANGE statement only
C. MODIFY and RENAME statements
D. MODIFY and CHANGE statements
300-070 exam Answer: B
Question: 2
The following SAS program is submitted:
<insert statement here>;
%let development = ontime;
proc print data = sasuser.highway;
title “For &dept”;
title2 “This project was completed &development”;
run; Which one of the following statements completes the above and resolves title1 to “For
research&development”?
A. %let dept = %str(research&development);
B. %let dept = %str(research%&development);
C. %let dept = %nrstr(research&development);
D. %let dept = %nrstr(research%&development);
Answer: C
Question: 3
Which one of the following options controls the pagesize of a SAS data set?
A. SIZE=
B. BUFNO=
C. BUFSIZE=
D. PAGESIZE=
300-070 dumps Answer: C
Question: 4
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
REP COST
________________________
SMITH 200
SMITH 400
JONES 100
SMITH 600
JONES 100
JONES 200
JONES 400
SMITH 800
JONES 100
JONES 300

The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select rep, avg(cost) as AVERAGE
from one group by rep
having avg(cost) > (select avg(cost) from one);
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?

A. REP AVERAGE
_______________

JONES 200
B. REP AVERAGE
_________________
JONES 320

C. REP AVERAGE
________________

SMITH 320
D. REP AVERAGE
________________
SMITH 500
Answer: D
Question: 5
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sort data = sales tagsort;
by month year;
run;
Which of the following resource(s) is the TAGSORT option reducing?
A. I/O usage only
B. CPU usage only
C. I/O and CPU usage
D. temporary disk usage
300-070 pdf Answer: D
Question: 6
The following SAS program is submitted:
data one;
do i = 1 to 10;
ptobs = ceil(ranuni(0) * totobs);
set temp point = ptobs
nobs = totobs;
output;
end;
stop;
run;

The SAS data set TEMP contains 2,500,000 observations. Which one of the following represents
the possible values for PTOBS?
A. any integer between 1 and 10
B. any real number between 0 and 1
C. any integer between 1 and 2,500,000
D. any real number between 1 and 2,500,000
Answer: C
Question: 7
Which one of the following programs contains a syntax error?
A. proc sql;
select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity
from product p, cost c, sales s
where p.item = c.item and
p.item = s.item;
quit;
B. proc sql;
select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity
from product, cost, sales
where product.item = cost.item and
product.item = sales.item;
quit;
C. proc sql;
select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity
from product as p, cost as c, sales as s
where p.item = c.item and
p.item = s.item;
quit;
D. proc sql;
select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity
from product, cost, sales
where product.item = cost.item and
product.item = sales.item;
quit;
300-070 vce Answer: D
Question: 8
The following SAS code is submitted:
%macro houses(dsn = houses,sub = RANCH);
data &dsn;
set sasuser.houses;
if style = “&sub”;
run;
%mend;
%houses(sub = SPLIT)
%houses(dsn = ranch)
%houses(sub = TWOSTORY)
Which one of the following is the value of the automatic macro variable SYSLAST?

A. work.ranch
B. work.houses
C. WORK.RANCH
D. WORK.HOUSES
Answer: D
Question: 9
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
NUM COUNTRY NUM CITY
______________ ____________________________ ______
1 CANADA 3 BERLIN
2 FRANCE 5 TOKYO
3 GERMANY 4 BELGIUM
5 JAPAN
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select country
from one where not exists
(select * from two where one.num = two.num);
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. COUNTRY
—————
GERMANY
JAPAN
B. COUNTRY
—————-
FRANCE
BELGIUM
C. COUNTRY
————–
CANADA
FRANCE
BELGIUM
D. COUNTRY
————–
CANADA
FRANCE
GERMANY
300-070 exam Answer: C
Question: 10
Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The WHERE statement can be executed conditionally as part of an IF statement.
B. The WHERE statement selects observations before they are brought into the PDV.
C. The subsetting IF statement works on observations before they are read into the PDV

D. The WHERE and subsetting IF statements can be used interchangeably in all SAS programs.
Answer: B
Question: 11
The variable attributes of SAS data sets ONE and TWO are shown below:
ONE TWO
# Variable Type Len Pos # Variable Type Len Pos
2 sales Num 8 8 2 budget Num 8 8
1 year Num 8 0 3 sales Char 8 16
1 year Num 8 0
Data set ONE contains 100 observations. Data set TWO contains 50 observations. Both data
sets are sorted by the variable YEAR. The following SAS program is submitted:
data three;
merge one two;
by year;
run;
Which one of the following is the result of the program execution?
A. No messages are written to the SAS log.
B. ERROR and WARNING messages are written to the SAS log.
C. Data set THREE is created with two variables and 50 observations.
D. Data set THREE is created with three variables and 100 observations.
300-070 dumps Answer: B

Question: 12.In Report Studio, based on the crosstab below, which of the following is true?
A.Sales territory is a parent to Quantity and Revenue.
B.Quantity and Revenue have a parent-child relationship.
C.Order method is a peer of Retailer type.
D.Sales territory is a peer of Order method.
Answer:A
Question: 13.An author wants to create a filter on this report to only show Product line totals larger than 1
billion. What calculation is used to create this filter?

A.Detail filter as: Total ([Revenue] for Product line)>1000000000 Application = After auto aggregation
B.Detail filter as: Total ([Revenue])>1000000000 Scope = Product line
C.Summary filter as: [Revenue]>1000000000 Scope = Product line
D.Summary filter as: ([Revenue] for Product line>1000000000) Application = After auto aggregation
300-070 pdf Answer:C
Question: 14.In Report Studio, why would an author create Static Choices for a prompt?
A.To provide prompt options that are not found in the data source.
B.So that the prompt appears with an option selected by default.
C.To provide default values to satisfy a parameter so a prompt page will not appear.
D.So that the items that appear in the prompt depend on items selected in another prompt.
Answer:A
Question: 15.In Report Studio, if an author adds a prompt to a report page containing a list, how can the
author prevent an automatically generated prompt from appearing when the report runs?
A.Add a Static Choice
B.Specify a Default Selection
C.Set the Auto-Submit property to Yes
D.Change the Required property to No
300-070  vce Answer:B
Question: 16.In Report Studio, when should authors use a Generated Prompt?
A.They only want the user to be able to choose one option.
B.They are unsure of the most appropriate prompt type to choose.
C.They want to use the same prompt on a prompt page and a report page.
D.They want the options to be based on selections made in another prompt.
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 300-209
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 271

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Section 1: Sec One (1 to 30)
Detail:
Health Appraisal and Fitness Testing
QUESTION: 1
A client’s health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial “walk-through” showing of a facility.
300-209 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 2
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal
professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of a client’s understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determine
whether to conduct an assessment.
300-209 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 4
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a
consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total
serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the
following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment of cardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment of cardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute
and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
300-209 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 6
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-year
old female client’s muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 7
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
300-209 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 8
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the
event of injury to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and
insufficient safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do
everything possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 9
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
300-209 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 10
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having “increased risk”?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 11
A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment.
Which of the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness
assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3
hours before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night
before the assessment.
300-209 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 12
Hydrodensitometry (hydrostatic weighing, underwater weighing) has several sources of
error. Which of the following is NOT a common source of error when using this
technique to determine body composition?
A. Measurement of the vital capacity of the lungs.
B. Interindividual variability in the amount of air in the gastrointestinal tract.
C. Interindividual variability in the density of the individual lean tissue compartment.
D. Measurement of the residual volume.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
The definition of cardiorespiratory fitness is
A. The maximal force that a muscle or muscle group can generate in a single effort.
B. The coordinated capacity of the heart, blood vessels, respiratory system, and tissue
metabolic systems to take in, deliver, and use oxygen.
C. The ability to sustain a held maximal force or to continue repeated sub maximal
contractions.
D. The functional ROM about a joint.
300-209 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Which of the following formulae is used for determining workload on a bicycle
ergometer?
A. Belt length x resistance x grade.
B. Belt length x resistance x revolutions pedaled per minute.
C. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution x revolutions per minute.
D. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 15
Adults age physiologically at individual rates. Therefore, adults of any specified age will
vary widely in their physiologic responses to exercise testing. Special consideration
should be given to older adults when giving a fitness test, because

A. Age is often accompanied by de conditioning and disease.
B. Age predisposes older adults to clinical depression and neurologic diseases.
C. Older adults cannot be physically stressed beyond 75% of age-adjusted maximum.
D. Older adults are not as motivated to exercise as those who are younger.
300-209 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 16
A client with a functional capacity of 7 MET, an ejection fraction of 37%, and an ST –
segment depression of 1 mm below baseline on exertion
A. Should not exercise until his or her ejection fraction is >50%.
B. Is considered to be at low risk.
C. Is considered to be at moderate risk.
D. Is considered to be at high risk.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 17
The most accurate screening method for signs and symptoms of CAD is a
A. Maximal exercise test with a 12-lead ECG.
B. Submaximal exercise test with a 12-lead ECG.
C. Discontinuous protocol, stopping at 85% of maximal heart rate.
D. Continuous protocol, stopping at 85% of maximal heart rate.
300-209 exam Answer: A

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Exam Code: NSE8
Exam Name: NSE8
Updated: Aug 04, 2017
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION: 1
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
NSE8 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT
infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Answer: B
QUESTION: 3
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom – Information – Data – Knowledge
B. Data – Information – Knowledge – Wisdom
C. Knowledge – Wisdom – Information – Data
D. Information – Data – Knowledge – Wisdom
NSE8 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 4
At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a
new service be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings

C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary
knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since
it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
NSE8 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 6
Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B
QUESTION: 7
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”.
What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C
NSE8 vce QUESTION: 8
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of
service will make their customers successful
Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
NSE8 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 10
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a
major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Answer: A
QUESTION: 11
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
NSE8 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION: 12
Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity
(PBA)?
A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities
B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by
PBA
D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting
Answer: C
QUESTION: 13
Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A. Roles
B. Inputs and outputs
C. Functions
D. Metrics
NSE8 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 14
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and
dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live
environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management

C. Demand management
D. Service transition
Answer: B
QUESTION: 15
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the
following would be expected of them?
A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity
NSE8 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 16
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Answer: A
QUESTION: 17
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction

NSE8 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 18
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Answer: A
QUESTION: 19
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service
lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design
processes and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting
processes
NSE8 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 20
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT
service known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Answer: A
QUESTION: 21
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement
NSE8 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION: 22
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service
operation?
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
NSE8 vce 
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Jul 26, 2017
Q&As: 424

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains two Hyper-V hosts named Host1
and Host2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Host1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You plan to move VM1 to Host2.
You need to generate a report that lists any configuration issues on Host2 that will prevent VM1 from being
moved successfully.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Move-VM
B. Test-VHD
C. Debug-VM
D. Compare-VM
70-412  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1. You have a certificate template named
UserAutoEnroll that is based on the User certificate template. Domain users are configured to autoenroll
for UserAutoEnroll. A user named User1 has an email address defined in Active Directory. A user named
User2 does not have an email address defined in Active Directory. You discover that User1 was issued a
certificate based on UserAutoEnroll template automatically. A request by user2 for a certificate based on
the UserAutoEnroll template fails. You need to ensure that all users can autoenroll for certificated based on
the UserAutoEnroll template. Which setting should you configure from the properties on the UserAutoEnroll
certificate template?
A. Issuance Requirements
B. Request Handling
C. Cryptography
D. Subject Name
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Your organization is deploying a second Active Directory forest because a substantial number of users
need to access a resource that requires significant changes to the Active Directory schema, which are not
compatible with your current forest’s schema.
You want users in your forest to be able to access any resource in any domain in the new forest.
Which of the following should you do to accomplish this goal?
A. Configure a forest trust.
B. Configure an external trust.
C. Create a shortcut trust.
D. Configure name suffix routing.
70-412  dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-412

You need to add an additional UPN Suffix.
What should you use?
A. Set-ADSite
B. Set-ADReplicationSite
C. Set-ADDomain
D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink
E. Set-ADGroup
F. Set-ADForest
G. Netdom
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 5
You are employed as a network administrator at contoso.com.
Contoso.com has an active directory domain named contoso.com.
All servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
Contoso.com has a server named server1,which is configured as a file server.
You have been instructed to enabled a feature that discovers and eradicates duplication within data
without compromising its reliability or accuracy.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider having the Data Deduplication feature enabled.
B. You should consider having the Storage Spaces feature enabled.
C. You should consider having the Storage Management feature enabled.
D. You should consider having the folder redirection feature enabled.
70-412  exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
You want to enable key archiving on a CA.
You need to issue a certificate from a specific template to the user who will recover private keys.
Which certificate template will you use as the basis for this certificate?

A. Kerberos authentication
B. Code signing
C. OCSP response signing
D. Key recovery agent
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
You are employed as a senior network administrator at ABC.com.
ABC.com has an Active Directory domain named ABC.com.
All servers on the ABC.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
ABC.com has two servers,named SERVER1 and SERVER2 which are configured in a two- node failover
cluster.
Server1 includes a folder,named ABCAppData,which is configured as a Distributed File System (DFS)
name space folder target.
After configuring another two nodes in the failover cluster, you are instructed to make sure that access to
ABC AppData is highly available.
You also have to make sure that application data is replicated to ABCAppData via DFS replication.
Which following actions should you take ?
A. You should consider configuring a scale-out File Server
B. You should consider configuring the replication settings for the cluster
C. You should consider configuring a file server for general use
D. You should consider configuring the Quorum settings
70-412  vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-412

The Branch site contains a perimeter network.
For security reasons, client computers in the perimeter network can communicate with client computers in
the Branch site only.
You plan to deploy a new RODC to the perimeter network in the Branch site.
You need to ensure that the new RODC will be able to replicate from DC10.
What should you do first on DC10?
A. Run dcpromo and specify the /createdcaccount parameter.
B. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard.

C. Run the Add-ADDSReadOnlyDomainControllerAccount cmdlet.
D. Enable the Bridge all site links setting.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012. One of the domain controllers is named DC1.
The DNS zone for the contoso.com zone is Active Directory-integrated and has the default settings.
A server named Server1 is a DNS server that runs a UNIX-based operating system.
You plan to use Server1 as a secondary DNS server for the contoso.com zone.
You need to ensure that Server1 can host a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerForwarder cmdlet and specify the contoso.com zone
as a target.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerSetting cmdlet and specify DC1 as a target.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone cmdlet and specify the contoso.com
zone as a target.
D. From DNS Manager, modify the Advanced settings of DC1.
70-412  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1. A Microsoft Azure Backup of Server1 is created automatically every
day.
You rename Server1 to Server2. you discover that backups are no longer created in Azure.
You need to backup the server to Azure.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure Management Portal, upload the Server2 certificae as a management certificate.
B. On Server2, run the Start-OBRegistration cmdlet.
C. On Server2, run the Add-WBBackupTarget cmdlet.
D. From the Azure Management Portal, modify the configuration on the backup vault.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and uses Windows Server Backup.
You need to identify whether the backups performed on Server1 support bare metal recovery.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-OBMachineSetting
B. GetWBVSSBackupOption
C. Get-WBPolicy
D. Get-OBPolicy
70-412  vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which permission should you assign on a CA to a group of users that you want to be able to respond to
certificate requests but you do not want to provide them with the ability to change CA security settings?
A. Read
B. Issue And Manage Certificates
C. Manage CA
D. Request Certificates
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have a subscription to Windows Azure.
You need to register the Microsoft Azure Backup Agent on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. Install the Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM) agent.
B. Create a backup vault.
C. Create Site Recovery vault.
D. Configure a passphrase for the Azure Backup Agent.
70-412  dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Both servers have the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 is located in the main office site.
Server2 is located in the branch office site. Server1 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the
main office site.
Server2 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site. You need to ensure that
if either Server1 or Server2 are offline, the client computers can still obtain IPv4 addresses.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
The storage location of the DHCP databases must not be a single point of failure. Server1 must provide
IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site only if Server2 is offline.
Server2 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site only if Server1 is
offline.
Which configuration should you use?
A. load sharing mode failover partners
B. a failover cluster
C. hot standby mode failover partners
D. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-412

You need to replicate users who haven’t authenticated against any domain controllers for the last 7 days.
What should you use?
A. Set-ADSite
B. Set-ADReplicationSite
C. Set-ADDomain
D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink
E. Set-ADGroup
F. Set-ADForest
G. Netdom
70-412  exam Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-170
Exam Name: DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation (DCVAI)
Updated: Jul 29, 2017
Q&As: 102

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1.The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and closely held
businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the spread of U.S
technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world.
Which of the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
300-170 dumps Answer: A, B
2.When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services, the important distinction is whether the client
is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed by the firm.
The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify based upon
their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment regardless of
impairment the individual ¯s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working papers and
related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater as they frequently
are
Answer: B
3.S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited partnerships,
professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies registered under the
investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities ¯ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
300-170 pdf Answer: C
4.The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1)-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation?
By securities in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B
5.Valuation of must be specified. For example, the assignment might include language such
as …engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory, and goodwill, on a

going-concern basis of…
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
300-170 vce Answer: A
6.Which one of the following is NOT always clearly defined? Therefore, if the term is used, it should be
supplemented by a definition of exactly what it means in the given valuation context.
A. Enterprise value
B. Partial interest
C. Invested capital
D. Securities
Answer: C
7.Unfortunately, the term enterprise value is used, at best, very ambiguously and, at worst, very carelessly.
It means different things to different people, each of whom many believe that his or her definition is the
right definition.
It is generally used to represent some sort of of the company and is often used as a synonyms
for .
A. Average value, Market value
B. Aggregate value, Market value of invested capital (MVIC)
C. Partial interest, Aggregate value
D. Specific ownership interest subject to appraisal, Equity or invested capital
300-170 dumps Answer: B
8.The primary ownership interest characteristics that need to be addressed in almost every business
valuation are the following EXCEPT:
A. Control or minority valuation basis (not necessarily a black-and white issue there may be
elements of control without absolute control
B. Degree of marketability
C. Fair market value
D. Fair market value on a nonmarketable, non-controlling ownership interest basis.
Answer: C, D
9.In most business valuations, the opinion of value will be based at least partly on other, similar
transactions, such as:
A. Prices at which stocks are denominated
B. Degree of marketability
C. Prices at which stocks in the same or a related industry are trading in the public market relative to their
earnings, assets, dividends or other relative variables
D. Black-or-white issues
300-170 exam Answer: C
10.In a marital dissolution the parties may be concerned with the change in value that occurred during the
marriage. In estate cases, the trustee, the executer, or personal representative will consider adopting the
alternative valuation date (i.e. six months after the date of death) to determine which is more
advantageous.
These are the examples of:
A. Situations identifying valuation date
B. Situations having more than one valuation dates
C. Litigated cases
D. Universally applicable methods to finalize valuation date
Answer: B
11.In cases, the valuation date itself is an issue to be resolved by the court. In such situations,
the appraiser must be prepared to address the valuation as of several dates, sometimes without knowing
which date the court determined to be relevant until after the judgment is rendered. Since the choice of
valuation date in such cases is a legal matter.
A. Litigated cases
B. Estate tax cases
C. Enterprise value identification cases
D. Cooperatives
300-170 pdf Answer: A
12.Valuation reports should contain a set of limiting conditions, and one of the typical limiting conditions is
as follows:
A. Legal and estate tax factors
B. The valuation is valid only for the valuation date or dates specified herein. No other purpose is intended
or should be inferred
C. Litigation over business valuation is commonplace
D. The purpose of the valuation encompasses the use to which the valuation exercise is expected to be
put
Answer: B
13. The amount at which property would change hands between a willing seller and a willing buyer, when
neither is acting under compulsion and when both have reasonable knowledge of the relevant facts .
This definition is related to:
A. Investment value
B. Fair market value
C. Litigation value
D. Standard of value
300-170 vce Answer: B
14. Market value is the most probable price which a property should bring in a completive and open
market under all conditions requisite to fair sale the buyer and seller each acting prudently and
knowledgeably, and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus.
Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from

seller to buyer under conditions/s whereby:
A. Buyer and seller are typically motivated
B. Both parties are well informed or well advised and acting in what they consider their best interests
C. A reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market
D. Differences in financing costs and tax status
Answer: A, B, C
15.Virtually, all businesses or interests in businesses may be appraised under some alternatives premises
of value.
Which of the following is not out of those premises?
A. Value as a going concern
B. Value as an assemblage of assets
C. Value as an orderly disposition
D. Value as a sudden liquidation
300-170 exam Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-310
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Updated: Jul 17, 2017
Q&As: 453

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QUESTION 5
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
200-310 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which two are types of network virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. VSS: Virtual Switching System
B. VRF: virtual routing and forwarding
C. VCI: virtual channel identifier
D. VLSM: variable length subnet masking
E. VM: virtual machine
F. VMP: Virtual Memory Pool
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
The spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco NX-OS technology in the
distribution and access layer?
A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links
200-310 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server
virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in
the data center?
A. It supports NIC teaming.
B. It removes STP dependency.
C. It increases scalability.
D. It improves convergence time.
200-310 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office to headquarters via an Internet
connection while maintaining confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol between the two
locations?
A. GRE over IPsec
B. IPsec
C. GRE
D. SSL VPN

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes client traffic between multiple routers?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. IGRP
200-310 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. extends the network to remote users
B. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
C. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
D. reduces the number of physical connections
E. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13
What are the three models that are required in the systematic approach of the top-down design
methodology? (Choose three.)
A. logical
B. physical
C. layered
D. network components
E. technological
F. protocols
G. virtual
200-310 dumps 
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 14
Where in the network hierarchy should network access control be performed?
A. backbone
B. core
C. access
D. distribution
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice and video applications?
A. 300 bytes
B. 1 sec
C. 150 ms
D. 500 ms
200-310 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should
these services be provisioned?
A. core
B. aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. distribution
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?
A. recognizes users, their devices, and their roles in the network
B. does not offer audit and reporting features
C. must be placed inline with other network devices
D. does not recognize guest users
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
What are two purposes of route redundancy? (Choose two.)
A. minimize the effect of link failures
B. minimize the effect of internetworking device failures
C. minimize the convergence time of STP
D. load balance across redundant paths
E. save network costs
200-310 pdf 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19
Which two options can be virtual networking devices? (Choose two.)
A. ESX host
B. VM
C. switches
D. routers
E. Hyper-V host
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. Which is the most
important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?
A. security
B. static versus dynamic routing
C. bandwidth
D. QoS
E. latency
200-310 vce 
Correct Answer: A

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