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QUESTION 1
What is created by the Content Server as a result of the copy operation?
A. A relation object to the original document being copied
B. A relation object to the original document being copied with a link to the original content
C. A new document object and a copy of the original content
D. A new document object and link to the original content
300-175 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true when a checkin operation is performed by the Content Server?
A. The Lock Owner property must match the user name performing the operation before the Lock Owner property is cleared out.
B. The Lock Owner property is set with the user name performing the operation.
C. The Owner property is set with the user name performing the operation.
D. The Last Access Date property is set to the current date and time.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What is required to enable editing of a document in the repository?
A. The document must be checked out.
B. The document must use an appropriate permission set with Edit (Write) permission.
C. The document must be owned by the user performing the edit.
D. The user must not be editing other documents.
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true regarding a document object with renditions?
A. Renditions are generated for each version of a document.
B. Renditions are generated for only new versions of a document.
C. Renditions are generated only from the original content.
D. Renditions cannot have images embedded.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What implements subscriptions to document objects?
A. Client Application
B. BAM Server
C. Content Server
D. xPlore Server
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
What must the client application do to enable a user to view a different rendition format than the original associated with the document object?
A. Request the format from the same document object.

B. Request the format from a different object related to the original.
C. Generate the rendition being requested by the user.
D. Request the format from the previous version of the document object.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about full-text activation in D2?
A. For optimal full-text search capabilities, DQL Fulltext and Documentum xPlore should be used simultaneously.
B. Activation of full-text search capabilities using Documentum xPlore and OpenSearch requires an external search engine installation.
C. Activation of full-text search capabilities using DQL Fulltext and OpenSearch requires an external search engine installation.
D. For optimal full-text search capabilities, DQL Fulltext and OpenSearch should be used simultaneously.
300-175 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding functionality in D2 version 4.0 and later?
A. Full-text search results include relevance.
B. Google syntax is no longer supported for simple and advanced searches.
C. Boolean syntax is only supported in advanced searches.
D. The default setting for simple search is 5 results.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What is the process used to ensure that multiple repositories can share the same subset of documents?
A. Content Pre Caching
B. Publication
C. Content Replication
D. Object Replication
300-175 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What facilitates access to a specific document from different locations?
A. Mirroring
B. Linking
C. Virtualization
D. Cloud
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which product provides policy-based implementation of Information Lifecycle Management?
A. Hierarchical Storage Management
B. MIGRATE_CONTENT
C. Content Storage Services
D. FTP Services

300-175 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which benefit does the Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS) architecture provide in a single- repository distributed environment?
A. A copy of the content to store at each location is created.
B. Content upload and download performance is improved.
C. Content and properties from the repository are published to a target site.
D. Global users, global groups, and global ACL’s can be created on a governing repository to be
replicated onto member repositories.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
When using a Documentum web application, which components are required for accessing a repository?
A. Application Server, Content Server
B. BOCS, Application Server
C. ACS, Content Server
D. Rendering Server, Content Server
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which architectural characteristic of Documentum provides for aggregation of unstructured content?
A. Relational Database
B. Content Storage Services
C. Common Repository
D. Documentum Reporting Services
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which formats can be stored in the Documentum repository?
A. Any format that is stored on a computer
B. Image formats only
C. PDF and Microsoft Office
D. Web-ready formats only
300-175 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
An administrator has modified an XML document in the file system. How can the administrator replace an XML document that already exists in the repository with the modified document?
A. Delete the existing document from the repository and import the replacement file.
B. Checkout the existing document and check in the replacement document from file.
C. Checkout the document from the file system and check it back in as a new major version.
D. Import the new document to the repository.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
What is a characteristic feature of My Documentum for Desktop?
A. Integration with Windows File System Explorer
B. Recycle bin
C. A Documentum menu bar item
D. A customization of Webtop
300-175 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which Webtop feature enables quick access to favorite documents from the browser tree menu?
A. Properties dialog
B. Favorites
C. Subscription
D. Notification
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
What happens to a Microsoft Word document when a user imports it into the repository?
A. A copy of the document is made and imported into the repository file store.
B. Nothing. Documentum only stores metadata along with a pointer to the document in the file system.
C. A copy of the document is made and imported along with metadata into the repository.
D. The original document is moved from the file system and imported into the repository file store.
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
In a Documentum environment, how is it apparent to a user that Microsoft Office integrations are enabled on their machine?
A. The user is restricted to using only Microsoft Office formats when creating new documents.
B. A Microsoft logo appears in the upper-right corner of the Webtop home page.
C. A Documentum menu option displays when the user opens Microsoft Word.
D. A Microsoft Office menu option displays when the user logs in to Webtop.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
A Webtop user checks out a Microsoft Word document from the repository and edits it. How will the user be prompted upon checkin of the edited document?
A. Checkin as the same, next minor, or next major version.
B. Checkin as the same version
C. Checkin as either the next major or minor version
D. Rename the new version
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
When a document object is checked in as the same version, which statement is true?
A. All renditions are orphaned from all versions.
B. All renditions are orphaned from the current version.

C. No renditions are orphaned from the current version.
D. All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of same version checkin.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
If a user has completed the checkout operation on a document object, which statement is true?
A. Only this user or a superuser can cancel the checkout operation.
B. Only this user can cancel the checkout operation.
C. Only this user or a superuser cancheckin the document object.
D. Only the superuser can cancel the checkout operation.
300-175 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
When a document with renditions is versioned, which statement is true?
A. New renditions must be generated automatically.
B. All renditions from previous version are carried over by default.
C. All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of new version checkin.
D. All renditions are orphaned from all versions.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which statement is true for checking in multiple document objects to a repository?
A. The client application determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
B. The Content Server determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
C. The data dictionary can be configured to allow more than one document object with the same name in the same folder.
D. The Content Server architecture does not allow document objects with the same name in the same folder.
300-175 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which statement is true for a user who has Browse and Extended Delete and does not belong to any roles listed on the permission set?
A. The user can view the document object’s content and delete the document object.
B. The user can move or delete the document object but is unable to view the properties.
C. The user can move or delete the document object and view its content.
D. The user can view the properties but is unable to view the document object’s content.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which statement is true regarding versioning when a user edits version 1.1 of a document object, which is an older version than what is currently available?
A. A new version of the document object is created, and “1.0” is appended to the edited version.
B. A new version of the document object is created, and “2.0” is appended to the edited version.
C. The document object is saved as version 1.1.
D. The document object is saved as version 2.0.

C. No renditions are orphaned from the current version.
D. All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of same version checkin.
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
A client application applies the “In Review” version label to a document object. What is the expected behavior the next time a user performs a checkin on that document?
A. The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document and the previous version.
B. The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document and is removed from the previous version.
C. The “In Review” version label cannot be applied to the new version of the document and remains with the previous version.
D. The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document, while the previous version with the same label will be deleted by the Content Server.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
A user has Edit (Write) permission on a document object that is contained in FolderA. The same user has Edit (Write) permission on FolderA and FolderB. The user wants to move the document object from FolderA to FolderB. Which statement is true?
A. The user can move the document from FolderA to FolderB without acquiring additional permissions.
B. The user must also have Delete permission on the document object and FolderA to move the document.
C. The user must have Delete permission on the document object and both folders to move the document.
D. The user must have Delete permission on both folders to move the document.
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: A

300-175 dumps

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Exam Code: 300-209
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 271

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Section 1: Sec One (1 to 30)
Detail:
Health Appraisal and Fitness Testing
QUESTION: 1
A client’s health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial “walk-through” showing of a facility.
300-209 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 2
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal
professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of a client’s understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determine
whether to conduct an assessment.
300-209 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 4
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a
consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total
serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the
following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment of cardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment of cardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute
and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
300-209 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 6
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-year
old female client’s muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 7
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
300-209 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 8
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the
event of injury to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and
insufficient safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do
everything possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 9
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
300-209 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 10
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having “increased risk”?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 11
A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment.
Which of the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness
assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3
hours before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night
before the assessment.
300-209 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 12
Hydrodensitometry (hydrostatic weighing, underwater weighing) has several sources of
error. Which of the following is NOT a common source of error when using this
technique to determine body composition?
A. Measurement of the vital capacity of the lungs.
B. Interindividual variability in the amount of air in the gastrointestinal tract.
C. Interindividual variability in the density of the individual lean tissue compartment.
D. Measurement of the residual volume.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
The definition of cardiorespiratory fitness is
A. The maximal force that a muscle or muscle group can generate in a single effort.
B. The coordinated capacity of the heart, blood vessels, respiratory system, and tissue
metabolic systems to take in, deliver, and use oxygen.
C. The ability to sustain a held maximal force or to continue repeated sub maximal
contractions.
D. The functional ROM about a joint.
300-209 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Which of the following formulae is used for determining workload on a bicycle
ergometer?
A. Belt length x resistance x grade.
B. Belt length x resistance x revolutions pedaled per minute.
C. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution x revolutions per minute.
D. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 15
Adults age physiologically at individual rates. Therefore, adults of any specified age will
vary widely in their physiologic responses to exercise testing. Special consideration
should be given to older adults when giving a fitness test, because

A. Age is often accompanied by de conditioning and disease.
B. Age predisposes older adults to clinical depression and neurologic diseases.
C. Older adults cannot be physically stressed beyond 75% of age-adjusted maximum.
D. Older adults are not as motivated to exercise as those who are younger.
300-209 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 16
A client with a functional capacity of 7 MET, an ejection fraction of 37%, and an ST –
segment depression of 1 mm below baseline on exertion
A. Should not exercise until his or her ejection fraction is >50%.
B. Is considered to be at low risk.
C. Is considered to be at moderate risk.
D. Is considered to be at high risk.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 17
The most accurate screening method for signs and symptoms of CAD is a
A. Maximal exercise test with a 12-lead ECG.
B. Submaximal exercise test with a 12-lead ECG.
C. Discontinuous protocol, stopping at 85% of maximal heart rate.
D. Continuous protocol, stopping at 85% of maximal heart rate.
300-209 exam Answer: A

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