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QUESTION NO: 68 Wendy manages ten Google AdWords accounts for her clients. She would like to organize herbilling so that she makes one payment for the clients account rather than ten individual payments, i.e., one for each client she manages. What approach should Wendy follow in this instance? A. Google does not allow multiple accounts to be billed to one invoice. B. Google recommends that Wendy move her accounts into the My Client Center with her cred it card. C. Google recommends that Wendy enroll in the Manager Defined Spend. D. Google recommends that Wendy subscribe to the Manager Order-level monthly invoice. 70-765 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 69 You are a consultant for several clients and you manage their Google AdWords campaigns. You’re using the AdWords Editor to manage these campaigns. One of your clients has provided you with 110 new keywords for their Google AdWords campaign. Using the Google AdWords Editor, how can you add these new keywords? A. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Keywords tab. B. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Settings tab. C. Google AdWords Editor will only allow upto 100 changes to the keywords at a time. You’ll need to add 100 keywords, upload the changes, and then add the remaining 10 keywords through the Keywords tab in the Editor. D. Google AdWords Editor doesn’t allow you to add keywords offline. The keywords must be added through the My Client Center. Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 70 Julie’s company has created a video ad for the Google Content Network and she has elected to use the CPC pricing. Julie’s manager is concerned that the CPC pricing will be expensive, as the company will have to pay each time the video is played. What should Julie tell her manager about the costs of the CPC pricing? A. The company will pay for each click to watch the video, as long as the person watches the video in its entirety. B. The company will pay for each click on the video that leads a user to the destination websit e. C. The company will pay for each click to watch the video.billing so that she makes one payment for the clients account rather than ten individual payments, i.e., one for each client she manages. What approach should Wendy follow in this instance? A. Google does not allow multiple accounts to be billed to one invoice. B. Google recommends that Wendy move her accounts into the My Client Center with her cred it card. C. Google recommends that Wendy enroll in the Manager Defined Spend. D. Google recommends that Wendy subscribe to the Manager Order-level monthly invoice. 70-765 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 69 You are a consultant for several clients and you manage their Google AdWords campaigns. You’re using the AdWords Editor to manage these campaigns. One of your clients has provided you with 110 new keywords for their Google AdWords campaign. Using the Google AdWords Editor, how can you add these new keywords? A. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Keywords tab. B. Google AdWords will allow you to make this change through the Add/Update Multiple Keywords tool under Make Multiple Changes on the Settings tab. C. Google AdWords Editor will only allow upto 100 changes to the keywords at a time. You’ll need to add 100 keywords, upload the changes, and then add the remaining 10 keywords through the Keywords tab in the Editor. D. Google AdWords Editor doesn’t allow you to add keywords offline. The keywords must be added through the My Client Center. Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 70 Julie’s company has created a video ad for the Google Content Network and she has elected to use the CPC pricing. Julie’s manager is concerned that the CPC pricing will be expensive, as the company will have to pay each time the video is played. What should Julie tell her manager about the costs of the CPC pricing? A. The company will pay for each click to watch the video, as long as the person watches the video in its entirety. B. The company will pay for each click on the video that leads a user to the destination websit e. C. The company will pay for each click to watch the video.castle near Phoenix, Arizona. The castle is a landmark for Phoenix residents and it’s a popular place for weddings, banquets, and parties. Which one of the following is the best choice for targeting Sally’s market to a very specific area? A. Customized targeting B. Region and City targeting C. Country targeting D. City targeting 70-765 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74 Ivan has created advertisements for his online printing business. His ads have been running for two months, and he’d like to get a sense of where his ads are geographically being shown. How can Ivan see the geographical information where his Google AdWords are being shown? A. Ivan must create an IP Address report, and then resolve the IP addresses to locations. B. Ivan must create a Geographic Performance Report in his account. C. Unless Ivan creates a location targeting ad, he won’t see this information. D. Ivan must create an IP Address Report; Google will resolve the IP Address to locations. Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 75 Bill and Sally are working together on a large Google AdWords campaign, though they are in two separate locations. Sally has exported her proposed changes to Bill in the Google AdWords Editor and Bill has imported the Account Snapshot through his Google AdWords Editor. When Bill examines the proposed changes Sally has made, how will he know which changes are proposed? A. Proposed changes are in purple. B. He’ll need to compare his version with Sally’s version of the campaigns. C. Proposed changes are in red. D. Proposed changes are in blue. 70-765 vce Answer: D
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Take a practice test to become familiar with the resources and services provided by Azure.
Free Share Microsoft Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 practice test:
QUESTION 1 You have an Azure policy as shown in the following exhibit.
What is the effect of the policy? A. You are prevented from creating Azure SQL Servers in ContosoRG1 only. B. You can create Azure SQL servers in ContosoRG1 only. C. You can create Azure SQL servers in any resource group within Subscription1. D. You are prevented from creating Azure SQL servers anywhere in Subscription1. Correct Answer: B You are prevented from creating Azure SQL servers anywhere in Subscription 1 with the exception of ContosoRG1
QUESTION 2 You have an on-premises network that includes a Microsoft SQL Server instance named SQL1. You create an Azure Logic App named App1. You need to ensure that App1 can query a database on SQL1. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
To access data sources on premises from your logic apps, you can create a data gateway resource in Azure so that your logic apps can use the on-premises connectors. Box 1: From an on-premises computer, install an on-premises data gateway. Before you can connect to on-premises data sources from Azure Logic Apps, download and install the onpremises data gateway on a local computer. Box 2: From the Azure portal, create an on-premises data gateway Create Azure resource for gateway After you install the gateway on a local computer, you can then create an Azure resource for your gateway. This step also associates your gateway resource with your Azure subscription. 1.Sign in to the Azure portal. Make sure you use the same Azure work or school email address used to install the gateway. 2.On the main Azure menu, select Create a resource > Integration > On-premises data gateway. 3.On the Create connection gateway page, provide this information for your gateway resource. 4.To add the gateway resource to your Azure dashboard, select Pin to dashboard. When you\\’re done, choose Create. Box 3: From the Logic Apps Designer in the Azure portal, add a connector After you create your gateway resource and associate your Azure subscription with this resource, you can now create a connection between your logic app and your on-premises data source by using the gateway. 5.In the Azure portal, create or open your logic app in the Logic App Designer. 6.Add a connector that supports on-premises connections, for example, SQL Server. 7.Set up your connection
QUESTION 3 You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You have 5 TB of data that you need to transfer to Subscription1. You plan to use an Azure Import/Export job. What can you use as the destination of the imported data? A. Azure SQL Database B. Azure File Storage C. An Azure Cosmos DB database D. The Azure File Sync Storage Sync Service E. Azure Data Factory F. A virtual machine Correct Answer: B Azure Import/Export service is used to securely import large amounts of data to Azure Blob storage and Azure Files by shipping disk drives to an Azure datacenter. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service
QUESTION 4 You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery. You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and a Hyper-V site named Site1. You need to add Host1 to ASR1. What should you do? A. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the vault registration key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server. B. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the storage account key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server. C. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the vault registration key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines. D. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the storage account key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines. Correct Answer: A Download the Vault registration key. You need this when you install the Provider. The key is valid for five days after you generate it. Install the Provider on each VMM server. You don\\’t need to explicitly install anything on Hyper-V hosts. Incorrect Answers: B, D: Use the Vault Registration Key, not the storage account key. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-on-premises-azure
QUESTION 5 You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains the resources in the following table.
A web server runs on VM1 and VM2. When you request a webpage named Page1.htm from the Internet, LB1 balances the web requests to VM1 and VM2, and you receive a response. On LB1, you have a rule named Rule1 as shown in the Rule1 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)
You have a health probe named Probe1 as shown in the Probe1 exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You manage a virtual network named VNet1 that is hosted in the West US Azure region. VNet1 hosts two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2 that run Windows Server. You need to inspect all the network traffic from VM1 to VM2 for a period of three hours. Solution: From Azure Network Watcher, you create a connection monitor. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A Azure Network Watcher provides tools to monitor, diagnose, view metrics, and enable or disable logs for resources in an Azure virtual network. The connection monitor capability monitors communication at a regular interval and informs you of reachability, latency, and network topology changes between the VM and the endpoint. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-monitoring-overview
QUESTION 7 You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named adatum.com. You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users. What should you do? A. Configure a playbook in Azure AD conditional access policy. B. Create an Azure AD conditional access policy. C. Create and configure the Identify Hub. D. Install and configure Azure AD Connect. Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-mfasettings
QUESTION 8 You plan to migrate an on-premises Hyper-V environment to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery. The Hyper-V environment is managed by using Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). The Hyper-V environment contains the virtual machines in the following table.
Which virtual machine can be migrated by using Azure Site Recovery? A. DC1 B. FS1 C. CA1 D. SQL1 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 You configure the multi-factor authentication status for three users as shown in the following table.
You create a group named Group1 and add Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 to the group. For all cloud apps, you create a conditional access policy that includes Group1. The policy requires multi-factor authentication. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: No Disabled is the default state for a new user not enrolled in Azure MF A. Box 2: Yes Enforced: The user has been enrolled and has completed the registration process for Azure MFA. Web browser apps require login in this case. Box 3: Yes Enabled: The user has been enrolled in Azure MFA, but has not registered. They receive a prompt to register the next time they sign in. Web browser apps require login in this case. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-userstates
QUESTION 10 You have a Recovery Service vault that you use to test backups. The test backups contain two protected virtual machines. You need to delete the Recovery Services vault. What should you do first? A. From the Recovery Service vault, stop the backup of each backup item. B. From the Recovery Service vault, delete the backup data; C. Modify the disaster recovery properties of each virtual machine. D. Modify the locks of each virtual machine. Correct Answer: A You can\\’t delete a Recovery Services vault if it is registered to a server and holds backup data; If you try to delete a vault, but can\\’t, the vault is still configured to receive backup data; Remove vault dependencies and delete vault In the vault dashboard menu, scroll down to the Protected Items section, and click Backup Items. In this menu, you can stop and delete Azure File Servers, SQL Servers in Azure VM, and Azure virtual machines.
QUESTION 11 You have two Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft account that you use to sign in to both tenants. You need to configure the default sign-in tenant for the Azure portal. What should you do? A. From the Azure portal, configure the portal settings. B. From the Azure portal, change the directory. C. From Azure Cloud Shell, run Set-AzureRmContext. D. From Azure Cloud Shell, run Set-AzureRmSubscription. Correct Answer: B Change the subscription directory in the Azure portal. The classic portal feature Edit Directory, that allows you to associate an existing subscription to your Azure Active Directory (AAD), is now available in Azure portal. It used to be available only to Service Admins with Microsoft accounts, but now it\\’s available to users with AAD accounts as well. To get started: 1.Go to Subscriptions. 2.Select a subscription. 3.Select Change directory. Incorrect Answers: C: The Set-AzureRmContext cmdlet sets authentication information for cmdlets that you run in the current session. The context includes tenant, subscription, and environment information. References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/updates/edit-directory-now-in-new-portal/
QUESTION 12 You plan to support many connections to your company\\’s automatically uses up to five instances when CPU utilization on the instances exceeds 70 percent for 10 minutes. When CPU utilization decreases, the solution must automatically reduce the number of instances. What should you do from the Azure portal? A. Answer: See below. Correct Answer: A Step 1: Locate the Homepage App Service plan Step 2: Click Add a rule, and enter the appropriate fields, such as below, and the click Add. Time aggregation: average Metric Name: Percentage CPU Operator: Greater than Threshold 70 Duration: 10 minutes Operation: Increase count by Instance count: 4 Step 3: We must add a scale in rule as well. Click Add a rule, and enter the appropriate fields, such as below, then click Add. Operator: Less than Threshold 70 Duration: 10 minutes Operation: Decrease count by Instance count: 4
QUESTION 13 Your company has an Azure subscription named Subscription1. The company also has two on-premises servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 is configured as a DNS server that has a primary DNS zone named adatum.com. Adatum.com contains 1,000 DNS records. You manage Server1 and Subscription1 from Server2. Server2 has the following tools installed: The DNS Manager console Azure PowerShell Azure CLI 2.0 You need to move the adatum.com zone to Subscription1. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you use? A. Azure PowerShell B. Azure CLI C. the Azure portal D. the DNS Manager console Correct Answer: B Azure DNS supports importing and exporting zone files by using the Azure command-line interface (CLI). Zone file import is not currently supported via Azure PowerShell or the Azure portal. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/dns-import-export
Hope this helps.
2020 Microsoft azure certification
Microsoft technologies keeps updating its Certifications frequently.
Exam AZ – 100, AZ – 101, AZ – 102 are for the Azure Administrator role ( AZ – 100 and AZ – 101 will retire on May 1st 2019, and there will be a single exam for the same role – AZ – 103)
Exam AZ – 202, AZ – 203 are for the Azure Developer role
Exam AZ – 300, AZ – 301, AZ – 302 are for the Azure Architect role
Exam AZ – 400 is for the Azure DevOps Engineer role
Easily pass the Microsoft SQL Server 2012 70-462 exam: “Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases” – https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-462.html (Q&As: 321) Free share the latest 70-462 dumps questions and answers! Practice the test online! Improve your skills and exam experience!
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This exam is intended for database professionals who perform installation, maintenance, and configuration tasks. Other responsibilities include setting up database systems, making sure those systems operate efficiently, and regularly storing, backing up, and securing data from unauthorized access.
pass4itsure 70-462 Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam.
Install and configure (20–25%)
Maintain instances and databases (15–20%)
Optimize and troubleshoot (15–20%)
Manage data (20–25%)
Implement security (15–20%)
Implement high availability (5–10%)
Latest effective Microsoft SQL Server 2012 70-462 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answers choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting database is only updated from the transactional database. The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:
One of the hard disk drives that stores the reporting database fail at 23:32 hours. You need to ensure that the reporting database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do? A. Perform a page restore. B. Perform a partial restore. C. Perform a point-in-time restore. D. Restore the latest full backup. E. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup. F. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup. G. Restore the latest full backup and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore each log backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent differential backup. H. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent full backup. Correct Answer: E To recover the database, you must restore the latest full backup and then restore the latest differential backup. Incorrect Answers: A: A page restore is used to repair isolated damaged pages. It is faster than a file restores id only a few individual pages are damaged. B: Partial restores allow a database that contains multiple filegroups to be restored and recovered in stages. It works with all recovery models but is more flexible for the full and bulk-logged models than for the simple model. C: Point in time restores are not supported for the simple backup model as log files are not part of the backup. D: The latest full backup was performed at 01:00 hours, 22 hours and 32 minutes before the hard disk failure. A differential backup was made at 13:00 hours, 10 hours and 32 minutes before the hard disk failure. A differential backup contains data that has been added or updated since the last full backup and should be restored to minimize data loss. F, G: There is no log backup in the simple backup model. H: Only the latest differential backup needs to be restored. References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms186216%28v=sql.110%29.aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175168%28v=sql.110%29.aspxhttps://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms177425%28v=sql.110%29.aspxhttps://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175526%28v=sql.110%29.aspx
QUESTION 2 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named Orders. Orders contain a table named OrderShip that is defined as follows: A NULL value represents a domestic order. Ninety percent of the values in CountryCode are NULL. Customers require a procedure that will return orders for all customers from a specified country. You create a new procedure:
Performance of this procedure is slow. You need to alter the schema to optimize this query. Objects created must use a minimum amount of resources. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
QUESTION 3 DRAG DROP Your company has a data warehouse that contains all of the sales data for your company. Several business applications read data from the data warehouse. You plan to deploy an indexing strategy for a 2-TB table named FactSales contains a clustered index. You need to recommend a solution for index maintenance that meets the following requirements: Maintenance must be performed only when index fragmentation reaches 50 percent. Maintenance must minimize the impact on the database reads from the business applications. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do? A. Use the CAST function. B. Use the DATE data type. C. Use the FORMAT function. D. Use an appropriate collation. E. Use a user-defined table type. F. Use the VARBINARY data type. G. Use the DATETIME data type. H. Use the DATETIME2 data type. I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type. J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function. Correct Answer: C Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh213505.aspx
QUESTION 5 You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables. The first table contains sales per month and the second table contains orders per day. Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively. You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables. What should you do? A. Join the two fact tables. B. Merge the fact tables. C. Create a time dimension that can join to both fact tables at their respective granularity. D. Create a surrogate key for the time dimension. Correct Answer: D With dimensionally modeled star schemas or snowflake schemas, decision support queries follow a typical pattern: the the query selects several measures of interest from the fact table, joins the fact rows with one or several dimensions along the surrogate keys, places filter predicates on the business columns of the dimension tables, groups by one or several business columns, and aggregates the measures retrieved from the fact table over a period of time. The following demonstrates this pattern, which is also sometimes referred to as a star join query: select ProductAlternateKey, CalendarYear,sum(SalesAmount) from FactInternetSales Fact join DimTime on Fact.OrderDateKey = TimeKey join DimProduct on DimProduct.ProductKey = Fact.ProductKey where CalendarYear between 2003 and 2004 and ProductAlternateKey like \\’BK%\\’ group by ProductAlternateKey,CalendarYear
QUESTION 6 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named Contoso on a server named Server01. You need to prevent users from disabling server audits in Server01. What should you create? A. An Alert B. A Resource Pool C. An Extended Event session D. A Policy E. A Database Audit Specification F. A SQL Profiler Trace G. A Server Audit Specification Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database server. One of the databases on the server supports a highly active OLTP application. Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data into the application. You need to identify which queries are taking longer than 1 second to run over an extended period of time. What should you do? A. use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of more than 1,000. B. Use sp_configure to set a value for the blocked process threshold. Create an extended event session. C. Use the Job Activity monitor to review all processes that are actively running. Review the Job History to find out the duration of each step. D. Run the sp_who command from a query window. E. Run the DBCC TRACEON 1222 command from a query window and review the SQL Server event log. Correct Answer: A Use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of more than 1,000. Incorrect: Not B: The SQL Server lock monitor is responsible for implementing the logic to detect a blocking scenario if the `blocked process threshold\\’ value is greater than 0. However, the lock monitor only wakes up every 5 seconds to detect this condition (it is also looking for other conditions such as deadlocks). Therefore, if you set a `blocked process threshold\\’ value to 1, it will not detect a process that has been blocking for 1 second. The minimum time it can detect a blocked process is 5 seconds. Not E: The Traceflag 1222 Shows Deadlocks, not the Duration of a query. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/tools/sql-server-profiler/sql-server-profiler
QUESTION 8 You have a default installation of SQL Server that hosts an Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) application. Users report that they experience poor overall query performance for the application. You query the wait statistics and discover that the two top waits are CXPACKET and SOS_SCHEDULER_YIELD. You need to modify the SQL Server settings to resolve the issue causing the poor query performance. Which two settings should you modify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. max degree of parallelism (MAXDOP) B. Minimum Memory C. optimize for ad hoc workloads D. Boost SQL Server priority E. cost threshold for parallelism Correct Answer: AE A: Lower the MAXDOP. When high CXPACKET values are encountered, a possible issue, even in the case when parallelism is evenly distributed, is when the cost of creating the parallel plan is higher than the cost of the serialized thread. This is often something that is overlooked and by the rule of thumb of reaching for the altering of the Max Degree of Parallelism (MAXDOP), by setting it to 1 (each and every query will be processed by the single CPU core). Configuring MAXDOP settings to 1 should be the last resource used in troubleshooting excessive CXPACKET wait times. When a high CXPACKET value is accompanied by a LATCH_XX and with PAGEIOLATCH_XX or SOS_SCHEDULER_YIELD, it is an indicator that slow/inefficient parallelism itself is the actual root cause of the performance issues. And in such a scenario if the LATCH_XX waits are ACCESS_METHODS_DATASET_PARENT or ACCESS_METHODS_SCAN_RANGE_GENERATOR class, then it is highly possible that the parallelism level is the bottleneck and the actual root cause of the query performance issue. This is a typical example when MAXDOP should be reduced. E: The Cost Threshold for Parallelism (CTFP) value is in seconds and it means that for every query for which SQL Server estimates that running time will be longer than 5 seconds, a parallel plan will be created. To prevent unwanted parallelism, the CTFP number could be increased and by the aforementioned rule of thumb, a minimum value of 25. Recent analysis indicates that 50 should be the optimal minimal number for modern computers. References: https://www.sqlshack.com/troubleshooting-the-cxpacket-wait-type-in-sql-server/
QUESTION 9 Which of the following will show you a history of job errors that have occurred in jobs scheduled to run in an SQL Server 2012 installation? A. Look at the sys.all_job_hist table. B. In Management Studio, navigate to SQL Server Agent -> Error Logs and look at the log for the corresponding date. C. Open the c:\error\job.log file and search for the particular job and the errors you wish to view. D. You must use T-SQL to write a job-logging procedure to monitor jobs. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. You administer a SQL Server server that contains a database named SalesDb. SalesDb contains a schema named Customers that have a table named Regions. A user named UserA is a member of a role named Sales. UserA is granted the Select permission on the Regions table. The Sales role is granted the Select permission on the Customers schema. You need to ensure that the following requirements are met: The Sales role does not have the Select permission on the Customers schema. UserA has the Select permission on the Regions table. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use? A. DENY SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM Sales B. DENY SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM Sales C. REVOKE SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM Sales D. REVOKE SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM Sales E. DENY SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM UserA F. DENY SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM UserA G. REVOKE SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM UserA H. REVOKE SELECT ON Schema::Customers FOR UserA I. EXEC sp_addrolemember `Sales\\’, `UserA\\’ J. EXEC sp_droprolemember `Sales\\’, `UserA\\’ Correct Answer: D References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188369.aspxhttp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187750.aspxhttp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff848791.aspx
QUESTION 11 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server. A process that normally runs in less than 10 seconds has been running for more than an hour. You examine the application log and discover that the process is using session ID 60. You need to find out whether the process is being blocked. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use? A. SELECT * FROM sys.dm_exec_requests WHERE session_id = 60 B. SELECT * FROM sys.dm_exec_sessions WHERE session_id = 60 C. DBCC INPUTBUFFER (60) D. DBCC OPENTRAN Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/system-dynamic-management-views/sys-dm-exec-requests-transact-sql
QUESTION 12 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that has a Trustworthy set to On. You create a stored procedure that returns database-level information from Dynamic Management Views. You grant User1 access to execute the stored procedure. You need to ensure that the stored procedure returns the required information when User1 executes the stored procedure. You need to achieve this goal by granting the minimum permissions required. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Grant the VIEW SERVER STATE permission to User1. B. Move the stored procedure to the User1 schema. C. Modify the stored procedure to include the EXECUTE AS OWNER statement. Grant VIEW SERVER STATE permissions to the owner of the stored procedure. D. Grant the db_datareader role on the database to User1. E. Create a SQL Server login that has VIEW SERVER STATE permissions. Modify the stored procedure to include the EXECUTE AS (new login) statement. Correct Answer: CE References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187861.aspxhttp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms191291.aspx
QUESTION 13 You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server instance. You need to ensure that data can be replicated from a production server to two reporting servers in real time. You also need to ensure that data on the reporting server is always accessible. Which solution should you use? A. Availability Groups B. Extended Events C. Snapshot Replication D. Policy-Based Management Correct Answer: A The AlwaysOn Availability Groups feature is a high-availability and disaster recovery solution that provides an enterprise- a level alternative to database mirroring. Introduced in SQL Server 2012, AlwaysOn Availability Groups maximizes the availability of a set of user databases for an enterprise. An availability group supports a failover environment for a discrete set of user databases, known as availability databases, that fail over together. An availability group supports a set of read-write primary databases and one to four sets of corresponding secondary databases. Optionally, secondary databases can be made available for read-only access and/or some backup operations. An availability group fails over at the level of an availability replica. Failovers are not caused by database issues such as a database becoming suspect due to a loss of a data file, deletion of a database, or corruption of a transaction log. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/sql/sql-server-2012/hh510230(v=sql.110)
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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Jul 26, 2017
Q&As: 424
Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate 70-412 Practice exams
70-412 Exam Dumps Detailed explanation and answers
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QUESTION 1 Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains two Hyper-V hosts named Host1
and Host2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Host1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You plan to move VM1 to Host2.
You need to generate a report that lists any configuration issues on Host2 that will prevent VM1 from being
moved successfully.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Move-VM
B. Test-VHD
C. Debug-VM
D. Compare-VM 70-412 pdf Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2 You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1. You have a certificate template named
UserAutoEnroll that is based on the User certificate template. Domain users are configured to autoenroll
for UserAutoEnroll. A user named User1 has an email address defined in Active Directory. A user named
User2 does not have an email address defined in Active Directory. You discover that User1 was issued a
certificate based on UserAutoEnroll template automatically. A request by user2 for a certificate based on
the UserAutoEnroll template fails. You need to ensure that all users can autoenroll for certificated based on
the UserAutoEnroll template. Which setting should you configure from the properties on the UserAutoEnroll
certificate template?
A. Issuance Requirements
B. Request Handling
C. Cryptography
D. Subject Name Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3 Your organization is deploying a second Active Directory forest because a substantial number of users
need to access a resource that requires significant changes to the Active Directory schema, which are not
compatible with your current forest’s schema.
You want users in your forest to be able to access any resource in any domain in the new forest.
Which of the following should you do to accomplish this goal?
A. Configure a forest trust.
B. Configure an external trust.
C. Create a shortcut trust.
D. Configure name suffix routing. 70-412 dumps Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4 Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to add an additional UPN Suffix.
What should you use?
A. Set-ADSite
B. Set-ADReplicationSite
C. Set-ADDomain
D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink
E. Set-ADGroup
F. Set-ADForest
G. Netdom Correct Answer: F QUESTION 5 You are employed as a network administrator at contoso.com.
Contoso.com has an active directory domain named contoso.com.
All servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
Contoso.com has a server named server1,which is configured as a file server.
You have been instructed to enabled a feature that discovers and eradicates duplication within data
without compromising its reliability or accuracy.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider having the Data Deduplication feature enabled.
B. You should consider having the Storage Spaces feature enabled.
C. You should consider having the Storage Management feature enabled.
D. You should consider having the folder redirection feature enabled. 70-412 exam Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6 You want to enable key archiving on a CA.
You need to issue a certificate from a specific template to the user who will recover private keys.
Which certificate template will you use as the basis for this certificate? A. Kerberos authentication
B. Code signing
C. OCSP response signing
D. Key recovery agent Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7 You are employed as a senior network administrator at ABC.com.
ABC.com has an Active Directory domain named ABC.com.
All servers on the ABC.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
ABC.com has two servers,named SERVER1 and SERVER2 which are configured in a two- node failover
cluster.
Server1 includes a folder,named ABCAppData,which is configured as a Distributed File System (DFS)
name space folder target.
After configuring another two nodes in the failover cluster, you are instructed to make sure that access to
ABC AppData is highly available.
You also have to make sure that application data is replicated to ABCAppData via DFS replication.
Which following actions should you take ?
A. You should consider configuring a scale-out File Server
B. You should consider configuring the replication settings for the cluster
C. You should consider configuring a file server for general use
D. You should consider configuring the Quorum settings 70-412 vce Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
The Branch site contains a perimeter network.
For security reasons, client computers in the perimeter network can communicate with client computers in
the Branch site only.
You plan to deploy a new RODC to the perimeter network in the Branch site.
You need to ensure that the new RODC will be able to replicate from DC10.
What should you do first on DC10?
A. Run dcpromo and specify the /createdcaccount parameter.
B. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard. C. Run the Add-ADDSReadOnlyDomainControllerAccount cmdlet.
D. Enable the Bridge all site links setting. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012. One of the domain controllers is named DC1.
The DNS zone for the contoso.com zone is Active Directory-integrated and has the default settings.
A server named Server1 is a DNS server that runs a UNIX-based operating system.
You plan to use Server1 as a secondary DNS server for the contoso.com zone.
You need to ensure that Server1 can host a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerForwarder cmdlet and specify the contoso.com zone
as a target.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerSetting cmdlet and specify DC1 as a target.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone cmdlet and specify the contoso.com
zone as a target.
D. From DNS Manager, modify the Advanced settings of DC1. 70-412 pdf Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10 You have a server named Server1. A Microsoft Azure Backup of Server1 is created automatically every
day.
You rename Server1 to Server2. you discover that backups are no longer created in Azure.
You need to backup the server to Azure.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure Management Portal, upload the Server2 certificae as a management certificate.
B. On Server2, run the Start-OBRegistration cmdlet.
C. On Server2, run the Add-WBBackupTarget cmdlet.
D. From the Azure Management Portal, modify the configuration on the backup vault. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and uses Windows Server Backup.
You need to identify whether the backups performed on Server1 support bare metal recovery.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-OBMachineSetting
B. GetWBVSSBackupOption
C. Get-WBPolicy
D. Get-OBPolicy 70-412 vce Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12 Which permission should you assign on a CA to a group of users that you want to be able to respond to
certificate requests but you do not want to provide them with the ability to change CA security settings?
A. Read
B. Issue And Manage Certificates
C. Manage CA
D. Request Certificates Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have a subscription to Windows Azure.
You need to register the Microsoft Azure Backup Agent on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. Install the Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM) agent.
B. Create a backup vault.
C. Create Site Recovery vault.
D. Configure a passphrase for the Azure Backup Agent. 70-412 dumps Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Both servers have the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 is located in the main office site.
Server2 is located in the branch office site. Server1 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the
main office site.
Server2 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site. You need to ensure that
if either Server1 or Server2 are offline, the client computers can still obtain IPv4 addresses.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
The storage location of the DHCP databases must not be a single point of failure. Server1 must provide
IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site only if Server2 is offline.
Server2 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site only if Server1 is
offline.
Which configuration should you use?
A. load sharing mode failover partners
B. a failover cluster
C. hot standby mode failover partners
D. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15 Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to replicate users who haven’t authenticated against any domain controllers for the last 7 days.
What should you use?
A. Set-ADSite
B. Set-ADReplicationSite
C. Set-ADDomain
D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink
E. Set-ADGroup
F. Set-ADForest
G. Netdom 70-412 exam Correct Answer: C
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Microsoft Expert certification – AZ-305 Azure Solutions Architect Expert
Passing the AZ-305 exam leads to being Microsoft Certified: Azure Solutions Architect Specialist. This is a Microsoft Azure Expert-level certification.
The Azure Solutions Architect Expert exam should have subject matter expertise in designing cloud and hybrid solutions that run on Microsoft Azure, including computing, networking, storage, monitoring, and security.
Expert-level certification is hard to come by, and next, you need to study carefully.
Exam title:
Designing Microsoft Azure infrastructure solutions
Exam Code: AZ-305
AZ-305
Several questions:
45–60
Duration:
120 minutes
Passing score requirement:
700/1000
Exam Prerequisites:
They should be able to design identity, governance, and monitoring solutions, design data storage solutions, design business continuity solutions, and design infrastructure solutions.
Candidates who have passed the AZ-104 (Microsoft Certified:
Azure Administrator Associate) exam will earn the Microsoft Certified: Azure Administrator Associate certification through the AZ-305 exam.
Azure AZ-305 Exam Objectives:
Design identity, governance, and monitoring solutions (25–30%) Design data storage solutions (20–25%) Designing business continuity solutions (15–20%) Designing infrastructure solutions (30–35%)
Share new AZ-305 dumps exam practice questions online
Anyone can trust these questions, from Pass4itSure AZ-305 dumps, which are guaranteed to be Microsoft-azure exam questions, the total number of questions is 339, and here are just 1-15 of them.
HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources shown in the following table.
You create an Azure SQL database named DB1 that is hosted in the East US region.
To DB1, you add a diagnostic setting named Settings1. Settings1 archives SQLInsights to storage1 and sends SQLInsights to Workspace1.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Yes Box 2: Yes Box 3: Yes
For more information on Azure SQL diagnostics, you can visit the below link https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/database/metrics-diagnostic-telemetry-logging-streaming-export-configure
Question 2:
You plan to deploy an Azure Database for MySQL flexible server named Server1 to the East US Azure region.
You need to implement a business continuity solution for Server1. The solution must minimize downtime in the event of a failover to a paired region.
What should you do?
A. Create a read replica.
B. Store the database files in Azure premium file shares.
C. Implement Geo-redundant backup.
D. Configure native MySQL replication.
Correct Answer: C
The table below illustrates the features that the Azure Database for MySQL – Flexible Server service offers.
* Geo-redundant backup – Available in all Azure paired regions.
The service backups can be configured as geo-redundant at create time. Enabling Geo-redundancy replicates the server backup data files in the primary region\’s paired region to provide regional resiliency. Geo-redundant backup storage
provides at least 99.99999999999999% (16 nines) durability of objects over a given year.
You have SQL Server on an Azure virtual machine. The databases are written to nightly as part of a batch process. You need to recommend a disaster recovery solution for the data. The solution must meet the following requirements:
1. Provide the ability to recover in the event of a regional outage. Support a recovery time objective (RTO) of 15 minutes.
2. Support a recovery point objective (RPO) of 24 hours.
3. Support automated recovery.
4. Minimize costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure virtual machine availability sets
B. Azure Disk Backup
C. an Always On availability group
D. Azure Site Recovery
Correct Answer: D
Replication with Azure Site Recover:
RTO is typically less than 15 minutes.
RPO: One hour for application consistency and five minutes for crash consistency.
You configure OAuth2 authorization in API Management as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Web applications
The Authorization Code Grant Type is used by both web apps and native apps to get an access token after a user authorizes an app.
Note: The Authorization Code grant type is used by confidential and public clients to exchange an authorization code for an access token.
After the user returns to the client via the redirect URL, the application will get the authorization code from the URL and use it to request an access token.
Question 5:
What should you recommend to meet the monitoring requirements for App2?
A. VM insights
B. Azure Application Insights
C. Microsoft Sentinel
D. Container insights
Correct Answer: B
Scenario: You need to monitor App2 to analyze how long it takes to perform different transactions within the application. The solution must not require changes to the application code.
Unified cross-component transaction diagnostics.
The unified diagnostics experience automatically correlates server-side telemetry from across all your Application Insights monitored components into a single view. It doesn’t matter if you have multiple resources. Application Insights detects the underlying relationship and allows you to easily diagnose the application component, dependency, or exception that caused a transaction slowdown or failure.
Note: Components are independently deployable parts of your distributed/microservices application. Developers and operations teams have code-level visibility or access to telemetry generated by these application components.
You have an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You install and configure AD Connect to use password hash synchronization as the single sign-on(SSO) method. Staging mode is enabled.
You review the synchronization results and discover that the Synchronization Service Manager does not display any sync jobs.
You need to ensure that the synchronization completes successfully.
What should you do?
A. From Azure PowerShell, run Start-AdSyncSycnCycle olicyType Initial.
B. Run Azure AD Connect and set the SSO method to Pass-through Authentication.
C. From the Synchronization Service Manager, run a full import.
D. Run Azure AD Connect and disable staging mode.
Correct Answer: D
In staging mode, the server is active for import and synchronization, but it does not run any exports. A server in staging mode is not running password sync or password writeback, even if you selected these features during installation. When you disable staging mode, the server starts exporting, enables password sync, and enables password writeback.
You are designing a software-as-a-service (SaaS) application that will enable Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users to create and publish online surveys. The SaaS application will have a front-end web app and a back-end web API. The web app will rely on the web API to handle updates to customer surveys.
You need to design an authorization flow for the SaaS application. The solution must meet the following requirements:
To access the back-end web API, the web app must authenticate by using OAuth 2 bearer tokens.
2. The web app must authenticate by using the identities of individual users.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
You are developing an app that will use Azure Functions to process Azure Event Hub events. Request processing is estimated to take between five and 20 minutes. You need to recommend a hosting solution that meets the following requirements:
1. Supports estimates of request processing runtimes
2. Supports event-driven autoscaling for the app Which hosting plan should you recommend?
A. Consumption
B. App Service
C. Dedicated
D. Premium
Correct Answer: B
Question 9:
HOTSPOT
You need to design an Azure policy that will implement the following functionality:
1. For new resources, assign tags and values that match the tags and values of the resource group to which the resources are deployed.
2. For existing resources, identify whether the tags and values match the tags and values of the resource group that contains the resources.
3. For any non-compliant resources, trigger auto-generated remediation tasks to create missing tags and values.
The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
What should you include in the design? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Modify Modify is used to add, update, or remove properties or tags on a resource during creation or update. A common example is updating tags on resources such as cost centers. Existing non-compliant resources can be remediated with a remediation task. A single Modify rule can have any number of operations.
Box 2: A managed identity with the Contributor role Managed identity How remediation security works: When Azure Policy runs the template in the deployIfNotExists policy definition, it does so using a managed identity. Azure Policy creates a managed identity for each assignment but must have details about what roles to grant the managed identity.
Question 10:
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Blob storage account named store1.
You have an on-premises file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 stores 500 GB of company files.
You need to store a copy of the company files from Server 1 in store1.
Which two possible Azure services achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. an integration account
B. an On-premises data gateway
C. an Azure Batch account
D. an Azure Import/Export job
E. Azure Data Factory
Correct Answer: DE
Question 11:
Your company has an app named App1 that uses data from the on-premises Microsoft SQL Server databases shown in the following table.
App1 and the data are used on the first day of the month only. The data is not expected to grow more than 3% each year.
The company is rewriting App1 as an Azure web app and plans to migrate all the data to Azure.
You need to migrate the data to Azure SQL Database. The solution must minimize costs.
Which service tier should you use?
A. vCore-based Business Critical
B. vCore-based General Purpose
C. DTU-based Standard
D. DTU-based Basic
Correct Answer: C
DTU-based Standard supports databases up to 1 TB in size.
You are evaluating whether to use Azure Traffic Manager and Azure Application Gateway to meet the connection requirements for App1.
What is the minimum number of instances required for each service? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: 1
App1 will only be accessible from the internet. App1 has the following connection requirements:
1. Connections to App1 must be active-active load balanced between instances.
2. All connections to App1 from North America must be directed to the East US region.
3. All other connections must be directed to the West Europe region.
App1 will have six instances: three in the East US Azure region and three in the West Europe Azure region.
Note: Azure Traffic Manager is a DNS-based traffic load balancer. This service allows you to distribute traffic to your public-facing applications across the global Azure regions.
Box 2: 2
For production workloads, run at least two gateway instances.
A single Application Gateway deployment can run multiple instances of the gateway.
Use one Application Gateway in East US Region, and one in the West Europe region.
You have an Azure subscription that contains the storage accounts shown in the following table.
You plan to implement two new apps that have the requirements shown in the following table.
Which storage accounts should you recommend using for each app? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Question 14:
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure App Service web app that uses a system-assigned managed identity.
You need to recommend a solution to store the settings of the web app as secrets in an Azure key vault The solution must meet the following requirements:
1.Minimize changes to the app code,
2. Use the principle of least privilege.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Question 15:
You are designing a point of sale (POS) solution that will be deployed across multiple locations and will use an Azure Databricks workspace in the Standard tier. The solution will include multiple apps deployed to the on-premises network of each location.
You need to configure the authentication method that will be used by the app to access the workspace. The solution must minimize the administrative effort associated with staff turnover and credential management.
What should you configure?
A. a managed identity
B. a service principal
C. a personal access token
Correct Answer: B
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Latest effective Citrix 1y0-402 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Currently, the environment is configured with two locations with identical XenDesktop Sites. Each Site has two Delivery Controllers, two StoreFront servers, and one NetScaler high availability pair. The same applications have been published from both Sites for all the users. Two Zones (Zone A and Zone B) are configured in each Site with one Controller in each zone. The Microsoft Exchange server is only accessible from Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Zone A in each Site. The following access requirements have been identified: Users should have a single URL when accessing resources from different Sites. Users should always connect to the datacenter closest to their location. Applications added to Favorites within Citrix Receiver should be retained when accessed from different Sites. Launched applications and desktops should always connect through a local NetScaler. No duplication of applications published from different Sites. Microsoft Outlook should always launch in Zone A. The architect should recommend configuring Optimal Gateway routing on ___________across both locations to ensure that users connect through a local NetScaler. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. Delivery Controllers B. StoreFront servers C. Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) vServers D. NetScaler appliances Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Scenario: At a consumer goods company, a XenApp 6.5 environment is hosted on XenServer 6.5. The IT team is migrating to XenApp and Desktop service on Citrix Cloud. Server OS machines will be hosted on-premises and Desktop OS machines will be hosted on Microsoft Azure. Which Citrix Smart Tool can reduce the cost of running XenApp and XenDesktop in public clouds? A. Smart Check B. Smart Migrate C. Smart Build D. Smart Scale Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The customer previously installed all applications locally on managed laptops and desktops but is willing to evaluate other application delivery methods as part of the new deployment. The environment will be standardized on Windows 10 and Windows Server 2016 for the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines. As part of an application analysis performed earlier in the project, the information in the Exhibit was collected regarding one of the required applications. Click the Exhibit button to view the information.
The customer has an additional objective to minimize the number of network traffic in the environment, particularly on WAN or metered links. How should the architect install the application? A. Directly on endpoint devices and included in a virtual desktop session using the Local App Access feature B. Directly on a VDA machine image and accesses through a virtual desktop session C. Directly on a Server OS VDA machine and accessed from the endpoint as a published application D. Stream it to a VDA machine using Microsoft App-V and accessed through a virtual desktop session E. In the Application Layer using Citrix App Layering Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a XenApp and XenDesktop environment and needs to design machine catalogs and Delivery Groups. Users should only be able to access their assigned resources. Click on the Exhibit button to view the design requirements.
What is the appropriate design using the minimum number of machine catalogs and Delivery Groups, based on the requirements in the Exhibit? A. 1 machine catalog, 2 Delivery Groups, and no tagging B. 2 machine catalogs, 3 Delivery Groups, and tagging for the machine hosting the Engineering application – QA version C. 3 machine catalogs, 4 Delivery Groups, and no tagging D. 1 machine catalog, 1 Delivery Group, and tagging for the machine hosting the Engineering application – QA version Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Scenario: A Citrix Architect designed an environment where policies will be deployed using Workspace Environment Management (WEM). The architect decided to install two WEM Infrastructure Services servers in order to meet the expected load in the environment. What should the architect do to ensure that both servers can be utilized in the environment? A. Configure two virtual (VIPs) on a NetScaler appliance: one for the primary server, and one for the backup server. B. Configure a load-balancing virtual IP (VIP) on a NetScaler appliance so that both servers can be actively receiving communications. C. Enter both server names in the Agent Host Configuration; the first server listed will be contracted first; the second server will be in a standby capacity until needed. D. Enter both server names in the Agent Host Configurations so that both servers will be actively contacted. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Click the Exhibit button to view information collected by the architect during the Resource Layer discussions.
Based on the requirements, the Citrix Administrative team should use _______to manage Citrix policies and __________ to manage Microsoft settings. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. Citrix Studio; Workspace Environment Manager B. Active Directory Group Policy Objects; Active Directory Group Policy Objects C. Citrix Studio; Local Policies D. Active Directory Group Policy Objects; Workspace Environment Manager E. Citrix Studio; Active Directory Group Policy Objects Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Scenario: After a recent security assessment, a Citrix Architect recommends blocking unnecessary peripheral types by disabling the associated HDX channels. Currently, the environment is intended to support the peripheral types listed in the Exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the supported peripheral types.
Which four HDX virtual channels should the architect disable, based on the peripherals required in the environment? (Choose four.) A. ClientDrive B. TWI C. Print D. ClientAudio E. TwainRdr F. Multimedia Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 8 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to implement XenDesktop in an environment. The XenDesktop design requires enabling TLS encryption between components to ensure Payment Card Industry (PCI) compliance. A PCI audit determines that TLS must be used for communication with the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines. Which three tasks should the architect perform to enable TLS on VDA machines? (Choose three.) A. Run a Citrix-provided PowerShell script on the VDA machine image to enable TLS B. Enable TLS for Delivery Groups on the Delivery Controller C. Run a Citrix-provided PowerShell script on the Delivery Controllers. D. Enable TLS for the XenDesktop Site E. Deploy certificates to the Delivery Controller F. Deploy certificates to the VDA machines Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 9 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a XenDesktop environment. The Graphic Editors group uses a graphic-intensive and media-rich application. Graphic Editors will be provided with a Windows Server 2016 Desktop with NVIDIA graphics hardware acceleration. HDX 3D Pro and Server VDI options were selected during the command-line installation of the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA). Which limitation will affect the Graphic Editors group? A. GPU acceleration of OpenGL B. Support for a single user session per VDA C. Support for H.264 graphics protocol D. GPU acceleration of DirectX Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to manage the disaster recovery process for a XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The environment currently consists of an active datacenter which is typically accessed by used and a disaster recovery (DR) datacenter which would be used in the event that a disaster impacts the primary datacenter. The overall environment has been designed to actively replicate user data and application data from the primary datacenter recovery datacenter using Microsoft DFS-R. Management has made it a proirity to minimize the loss of data when failing over between datacenters. Due to an earthquake, the primary datacenter suffers a major outage that affects multiple components. Management has decided to fail over the DR datacenter, and the architect has blocked access to the primary datacenter to prevent new attempts to connect to the XenApp and XenDesktop Site there. Which three actions must the architect perform to meet the company priorities before enabling access to the DR datacenter? (Choose three.) A. Complete data replication from the primary datacenter to the DR datacenter. B. Monitor the automated failover process. C. Transport backup data repositories to the DR datacanter. D. Codifier data replication from the DR datacenter to the primary datacenter. E. Drain existing sessions from the primary datacenter. F. Evaluate the condition of the XenApp and XenDesktop environment in the primary datacenter. Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 11 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to access a XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The XenApp and XenDesktop diagram in the Exhibit gives details about the current Site and Zone design. Click the Exhibit button to view the diagram.
Which statement is correct if all the Delivery Controllers in Satellite Zone 2 fail? A. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Zone 2 will register within the Primary Zone. B. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Zone 2 will register within Satellite Zone 1. C. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines will register using the Local Host Cache D. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Satellite Zone 2 will NOT register Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Citrix Provisioning Services has been selected for image management. Which two RAID levels should the architect use for the storage hosting the Provisioning Service write cache? (Choose two.) A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 10 D. RAID 6 E. RAID 5 Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 13 Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to implement XenDesktop in an environment. The Customer Service team processes credit card information in Web applications. A Payment Card Industry (PCI) audit determines that processes that can run on a Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine are controlled through the use of whitelisting. Which method would be an appropriate fit for the environment, based on the requirements? A. Citrix Secure Browser B. NTFS Permissions C. Microsoft App-V D. Citrix Workspace Environment Management Correct Answer: D
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