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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION NO: 54
Given the following Relationships Graph in a FileMaker Pro 12 database:  A layout is based on the table occurrence Class and a portal shows records from the table occurrence Employee If the field Trainer:: Name is placed into the portal, what is the result?
A. The text <Field Missing> is displayed in each row of the portal.
B. Each row shows the name of each enrolled employee’s first related trainer.
C. The name of the first related trainer for the class is repeated in each row of the portal.
D. The name of the trainer for the first class enrolled by the first Employee record of the portal is repeated in each row of the portal.
210-260 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Which method can be used to sort related records within a portal in a FileMaker Pro 12 database?
A. in Browse Mode, right-click on a field in the portal and choose Sort Ascending from the contextual pop-up menu
B. in Layout Mode, select the portal then choose Sort records in the Behavior section of the Data tab of the Inspector
C. in the Relationships Graph, change the Sort records setting in the Specify Table dialog for the portal’s table occurrence
D. run a script using the Sort Records by Field script step, choosing one of the portal’s related fields and checking the Sort only related records option
E. change the Sort records setting in the Edit Relationship dialog for the last relationship leading to the portal’s table occurrence from the context of the layout’s table occurrence on the Relationships Graph
Answer: E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56
Which two techniques could be used to generate the data points for a pie chart? (Choose two.)
A. Concatenate multiple number fields from the current record into a return-delimited list
B. Set up multiple data series, each of which points to a number field in the current record
C. Specify a summary field from a related set of records as the data series and put the chart in a Subsummary layout part
D. Specify a summary field from the current found set as the data series and put the chart in a Leading Grand Summary layout part
210-260 dumps Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
A database has a Customer table and an Order table. On a layout based on the Customer table there is a portal showing related orders for the current calendar year. The portal does not include a filter formula. There is a calculation field in the Customer table, zSumOrders, that adds up the total amount of all the customer’s orders for the year. zSumOrders is included on the layout. Assuming no changes to the data, what may cause the displayed value of zSumOrders on a customer record to change?
A. In Layout Mode, move the zSumOrders field into the Orders portal row
B. Add one or more sort criteria to the relationship on which the Orders portal is based
C. Add a portal filter using Filter Portal Records so only unpaid orders will be displayed
D. Change the criteria of the portal’s relationship to further limit the set of records displayed in the
Orders portal
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
Which statement is true of container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. A user can insert a file using Store only a reference to the file if the container is set to Store container data externally
B. OLE objects can be inserted into container fields if the field is set for Interactive content using  the Inspector in Layout mode.
C. Files stored (not referenced) in containers fields defined to Store container data externally can be opened by a double-click in Browse mode.
D. A container optimized for Interactive content using the Inspector in Layout mode will render HTML files as web pages in Browse mode.
E. A container must be optimized for Interactive content using the Inspector in Layout mode to allow drag and drop insertion of files into the container.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
Which statement is true about the Filter Portal Records feature in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. The portal filter formula must refer to at least one field in the immediately related table.
B. The feature requires one or more additional relationships to be added to the Relationships Graph.
C. The portal filter formula may not refer to any globally stored fields, summary fields, or unstored calculation fields.
D. There can be one unique filter formula applied for each portal state (Normal State, In Focus, Hover, or Pressed)
E. Aggregate functions (e.g., Sum, Count) based on the portal’s relationship will not be affected by the portal’s filter formula.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
Which two statements are true about OnTimer triggers? (Choose two.)
A. They only run when the application is idle.
B. OnTimer triggers are configured in the File Options dialog.
C. Different OnTimer scripts can be installed in different windows.
D. Days and times can be specified when the OnTimer script activates.
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 61
A file has the following script specified for OnLastWindowClose:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Exit Script [Result; False]
Commit Records/Requests [No dialog]
Assume the Layout Setup dialog for the current layout is set to Save record changes automatically. When a user attempts to close the file, what will be the result?
A. The file will close and the current record will be committed.
B. The file will close and the current record will not be committed.
C. The file will remain open and the current record will be committed.
D. The file will remain open and the current record will not be committed
Answer: C
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following Aruba controllers is able to provide IEEE 802.3af? (Choose two)
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 6000 with M3
E. 7000
200-155 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
What is the maximum number of remote APs supported by a 3600 controller?
A. 512
B. 1024
C. 128
D. 256
E. 2048
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which dual radio access point models support concurrent operations in the 2.4Ghz band as well as the
5Ghz band? (Choose three)
A. AP-92
B. AP-93
C. AP-105
D. AP-224
E. AP-135
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following APs do NOT support dual radio operations? (Choose two)
A. AP 93
B. AP 105
C. RAP 3WN
D. AP 224
E. AP 135
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
Centralized licensing is not in use on an Aruba based network which has a Master and three local
controllers. No APs terminate on the Master controller. Roles and Firewall policies need to be created and
applied, hence PEF-NG license is required
On which controller should the license be installed?
A. Only the master controller since role and firewall policies are created here.
B. Only the local controllers since firewall policies are applied here
C. The master and all three local controllers

D. This isn’t the correct license for this purpose, use PEF-VPN license
E. This is not needed because PEF-NG is part of base OS
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
What information do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. The controller’s MAC address and the feature description.
B. Controller’s MAC address and the certificate number
C. Controller’s Serial Number and the feature description
D. Controller’s Serial Number and the certificate number
E. Controller’s MAC address and Serial Number
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
What are the PEF-NG license limits based on?
A. Number of APs
B. One license per controller
C. Number of users
D. Number of local controllers
E. Master Controller total user count
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which of the following licenses are consumed by Mesh APs advertising an SSIDs?
A. AP license
B. Mesh license
C. PEF-V license
D. No license is required
E. RAP License
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
The permanent licenses on the controller will be deleted with the use of which command?
A. Delete license
B. Write erase
C. Licenses cannot be deleted once activated
D. Write erase all
E. Reboot delete all
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
A network administrator wants to terminate VPN sessions on a local controller in the DMZ.
Which statement is true about the PEF-VPN license?
A. It is only applied to the master controller
B. It is only applied to the DMZ controller.
C. It is based on the number of APs

D. One license is needed on the master and the DMZ local
E. It is distributed by the license server as needed
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is the best practice regarding licensing for a backup master to support Master Redundancy in a
network without centralized licensing?
A. Backup master only requires the AP license
B. Supported limits and installed licenses should be the same on primary master and backup Master
C. Licenses are pushed from the primary to the backup Master along with the configuration
D. The Backup Master does not require licenses to support master redundancy
E. On the backup only one license of each type is needed.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following licenses can be included in the licensing pool for centralized licensing? (Choose
three)
A. Factory default licenses
B. PEFNG license
C. Evaluation licenses
D. RFProtect license
E. PEFV license
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 13
By default Centralized licensing messages between master controllers are sent _______________.
A. In the clear unencrypted
B. Using CPSec
C. Using IPSec site to site VPN tunnels
D. Encrypted using GRE
E. PAPI
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which of the following will occur if a master license server fails with no standby server present? (Choose
two)
A. Local controllers licenses will continue to be valid for 30 days
B. Local controllers will immediately remove all installed licenses
C. No licenses will be sent to any new controllers that come online
D. All licenses go back into the pool for redistribution
E. A Local Controller elects itself master license server
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
Which may be applied directly to an VLAN interface? (Choose three)
A. Access List (ACL)
B. Firewall Policy

C. Roles
D. AAA profiles
E. RF Plan Map
200-155 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 16
When creating a firewall rule on an Aruba controller, which parameter is optional?
A. Destination
B. Service
C. Source
D. Log
E. Action
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
An administrator creates a WLAN with an unmodified default AAA profile. What is the default role the user
is placed in?
A. default-logon
B. logon
C. guest-logon
D. default-ap
E. AP-Role
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What is the first role a user is given when a user associates to an open WLAN?
A. The guest post authentication role
B. The initial role in the captive portal profile
C. The role in the server group profile
D. The initial role in the AAA profile
E. The initial role in the 802.1x profile
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Which of the following could be used to set a user’s post-authentication role or VLAN association?
(Choose two)
A. AAA default role for authentication method
B. Server Derivation Rule
C. Vendor Specific Attributes
D. AP Derivation Rule
E. The Global AAA profile
Correct Answer: BC

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Exam Code: 70-767
Exam Name: Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse (beta)
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 27
Which one of the following belongs to detailed site planning?
A. Max. UE Tx Power on RACH, CPICH Ec/No Offset.
B. Spreading code, PC overhead, Replacement Window.
C. Scrambling code, MHPA gain, ISHO neighbours.
D. Mobile Network Code, Max. Allowed DL Bit rate.
70-767 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Which group of parameters should be highlighted at the border of multi mode network?
A. ISHO triggering.
B. Inter-frequency handover triggering.
C. Soft handover triggering.
D. Softer handover triggering.
Answer: A
QUESTION 29
How many radio links on average, per user connected, would be considered a reasonable
value for a soft handover overhead in a WCDMA network?
A. 1.7 to 1.8.
B. 1.3 to 1.4.
C. 1.5 to 1.6.
D. 1.9 to 2.
70-767 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 30
At what level does radio interface synchronization have to be planned?
A. Site.
B. Carrier.
C. Cell.

D. RNC.
Answer: C
QUESTION 31
During pre-launch optimisation how can coverage problems be indicated in a cell?
A. By having very high throughput [kbit/s] in a cell.
B. By having TX power limitation and high throughput [kbit/s].
C. By achieving TX power limitations of NodeB or UE.
D. By having TX power limitation and low throughput [kbit/s].
70-767 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Soft handover parameters are set per:
A. RNC.
B. cell.
C. MSC.
D. site.
Answer: B
QUESTION 33
The output of coverage planning is needed for which one of the following processes?
A. Propagation model tuning.
B. Transmission planning.
C. Loading field measurements.
D. Code planning.
70-767 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Which kind of channels exists in the WCDMA technology and how are they mapped?
A. Logical mapped on physical channels.
B. Logical mapped on transport mapped on physical channels.
C. Transport mapped on logical mapped on physical channels.
D. Transport mapped on physical channels.
Answer: B
QUESTION 35
What is SHO gain?

A. It is an additional macro diversity gain against slow fading.
B. It is an additional micro diversity gain.
C. It reduces the radio link loss due to multiple handovers.
D. It is a software feature in RAN.
70-767 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 36
When the UE receives the RRCConnectionRelease message in state CELLFACH, the
message is received on the:
A. CCCH it releases all its radio resources and enters idle mode.
B. CCCH it sends the SMS on the Paging Channel and then enters the idle mode.
C. DCCH it releases all its radio resources and enters idle mode.
D. DTCH it continues to use the radio resource as long as the users need it.
Answer: A

QUESTION 37
In the hand-over control procedure, during an event 1B a primary scrambling code (SC):
A. is replaced from another SC.
B. leaves the active sets if its level is level under a threshold for a determined period of
time.
C. enters the active set if its level is comparable to the already active ones, its level is
over a threshold for a determined period of
time and the active set size limit has not been reached.
D. is monitored in case of need.

70-767 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Soft handover areas and pilot pollution can be optimised by:
A. reducing NodeB Tx power.
B.down tilting NodeB antenna.
C. increasing UE TX power.
D. using compressed mode.
Answer: B
QUESTION 39
In passive distributed antenna systems, what are the MAIN components?
A. Splitters, connectors and electro-optic converters.
B. Diplexers, couplers, splitters, radiating and RF cables.
C. Splitters, optical fibres and jumpers.
D. Optical fibres, radiating cables and attenuators.
70-767 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 40
How does little i (or other to own cell interference) affect the uplink load, if at all?
A. By increasing the load by
B. There is no affect, it only affects the downlink.
C. By increasing the load by a factor of (1 + i*powerrise).
D.By decreasing the load by a factor of (1 + i*powerrise).
Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Which one of the following analyses can be performed with an UE connected
measurement system but NOT with a scanner measurement system?
A. Drop call analysis.
B. SIR analysis.
C. P-CPICH coverage measurement.
D. SHO area measurement.
70-767 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 42
What inter-RAT criteria measurements should be highlighted in the border area of multi

mode network?
A. T.
B. R.
C. H.
D. S.
Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Inter cell interference CANNOT be reduced by:
A. limiting TX power of UE or NodeB.
B. down tilting NodeB antenna.
C. squeezing soft handover areas as a function of active set.
D. increasing the number of sectors per site.
70-767 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 44
Transmission time is NOT reduced in compressed mode by:
A. reducing the spread factor by 2.
B. using higher layer scheduling.
C. puncturing.
D. limiting NRT traffic.
Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Assuming that the BTS max. power is 43dBm/carrier, what is a typical value of the
parameter PtxPrimaryCPICH?
A. 23dBm.
B. 33dBm.
C. 20dBm.
D. 40dBm.
70-767 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 46
In a site with 3 cells and 2 carriers, what is the total number of downlink hardware
channels needed if the amount needed for traffic is 158.7 per site and the amount used for
signalling is 8?
A. 183

B. 167
C. 255
D. 207
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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1.The workflow activities that support parallel processing can be tuned for performance. This can be
achieved by configuring a parameter for the activity RecordPerAsyncCall. What is the default value for
this parameter?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
300-135 exam Answer: B
2.Which TIBCO CIM utility is used to apply a hot fix?
A. tibcoUtil
B. hotfixUtil
C. migrateUtil
D. customUtil E.
tibcoCIMUtil
Answer: A
3.The following sample section of a rulebase will result in the displaying of which alerts on the UI?

A. Warning Only
B. Information Only
C. Severe Error Only
D. No alerts will be presented
300-135 dumps Answer: C
4.To enable text search continuous indexing, the Text Indexing Enabled property is set to which option?
A. Online
B. Offline
C. Discrete
D. Continuous
E. User Enabled
Answer: B
5.Which three statements are true about context variables for a rulebase? (Choose three.)
A. The SESSION object requires explicit declaration in therulebase.
B. Previous confirmed and unconfirmed version records can be accessed.
C. Attribute access can be restricted to certain roles using context variables.
D. RECORD_ACTION is a special variable and can be directly used for operation.

300-135 pdf Answer: B,C,D
6.Which two statements are true about Subflow and SpawnWorkflow activities? (Choose two.)
A. BothSubflows and SpawnWorkflows can be nested.
B. Subflows can be nested, but SpawnWorkflows can not.
C. Both execution modes are supported by both activities.
D. SpawnWorkflow is ASYNCHR and Subflow is SYNCHR.
E. Subflow is ASYNCHR and SpawnWorkflow is SYNCHR.
Answer: A,C
7.Which two configurable settings are related to workflow in TIBCO CIM Configurator? (Choose two.)
A. Workflow Cache Size
B. Workflow Timeout Value
C. Workflow Restart Attempts
D. Workflow Manager Directory
E. Workflow File Extension Default
300-135 vce Answer: C,D
8.Which three statements are true about the catalogs when used for extracting the data from a repository?
(Choose three.)
A. You can choose which attributes are to be extracted.
B. You can choose which record status should be included.
C. You can choose subset rules defined on a different master catalog.
D. You can choose anyrulebase if there are any transformation rules to be applied.
Answer: A,B,D
9.What can be used to retrieve all records that match a value across all repositories?
A. Text Search
B. Event Search C.
Subset Rules D.
Record Search
300-135 exam Answer: A
10.Which activity must be used to send an e-mail message?
A. Send
B. HandleMessaging
C. SendProtocolMessage
D. ProcessServiceMessage
Answer: A
11.You delete the log files in the MQ_COMMON_DIR/Work directory. What is affected?
A. Elink log
B. Event log
C. Record History

D. Repository History
300-135 dumps Answer: B
12.A string type attribute that is set to 0 length will default to what actual length?
A. 32 characters
B. 512 characters
C. 256 characters
D. 1000 characters
Answer: C
13.Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions and actions for
Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)
A. equals
B. lessThan
C. notEqualTo
D. greaterThanEqual
300-135 pdf Answer: A,B,D
14.Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a web service query?
A. RECORD_ID and ACTIVE
B. RECORD_STATE and ACTIVE
C. RECORD_VERSION and ACTIVE
D. RECORD_ID and RECORD_STATE
E. No parameters settings are required
F. RECORD_VERSION and RECORD_ID
Answer: B
15.What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
six.)
A. Add
B. Modify
C. Delete
D. MetaData
E. ValidValues
F. ValidValuesInit
G. Validate/Process
300-135 vce Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G
16.Which two values can be set for a user via the User Accounts Administration page? (Choose two.)
A. Date Format
B. Default Repository
C. Activate Delegation
D. Activate Auto-Approval
E. Default Catalog Format

D. Repository History
Answer: B
12.A string type attribute that is set to 0 length will default to what actual length?
A. 32 characters
B. 512 characters
C. 256 characters
D. 1000 characters
300-135 exam Answer: C
13.Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions and actions for
Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)
A. equals
B. lessThan
C. notEqualTo
D. greaterThanEqual
Answer: A,B,D
14.Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a web service query?
A. RECORD_ID and ACTIVE
B. RECORD_STATE and ACTIVE
C. RECORD_VERSION and ACTIVE
D. RECORD_ID and RECORD_STATE
E. No parameters settings are required
F. RECORD_VERSION and RECORD_ID
300-135 dumps Answer: B
15.What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
six.)
A. Add
B. Modify
C. Delete
D. MetaData
E. ValidValues
F. ValidValuesInit
G. Validate/Process
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION NO: 30
Which commnand would correctly define a router’s host-name?
A. # set ip host-name
B. > set ip host-name
C. # set system host-name
D. > set system host-name
70-773 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 31
Which command would correctly set a router’s date and time?
A. # set date 199708290900.00
B. # set system time 199708290900.00
C. > set date 199708290900.00
D. > set system time 199708290900.00
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
Which two statements are true about the rescue configuration file? (Choose two.)
A. It gets updated automatically when you commit.
B. You need to create it by issuing request system configuration rescue save.
C. It is rollback file number 50 and you can recover it by issuing rollback 50. D.
You can load it by entering rollback rescue.
70-773 dumps Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 33
Which command will save the current active configuration as the rescue configuration?
A. # save | rescue
B. # save rescue configuration
C. > request system configuration rescue save
D. > request rescue-configuration save current
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which two statements are true regarding interface properties? (Choose two.)
A. MTU and speed must be configured under each unit.
B. Physical parameters such as MTU, duplex mode, and speed are configured under the
interface name.
C. IP and IPv6 addresses are configured under a unit-number.
D. DLCI numbers, VPI/VCI values, and VLAN tags are physical parameters.
70-773 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 35
Which CLI command displays packet and byte counts for an interface in real-time?
A. monitor traffic
B. show interfaces
C. monitor interface
D. show traffic counts
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
Which CLI command displays error statistics for an interface in real-time?
A. monitor traffic
B. show interfaces
C. monitor interface
D. show interfaces extensive
70-773 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
What is used to segment larger networks into smaller networks?
A. supernet masks
B. subnet masks
C. wildcard masks
D. route filtering
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 38
Click the Exhibit button. user@host> show route protocol static
inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, – = Last Active, * = Both
192.168.2.128/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.20.106.10 via fe-0/0/5.106
192.168.2.192/26 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 10.210.14.131 via ge-0/0/0.0
192.168.2.192/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.18.1.1 via ge-0/0/1.0
192.168.2.224/28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06
> to 10.210.14.130 via ge-0/0/0.0
Using the route table shown in the exhibit, what will be the next-hop IP address used for a
destination IP address of 192.168.2.239? (Assume the only routes to this destination are
static routes.)
A. 10.210.14.130
B. 172.18.1.1
C. 10.210.14.131
D. 172.20.106.10
70-773 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 39
.Click the Exhibit button.
Given the routing entries shown in the exhibit, which next-hop IP address will be used for the
destination IP
address 192.168.2.158? (Assume only static routes are available for the destination.)
user@host> show route protocol static
inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, – = Last Active, * = Both
192.168.2.128/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.20.106.10 via fe-0/0/5.106
192.168.2.136/28 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 10.210.14.131 via ge-0/0/0.0
192.168.2.192/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.18.1.1 via ge-0/0/1.0
192.168.2.128/28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06
> to 10.210.14.130 via ge-0/0/0.0
A. 10.210.14.130
B. 172.18.1.1
C. 10.210.14.131
D. 172.20.106.10
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
.Which protocol family is required prior to assigning an IP address to an interface?
A. family ip
B. family ip6
C. family inet
D. family inet4
70-773 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
Which command configures an address of 192.168.1.1 with a mask of 255.255.255.0 on
interface ge-0/0/0?
A. set ip interface ge-0/0/0 address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
B. set ip interface ge-0/0/0 address 192.168.1.1/24
C. set interface ge-0/0/0 ip4 address 192.168.1.1 mask 255.255.255.0
D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.1/24
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Which statement is correct about logical units on Juniper Router interfaces?
A. Logical units are used only when a Layer 2 identifier is present such as a VLAN.
B. A logical unit of 0 is required when using a frame-relay DLCI.
C. A logical unit is always required.
D. Logical units are not required unless ATM or 802.1Q VLAN tagging is configured.
70-773 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
After issuing the show interfaces terse command, you notice that the status of one
interface is “up down”. What does this indicate?”

A. Layer 1 on the interface is up but Layer 2 is down.
B. Layer 2 on the interface is up but Layer 3 has not been configured.
C. The interface is administratively up but the link status is down.
D. The interface is up but has been administratively turned off.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
Which option is correct to configure the maximum transmit packet size of a Fast Ethernet
interface?
A. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 ethernet-options mtu 1200
B. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 mtu 1200
C. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 mtu 1200
D. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 mtu 1200
70-773 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 45
Which two statements are correct regarding units in JUNOS? (Choose two.)
A. Units in JUNOS are always required for any interface configured with logical addresses
such as IP and IPv6.
B. Units in JUNOS are only required when you are configuring sub-interfaces for inter-VLAN
routing.
C. Unit numbers must match the DLCI or VCI numbers configured on the interface.
D. Unit 0 is the only value allowed on interfaces running HDLC, PPP, or for Ethernet
interfaces not doing VLAN-tagging.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 46
Which two are correct when configuring an IP address for a Fast Ethernet interface?
(Choose two.)
A. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 address 10.1.1.1/24
B. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 family inet address 10.1.1.1/24
C. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 address 10.1.1.1/24
D. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address 10.1.1.1/24
70-773 exam Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 47
The interface ge-0/2/3 is located in which flexible PIC concentrator slot?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 162

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QUESTION 42
In the absence of his normal dealer contact, a counterparty calls the back office and asks the clerk for his
opinion about how long his money should be placed on deposit. What action should the back office clerk
take?
A. He should give his opinion.
B. He should give his opinion and tell the counterparty that he is not qualified to do so.
C. He should tell the counterparty that he is not qualified to give an opinion and refer the counterparty to
another dealer.
D. He should give his opinion and refer the counterparty to another dealer.
70-740 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
A middle or back office clerk receives an FX ticket in which the counterparty is not clearly identified. What
should he/she do?
A. Keep the ticket in “stand-by mode” until a matching confirmation is received
B. Immediately refer the ticket to the compliance officer
C. Refer the ticket to the FX dealer for further details
D. Refer the ticket to the nostro account manager for further instructions

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
Which risk factors fall under counterparty risk?
A. Currency risk, interest rate risk and swap risk
B. Settlement risk, delivery risk and replacement cost
C. Operational risk
D. Settlement risk and swap risk
70-740 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
What are the three successive stages of money laundering?
A. Integration, layering, placement
B. Integration, placement, layering
C. Placement, layering, integration
D. Layering, integration, placement
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
You spot a rate discrepancy between you and your counterparty on a AUD/USD deal. The deal was traded
direct. You refer the discrepancy to the dealer and he tells you to change the rate.
What should you do?
A. Amend the rate yourself
B. Ask the settlements clerk to amend the rate for you
C. Ask the dealer to manually amend the rate on the ticket and then pass it to the settlements clerk to
amend
D. Make no amendment
70-740 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
You have been given collateral. In which case would you be least concerned about insisting on a
“haircut”?
A. Non-cash emerging markets collateral
B. Cash collateral in JPY, your base currency is GBP
C. Cash collateral in USD, your base currency is USD
D. Non-cash high yield collateral
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
You have just opened a position in EUR/USD that you run overnight. What risk is present?
A. Settlement, counterparty and equity risk
B. Only counterparty risk
C. Only currency and interest rate risks
D. Settlement, counterparty and market risk
70-740 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
A EUR based bank has a USD-convertible bond. What market risks are present?
A. Interest rate and currency risks
B. Interest rate, stock price and currency risks
C. Stock price and currency risks
D. Stock price risk
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
For which of the following transactions are proper and completed bilateral master agreements considered
essential prior to any dealing?
A. Spot FX
B. Repo
C. Forward FX
D. FRAs
70-740 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Most non deliverable forwards (NDFs) are cash-settled in:
A. GBP
B. USD
C. CHF
D. EUR
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
What information is not explicitly confirmed between the two counterparties of a FX swap transaction using
a MT 300?
A. The rate
B. The amount
C. The swap points
D. Settlement information
70-740 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which of the following statements apply to an FX Swap?
A. It consists of two separate transactions, dealt with two different counterparties.
B. It replaces a pair of foreign exchange transactions.
C. It fully eliminates counterparty risk.
D. It reduces credit risk with the counterparty, as compared to money market deals.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which interest rates are used to calculate the exchange rate of an outright transaction value tomorrow
(over tom)?
A. The overnight interest rates of both currencies

B. The spot next interest rates of both currencies
C. The one week interest rates of both currencies
D. The torn next interest rates of both currencies
70-740 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Your FX swap dealer sold and bought 2 months USD/CHF 10,000,000.00; rates were set to 0.9300
against 0.9285. What payment is your bank expecting in two months from now?
A. CHF 9,300,000.00
B. CHF 10,770,059.24
C. CHF 9,285,000.00
D. USD 10,000,000.00
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
A month ago, a customer placed NZD 100,000.00 at 2.00% on a time deposit for 90 days. Today, 30 days
later, he requests an anticipated close of his deposit. 2 and 3 month interbank rates are 2.10% bid and
2.20% offered. What do you do?
A. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest calculated on 30 days
B. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest on 30 days less your
refinancing costs of 0.20% calculated on 30 days
C. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest on 30 days less your
refinancing costs of 0.10% calculated on 60 days
D. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest on 90 days minus the
actualization of this amount at 2.20% calculated over 60 days
70-740 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
If the 90-day rate is 3.10% and the 180-day is 3.50%, what is the 120-day rate using straight-line
interpolation?
A. 3.20%
B. 3.21%
C. 3.23%
D. 3.30%
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which of the following are considered money market, cash or derivative instruments?
A. Currency futures
B. Forward FXs
C. Currency options
D. Forward rate agreements (FRA)
70-740 exam Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-060
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 203

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QUESTION 5
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

International calls are also failing. Using the router configuration supplied, why are international calls
failing?
A. Prefix should be 00
B. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
C. The port should be 0/0/0:12
D. The destination pattern is missing a “0”
210-060 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

Calls to National numbers are failing. Using the Branch router configuration, correctly determine why these
calls are not successful
A. The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B. The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D. The digit prefix should be “00”
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item
allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label

B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9. On a Windows 2000 Server, no matter what you do, the “everyone” account always has full control
access to all TeamSite content. It is being automatically applied to all new content and areas, and you are
unable to remove it. Which one of the following conditions causes the above situation?
A. The TSIMP_hostname account is missing from the TeamSite Web Preview group.
B. There is no webserver_group declared in iw.cfg.
C. The iwserver service is running in debug mode.
D. There is no group named TeamSite Web Preview defined on the TeamSite server.
E. There is no webpreview_group declared in iw.cfg.
210-060 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 10. Which of the following can you accomplish with application_custom.xml?
A. Indicate a corporate logo to display in ContentCenter Standard.
B. Remove the tagging step from the ContentCenter Standard wizards.
C. Remove “Tag” links from ContentCenter Standard.
D. Remove ContentCenter Professional from the dropdown on the login page.
E. Change the display name for the “Workflow” tab in ContentCenter Professional.
Answer: B
QUESTION 11. For an initial installation of TeamSite, the client is using a Netscape Web server for the TeamSite Web
server. GUI administration for the Netscape Web server is not available. Which one of the following files is
modified to add document directories to the Netscape Web server in the above scenario?

A. obj.conf
B. httpd.conf
C. access.conf
D. srm.conf
E. iw.cfg
210-060 vce Answer:A
QUESTION 12. Which one of the following task types is used to run non-interactive automated process steps?
A. CGI
B. User
C. Group
D. External
E. Dummy
Answer: D
QUESTION 13. A TeamSite FormsPublisher presentation template on which you are working will not virtualize
correctly during preview. All the image links are broken and all the image SRC attributes are relative to
the desired output location for the data type. You have set the directory dir-regex correctly to only allow
output to that location. When you generate a file, virtualization works correctly. Many other files in the
Web site besides this template use the same image files. Based on the scenario above, how do you make
the preview virtualize correctly with minimum impact on the Web site?
A. Change all the links to the image files to absolute paths in all files in the Web site.
B. Change the directory dir-regex of the data-type to the root of the workarea.
C. Set the preview-dir attribute of the <template> element’s <branch> subelement to the directory path
where the file should be based for the relative image SRC paths to work correctly.
D. In the presentation template, use the <iw_preview> tag to set the preview path to the directory path
where the file should be based for the relative image SRC paths to work correctly.
E. Copy the image files into the data-type’s folder under /templatedata/ and add a proxy remap to redirect
all image requests to the data-type’s directory.
210-060 exam Answer: C

QUESTION 14. In available_templates.cfg, what is the correct way to limit a workflow’s availability to the “Upload”
workarea on the /default/main/www branch?
A. <branch value=”/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload”/> <branch value=”all” include=”no”/>
B. <branch value=”/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload”/> <branch value=”all” include=”yes”/>
C. <branch value=”/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload” include=”yes”/>
<branch value=”all” include=”no”/>
D. <branch value=”/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload”/> <branch value=”all” include=”yes”/>
E. <branch value=”/default/main/www/[^\\/]+/Upload”/> <branch value=”all” include=”no”/>
Answer: C
QUESTION 15. You have installed and configured TeamSite on a UNIX server and have re-booted the machine. All
the services have started and appear to be working properly, but you are unable to access the
ContentCenter login page. Which one of the following is causing the above problem?
A. You did not run the command line tool iwreset after re-booting.
B. You did not reset the password on your TeamSite account before you tried to log on.
C. You do not have write permissions to the password file.
D. You are using a browser that is not supported by Interwoven.
E. Your browser certificate has expired.
210-060 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 16. Which one of the following statements about autoprivate.cfg is true?
A. It uses regular expressions to match full directory paths.
B. The autoprivate.cfg is able to specify different name patterns for different branches.
C. It will not match directory names.
D. Running iwreset after adding a new name pattern to autoprivate.cfg will mark existing files that match
that name pattern as private.
E. The character counts used in autoprivate.cfg are expressed in hexadecimal.
Answer: E

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Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Sep 02, 2017
Q&As: 204

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Refer to the exhibit.
Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
200-105 dumps

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true?
(Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
200-105 exam Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E
are correct.
The command “show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We
don’t know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct.
The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge
priority 32768 -> C is correct.
All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type “p2p”, which means Point-to

point environment – not a shared media -> D is not correct.
The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not
guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Answer: C
Explanation:
Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example
Reference 1:
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port
states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening,
learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

200-105 dumps

Background Information
802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco
Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST.
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such
as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w
standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively
includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such
as BackboneFast and UplinkFast. Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features:
Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the
802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0.
All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas
in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs.
Port Roles—Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port.
Port States—Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding.
Port Types—Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port.
Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives
legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence
benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

Refer to the exhibit.
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
200-105 dumps

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the
discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has
a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of
Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely
belong to Switch4.
Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two
switches. But how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the
BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A
lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by
Switch3 have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same
Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID
(Port ID = port priority + port index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they
use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index values, which are unique to each
port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port
connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of
Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role)

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
200-105 dumps Answer: B
Explanation: RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of
Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in
BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge ,
RSTP operates at Layer 2.

Question No : 5. Which of the following would be the fastest device for accessing data?
A. A floppy disk
B. A zip disk
C. A hard disk

D. A magnetic tape drive.
Answer: C
Question No : 6. Which of the following is hardware?
A. A database
B. A spreadsheet.
C. A mouse
D. An operating system
200-105 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 7. Which of the following is a peripheral device?
A. Arithmetic logic unit
B. Control unit
C. Immediate access store
D. Backing tape store.
Answer: D
Question No : 8. The generic name of the devices, which are connected to, and controlled by, the central processing
unit, is:
A. Keyboards
B. Ram
C. Monitors
D. Peripherals
200-105 vce Answer: D
Question No : 9. Which of the following printers is the most suitable for a secretary to produce the final copy of a
document?
A. Dot matrix
B. Laser
C. Plotter

D. Any of them
Answer: B
Question No : 10. Which type of memory is used to store the current status of computer application whilst it is being
processed?
A. EPROM
B. PROM
C. ROM D. RAM
Answer: D
Question No : 11. Which of the following is an input device?
A. A monitor
B. A scanner
C. A plotter
D. Speakers
200-105 exam Answer: B
Question No : 12. Small businesses often use computer systm to run the company. Typically it is most likely to be:
A. A Mainframe computer
B. A microprocessor
C. A mini computer
D. A personal computer
Answer: D
Question No : 13. Which of the following could be considered typical users of a mainframe computer?
A. A bank
B. A school
C. A doctor’s surgery
D. A small business
200-105 dumps Answer:A

Question No : 14. Which list shows the correct order of memory capacity for these computers, smallest first?
A. Mainframe computer, personal computer and minicomputer
B. Personal computer, minicomputer and mainframe computer.
C. Personal computer, mainframe computer and minicomputer
D. Mainframe computer, minicomputer and personal computer.
Answer: B
Question No : 15. What is the name of the terminal, with limited processing capabilities, which is usually connected to a
mainframe computer?
A. A dumb terminal
B. An intelligent terminal
C. A terminal adapter
D. A terminal node.
200-105 pdf Answer:A

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2017 Pass4itsure best quality Microsoft Azure 70-774 dumps exam video questions in the latest pdf version, pass Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta). At the time of writing this summary of the Pass4itsure https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-774.html dumps on Microsoft Azure HDInsight exam, it is still in Beta as it was just recently published.

Exam Code: 70-774
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 102

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Here is a high level list of the skills and objectives measured on this Microsoft 70-774 dumps exam:

Administer and Provision HDInsight Clusters

  • Deploy HDInsight clusters
  • Deploy and secure multi-user HDInsight clusters
  • Ingest data for batch and interactive processing
  • Configure HDInsight clusters
  • Manage and debug HDInsight jobs

 70-774 dumps

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QUESTION 19.A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks.
If the project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
70-774 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 20.Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product
request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the
objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a
straightforward development effort.
As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?
A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the
project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
Answer: B
QUESTION 21.The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects.
A procurement professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a
decentralized contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
70-774 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Medial home states that:
A. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver
comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
B. A proprietorship of primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver comprehensive
care over the long-term in their own variety of settings.
C. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families that do not deliver
comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
D. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver
comprehensive care just foe a short period of time in a variety of settings.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which of the following are the four aspects that all the businesses are required to produce financial
statements at least annually?
A. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
B. Journals, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
C. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of cash flow
D. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of controlled liabilities, statement of expense
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Balance sheet is majorly composed of:
A. heading, body and notes
B. heading, preliminary side bullets and notes
C. footers, body and notes
D. heading, body and footers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
At the top of the balance sheet there is a three-line heading that includes name of the organization, name
ff statement and
A. One date
B. Two dates
C. Three dates
D. none of the above
70-774 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
A major difference between the balance sheet of an investor-owned and a non-profit health care
organization is in the section.
A. owners’ asset
B. owners’ liability
C. owners’ equity
D. owners’ expense
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Two dates are often shown so that the reader can compare two successive periods, this is called:
A. comparative net assets
B. comparative balance sheet
C. comparative income statement
D. comparative cash flows
70-774 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
The resources that the organization owns, typically recorded at their original costs are called assets.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
The financial obligations of the organization are known as:
A. comparative net assets
B. liabilities
C. expenses
D. none of the above
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Net assets are:
A. The difference between an organization’s assets and liabilities
B. The difference between an owner’s assets and liabilities
C. The difference between a shareholder’s assets and expenses
D. The difference between a stakeholder’s assets and expenses
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
In investor-owned organizations, the accounting equation is:
A. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and owner’s equity
B. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and shareholder’s equity
C. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and proprietor’s equity
D. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and net assets
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
If assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and net assets in an accounting equation then this equation is
feasible for:
A. Investor-owned organizations
B. Profit-based organizations
C. Non-profit based organizations
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is NOT included in current assets?
A. Cash and cash equivalents
B. short-term investments
C. patient accounts receivables
D. long-term investments
70-774 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
A measure of how quickly an asset can be converted into cash is called:
A. Cash conversion
B. Asset conversion
C. Liquidity
D. Equity
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Cash (or cash equivalents) is the most liquid asset on the balance sheet.
A. True
B. False
70-774 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
By subtracting contractual allowances and charity care discounts from gross patient accounts receivables,
what remains is:
A. Patients accounts payable
B. Patients accounts receivable
C. Patients accounts bill
D. Patients cash income
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Health care organizations also present an estimate of how much of their patient accounts receivables they
likely will not be able to collect, this estimate is called:
A. Allowance for collectables
B. Expense for collectables
C. Allowance for uncollectables
D. Expense for uncollectables
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Supplies refer to small-dollar items that will be used up or fully consumed within more than two years.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1(CIPTV1)
Updated: Aug 28, 2017
Q&As: 189

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Question: 1
Which of the following statement(s) in the DATASETS procedure alters the name of a SAS data
set stored in a SAS data library?
A. RENAME statement only
B. CHANGE statement only
C. MODIFY and RENAME statements
D. MODIFY and CHANGE statements
300-070 exam Answer: B
Question: 2
The following SAS program is submitted:
<insert statement here>;
%let development = ontime;
proc print data = sasuser.highway;
title “For &dept”;
title2 “This project was completed &development”;
run; Which one of the following statements completes the above and resolves title1 to “For
research&development”?
A. %let dept = %str(research&development);
B. %let dept = %str(research%&development);
C. %let dept = %nrstr(research&development);
D. %let dept = %nrstr(research%&development);
Answer: C
Question: 3
Which one of the following options controls the pagesize of a SAS data set?
A. SIZE=
B. BUFNO=
C. BUFSIZE=
D. PAGESIZE=
300-070 dumps Answer: C
Question: 4
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
REP COST
________________________
SMITH 200
SMITH 400
JONES 100
SMITH 600
JONES 100
JONES 200
JONES 400
SMITH 800
JONES 100
JONES 300

The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select rep, avg(cost) as AVERAGE
from one group by rep
having avg(cost) > (select avg(cost) from one);
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?

A. REP AVERAGE
_______________

JONES 200
B. REP AVERAGE
_________________
JONES 320

C. REP AVERAGE
________________

SMITH 320
D. REP AVERAGE
________________
SMITH 500
Answer: D
Question: 5
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sort data = sales tagsort;
by month year;
run;
Which of the following resource(s) is the TAGSORT option reducing?
A. I/O usage only
B. CPU usage only
C. I/O and CPU usage
D. temporary disk usage
300-070 pdf Answer: D
Question: 6
The following SAS program is submitted:
data one;
do i = 1 to 10;
ptobs = ceil(ranuni(0) * totobs);
set temp point = ptobs
nobs = totobs;
output;
end;
stop;
run;

The SAS data set TEMP contains 2,500,000 observations. Which one of the following represents
the possible values for PTOBS?
A. any integer between 1 and 10
B. any real number between 0 and 1
C. any integer between 1 and 2,500,000
D. any real number between 1 and 2,500,000
Answer: C
Question: 7
Which one of the following programs contains a syntax error?
A. proc sql;
select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity
from product p, cost c, sales s
where p.item = c.item and
p.item = s.item;
quit;
B. proc sql;
select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity
from product, cost, sales
where product.item = cost.item and
product.item = sales.item;
quit;
C. proc sql;
select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity
from product as p, cost as c, sales as s
where p.item = c.item and
p.item = s.item;
quit;
D. proc sql;
select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity
from product, cost, sales
where product.item = cost.item and
product.item = sales.item;
quit;
300-070 vce Answer: D
Question: 8
The following SAS code is submitted:
%macro houses(dsn = houses,sub = RANCH);
data &dsn;
set sasuser.houses;
if style = “&sub”;
run;
%mend;
%houses(sub = SPLIT)
%houses(dsn = ranch)
%houses(sub = TWOSTORY)
Which one of the following is the value of the automatic macro variable SYSLAST?

A. work.ranch
B. work.houses
C. WORK.RANCH
D. WORK.HOUSES
Answer: D
Question: 9
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
NUM COUNTRY NUM CITY
______________ ____________________________ ______
1 CANADA 3 BERLIN
2 FRANCE 5 TOKYO
3 GERMANY 4 BELGIUM
5 JAPAN
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select country
from one where not exists
(select * from two where one.num = two.num);
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. COUNTRY
—————
GERMANY
JAPAN
B. COUNTRY
—————-
FRANCE
BELGIUM
C. COUNTRY
————–
CANADA
FRANCE
BELGIUM
D. COUNTRY
————–
CANADA
FRANCE
GERMANY
300-070 exam Answer: C
Question: 10
Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The WHERE statement can be executed conditionally as part of an IF statement.
B. The WHERE statement selects observations before they are brought into the PDV.
C. The subsetting IF statement works on observations before they are read into the PDV

D. The WHERE and subsetting IF statements can be used interchangeably in all SAS programs.
Answer: B
Question: 11
The variable attributes of SAS data sets ONE and TWO are shown below:
ONE TWO
# Variable Type Len Pos # Variable Type Len Pos
2 sales Num 8 8 2 budget Num 8 8
1 year Num 8 0 3 sales Char 8 16
1 year Num 8 0
Data set ONE contains 100 observations. Data set TWO contains 50 observations. Both data
sets are sorted by the variable YEAR. The following SAS program is submitted:
data three;
merge one two;
by year;
run;
Which one of the following is the result of the program execution?
A. No messages are written to the SAS log.
B. ERROR and WARNING messages are written to the SAS log.
C. Data set THREE is created with two variables and 50 observations.
D. Data set THREE is created with three variables and 100 observations.
300-070 dumps Answer: B

Question: 12.In Report Studio, based on the crosstab below, which of the following is true?
A.Sales territory is a parent to Quantity and Revenue.
B.Quantity and Revenue have a parent-child relationship.
C.Order method is a peer of Retailer type.
D.Sales territory is a peer of Order method.
Answer:A
Question: 13.An author wants to create a filter on this report to only show Product line totals larger than 1
billion. What calculation is used to create this filter?

A.Detail filter as: Total ([Revenue] for Product line)>1000000000 Application = After auto aggregation
B.Detail filter as: Total ([Revenue])>1000000000 Scope = Product line
C.Summary filter as: [Revenue]>1000000000 Scope = Product line
D.Summary filter as: ([Revenue] for Product line>1000000000) Application = After auto aggregation
300-070 pdf Answer:C
Question: 14.In Report Studio, why would an author create Static Choices for a prompt?
A.To provide prompt options that are not found in the data source.
B.So that the prompt appears with an option selected by default.
C.To provide default values to satisfy a parameter so a prompt page will not appear.
D.So that the items that appear in the prompt depend on items selected in another prompt.
Answer:A
Question: 15.In Report Studio, if an author adds a prompt to a report page containing a list, how can the
author prevent an automatically generated prompt from appearing when the report runs?
A.Add a Static Choice
B.Specify a Default Selection
C.Set the Auto-Submit property to Yes
D.Change the Required property to No
300-070  vce Answer:B
Question: 16.In Report Studio, when should authors use a Generated Prompt?
A.They only want the user to be able to choose one option.
B.They are unsure of the most appropriate prompt type to choose.
C.They want to use the same prompt on a prompt page and a report page.
D.They want the options to be based on selections made in another prompt.
Answer:B

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