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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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1.The workflow activities that support parallel processing can be tuned for performance. This can be
achieved by configuring a parameter for the activity RecordPerAsyncCall. What is the default value for
this parameter?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
300-135 exam Answer: B
2.Which TIBCO CIM utility is used to apply a hot fix?
A. tibcoUtil
B. hotfixUtil
C. migrateUtil
D. customUtil E.
Answer: A
3.The following sample section of a rulebase will result in the displaying of which alerts on the UI?

A. Warning Only
B. Information Only
C. Severe Error Only
D. No alerts will be presented
300-135 dumps Answer: C
4.To enable text search continuous indexing, the Text Indexing Enabled property is set to which option?
A. Online
B. Offline
C. Discrete
D. Continuous
E. User Enabled
Answer: B
5.Which three statements are true about context variables for a rulebase? (Choose three.)
A. The SESSION object requires explicit declaration in therulebase.
B. Previous confirmed and unconfirmed version records can be accessed.
C. Attribute access can be restricted to certain roles using context variables.
D. RECORD_ACTION is a special variable and can be directly used for operation.

300-135 pdf Answer: B,C,D
6.Which two statements are true about Subflow and SpawnWorkflow activities? (Choose two.)
A. BothSubflows and SpawnWorkflows can be nested.
B. Subflows can be nested, but SpawnWorkflows can not.
C. Both execution modes are supported by both activities.
D. SpawnWorkflow is ASYNCHR and Subflow is SYNCHR.
E. Subflow is ASYNCHR and SpawnWorkflow is SYNCHR.
Answer: A,C
7.Which two configurable settings are related to workflow in TIBCO CIM Configurator? (Choose two.)
A. Workflow Cache Size
B. Workflow Timeout Value
C. Workflow Restart Attempts
D. Workflow Manager Directory
E. Workflow File Extension Default
300-135 vce Answer: C,D
8.Which three statements are true about the catalogs when used for extracting the data from a repository?
(Choose three.)
A. You can choose which attributes are to be extracted.
B. You can choose which record status should be included.
C. You can choose subset rules defined on a different master catalog.
D. You can choose anyrulebase if there are any transformation rules to be applied.
Answer: A,B,D
9.What can be used to retrieve all records that match a value across all repositories?
A. Text Search
B. Event Search C.
Subset Rules D.
Record Search
300-135 exam Answer: A
10.Which activity must be used to send an e-mail message?
A. Send
B. HandleMessaging
C. SendProtocolMessage
D. ProcessServiceMessage
Answer: A
11.You delete the log files in the MQ_COMMON_DIR/Work directory. What is affected?
A. Elink log
B. Event log
C. Record History

D. Repository History
300-135 dumps Answer: B
12.A string type attribute that is set to 0 length will default to what actual length?
A. 32 characters
B. 512 characters
C. 256 characters
D. 1000 characters
Answer: C
13.Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions and actions for
Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)
A. equals
B. lessThan
C. notEqualTo
D. greaterThanEqual
300-135 pdf Answer: A,B,D
14.Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a web service query?
E. No parameters settings are required
Answer: B
15.What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
A. Add
B. Modify
C. Delete
D. MetaData
E. ValidValues
F. ValidValuesInit
G. Validate/Process
300-135 vce Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G
16.Which two values can be set for a user via the User Accounts Administration page? (Choose two.)
A. Date Format
B. Default Repository
C. Activate Delegation
D. Activate Auto-Approval
E. Default Catalog Format

D. Repository History
Answer: B
12.A string type attribute that is set to 0 length will default to what actual length?
A. 32 characters
B. 512 characters
C. 256 characters
D. 1000 characters
300-135 exam Answer: C
13.Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions and actions for
Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)
A. equals
B. lessThan
C. notEqualTo
D. greaterThanEqual
Answer: A,B,D
14.Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a web service query?
E. No parameters settings are required
300-135 dumps Answer: B
15.What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
A. Add
B. Modify
C. Delete
D. MetaData
E. ValidValues
F. ValidValuesInit
G. Validate/Process
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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Exam Code: 210-060
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 203

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Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

International calls are also failing. Using the router configuration supplied, why are international calls
A. Prefix should be 00
B. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
C. The port should be 0/0/0:12
D. The destination pattern is missing a “0”
210-060 exam Correct Answer: A
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

Calls to National numbers are failing. Using the Branch router configuration, correctly determine why these
calls are not successful
A. The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B. The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D. The digit prefix should be “00”
Correct Answer: B
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager
at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: A
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item
allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label

B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9. On a Windows 2000 Server, no matter what you do, the “everyone” account always has full control
access to all TeamSite content. It is being automatically applied to all new content and areas, and you are
unable to remove it. Which one of the following conditions causes the above situation?
A. The TSIMP_hostname account is missing from the TeamSite Web Preview group.
B. There is no webserver_group declared in iw.cfg.
C. The iwserver service is running in debug mode.
D. There is no group named TeamSite Web Preview defined on the TeamSite server.
E. There is no webpreview_group declared in iw.cfg.
210-060 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 10. Which of the following can you accomplish with application_custom.xml?
A. Indicate a corporate logo to display in ContentCenter Standard.
B. Remove the tagging step from the ContentCenter Standard wizards.
C. Remove “Tag” links from ContentCenter Standard.
D. Remove ContentCenter Professional from the dropdown on the login page.
E. Change the display name for the “Workflow” tab in ContentCenter Professional.
Answer: B
QUESTION 11. For an initial installation of TeamSite, the client is using a Netscape Web server for the TeamSite Web
server. GUI administration for the Netscape Web server is not available. Which one of the following files is
modified to add document directories to the Netscape Web server in the above scenario?

A. obj.conf
B. httpd.conf
C. access.conf
D. srm.conf
E. iw.cfg
210-060 vce Answer:A
QUESTION 12. Which one of the following task types is used to run non-interactive automated process steps?
B. User
C. Group
D. External
E. Dummy
Answer: D
QUESTION 13. A TeamSite FormsPublisher presentation template on which you are working will not virtualize
correctly during preview. All the image links are broken and all the image SRC attributes are relative to
the desired output location for the data type. You have set the directory dir-regex correctly to only allow
output to that location. When you generate a file, virtualization works correctly. Many other files in the
Web site besides this template use the same image files. Based on the scenario above, how do you make
the preview virtualize correctly with minimum impact on the Web site?
A. Change all the links to the image files to absolute paths in all files in the Web site.
B. Change the directory dir-regex of the data-type to the root of the workarea.
C. Set the preview-dir attribute of the <template> element’s <branch> subelement to the directory path
where the file should be based for the relative image SRC paths to work correctly.
D. In the presentation template, use the <iw_preview> tag to set the preview path to the directory path
where the file should be based for the relative image SRC paths to work correctly.
E. Copy the image files into the data-type’s folder under /templatedata/ and add a proxy remap to redirect
all image requests to the data-type’s directory.
210-060 exam Answer: C

QUESTION 14. In available_templates.cfg, what is the correct way to limit a workflow’s availability to the “Upload”
workarea on the /default/main/www branch?
A. <branch value=”/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload”/> <branch value=”all” include=”no”/>
B. <branch value=”/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload”/> <branch value=”all” include=”yes”/>
C. <branch value=”/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload” include=”yes”/>
<branch value=”all” include=”no”/>
D. <branch value=”/default/main/www/WORKAREA/Upload”/> <branch value=”all” include=”yes”/>
E. <branch value=”/default/main/www/[^\\/]+/Upload”/> <branch value=”all” include=”no”/>
Answer: C
QUESTION 15. You have installed and configured TeamSite on a UNIX server and have re-booted the machine. All
the services have started and appear to be working properly, but you are unable to access the
ContentCenter login page. Which one of the following is causing the above problem?
A. You did not run the command line tool iwreset after re-booting.
B. You did not reset the password on your TeamSite account before you tried to log on.
C. You do not have write permissions to the password file.
D. You are using a browser that is not supported by Interwoven.
E. Your browser certificate has expired.
210-060 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 16. Which one of the following statements about autoprivate.cfg is true?
A. It uses regular expressions to match full directory paths.
B. The autoprivate.cfg is able to specify different name patterns for different branches.
C. It will not match directory names.
D. Running iwreset after adding a new name pattern to autoprivate.cfg will mark existing files that match
that name pattern as private.
E. The character counts used in autoprivate.cfg are expressed in hexadecimal.
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Sep 02, 2017
Q&As: 204

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Refer to the exhibit.
Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
200-105 dumps

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true?
(Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
200-105 exam Answer: A,C,E
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E
are correct.
The command “show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We
don’t know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct.
The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge
priority 32768 -> C is correct.
All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type “p2p”, which means Point-to

point environment – not a shared media -> D is not correct.
The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not
guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)  Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Answer: C
Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example
Reference 1:
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port
states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening,
learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

200-105 dumps

Background Information
802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco
Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST.
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such
as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w
standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively
includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such
as BackboneFast and UplinkFast. Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features:
Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the
802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0.
All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas
in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs.
Port Roles—Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port.
Port States—Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding.
Port Types—Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port.
Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives
legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence
benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

Refer to the exhibit.
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
200-105 dumps

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the
discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has
a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of
Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely
belong to Switch4.
Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two
switches. But how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the
BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A
lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by
Switch3 have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same
Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID
(Port ID = port priority + port index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they
use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index values, which are unique to each
port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port
connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of
Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role)

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
200-105 dumps Answer: B
Explanation: RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of
Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in
BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge ,
RSTP operates at Layer 2.

Question No : 5. Which of the following would be the fastest device for accessing data?
A. A floppy disk
B. A zip disk
C. A hard disk

D. A magnetic tape drive.
Answer: C
Question No : 6. Which of the following is hardware?
A. A database
B. A spreadsheet.
C. A mouse
D. An operating system
200-105 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 7. Which of the following is a peripheral device?
A. Arithmetic logic unit
B. Control unit
C. Immediate access store
D. Backing tape store.
Answer: D
Question No : 8. The generic name of the devices, which are connected to, and controlled by, the central processing
unit, is:
A. Keyboards
B. Ram
C. Monitors
D. Peripherals
200-105 vce Answer: D
Question No : 9. Which of the following printers is the most suitable for a secretary to produce the final copy of a
A. Dot matrix
B. Laser
C. Plotter

D. Any of them
Answer: B
Question No : 10. Which type of memory is used to store the current status of computer application whilst it is being
Answer: D
Question No : 11. Which of the following is an input device?
A. A monitor
B. A scanner
C. A plotter
D. Speakers
200-105 exam Answer: B
Question No : 12. Small businesses often use computer systm to run the company. Typically it is most likely to be:
A. A Mainframe computer
B. A microprocessor
C. A mini computer
D. A personal computer
Answer: D
Question No : 13. Which of the following could be considered typical users of a mainframe computer?
A. A bank
B. A school
C. A doctor’s surgery
D. A small business
200-105 dumps Answer:A

Question No : 14. Which list shows the correct order of memory capacity for these computers, smallest first?
A. Mainframe computer, personal computer and minicomputer
B. Personal computer, minicomputer and mainframe computer.
C. Personal computer, mainframe computer and minicomputer
D. Mainframe computer, minicomputer and personal computer.
Answer: B
Question No : 15. What is the name of the terminal, with limited processing capabilities, which is usually connected to a
mainframe computer?
A. A dumb terminal
B. An intelligent terminal
C. A terminal adapter
D. A terminal node.
200-105 pdf Answer:A

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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1(CIPTV1)
Updated: Aug 28, 2017
Q&As: 189

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Question: 1
Which of the following statement(s) in the DATASETS procedure alters the name of a SAS data
set stored in a SAS data library?
A. RENAME statement only
B. CHANGE statement only
C. MODIFY and RENAME statements
D. MODIFY and CHANGE statements
300-070 exam Answer: B
Question: 2
The following SAS program is submitted:
<insert statement here>;
%let development = ontime;
proc print data = sasuser.highway;
title “For &dept”;
title2 “This project was completed &development”;
run; Which one of the following statements completes the above and resolves title1 to “For
A. %let dept = %str(research&development);
B. %let dept = %str(research%&development);
C. %let dept = %nrstr(research&development);
D. %let dept = %nrstr(research%&development);
Answer: C
Question: 3
Which one of the following options controls the pagesize of a SAS data set?
300-070 dumps Answer: C
Question: 4
Given the following SAS data set ONE:

The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select rep, avg(cost) as AVERAGE
from one group by rep
having avg(cost) > (select avg(cost) from one);
Which one of the following reports is generated?




Answer: D
Question: 5
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sort data = sales tagsort;
by month year;
Which of the following resource(s) is the TAGSORT option reducing?
A. I/O usage only
B. CPU usage only
C. I/O and CPU usage
D. temporary disk usage
300-070 pdf Answer: D
Question: 6
The following SAS program is submitted:
data one;
do i = 1 to 10;
ptobs = ceil(ranuni(0) * totobs);
set temp point = ptobs
nobs = totobs;

The SAS data set TEMP contains 2,500,000 observations. Which one of the following represents
the possible values for PTOBS?
A. any integer between 1 and 10
B. any real number between 0 and 1
C. any integer between 1 and 2,500,000
D. any real number between 1 and 2,500,000
Answer: C
Question: 7
Which one of the following programs contains a syntax error?
A. proc sql;
select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity
from product p, cost c, sales s
where p.item = c.item and
p.item = s.item;
B. proc sql;
select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity
from product, cost, sales
where product.item = cost.item and
product.item = sales.item;
C. proc sql;
select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity
from product as p, cost as c, sales as s
where p.item = c.item and
p.item = s.item;
D. proc sql;
select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity
from product, cost, sales
where product.item = cost.item and
product.item = sales.item;
300-070 vce Answer: D
Question: 8
The following SAS code is submitted:
%macro houses(dsn = houses,sub = RANCH);
data &dsn;
set sasuser.houses;
if style = “&sub”;
%houses(sub = SPLIT)
%houses(dsn = ranch)
%houses(sub = TWOSTORY)
Which one of the following is the value of the automatic macro variable SYSLAST?

A. work.ranch
B. work.houses
Answer: D
Question: 9
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
______________ ____________________________ ______
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select country
from one where not exists
(select * from two where one.num = two.num);
Which one of the following reports is generated?
300-070 exam Answer: C
Question: 10
Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The WHERE statement can be executed conditionally as part of an IF statement.
B. The WHERE statement selects observations before they are brought into the PDV.
C. The subsetting IF statement works on observations before they are read into the PDV

D. The WHERE and subsetting IF statements can be used interchangeably in all SAS programs.
Answer: B
Question: 11
The variable attributes of SAS data sets ONE and TWO are shown below:
# Variable Type Len Pos # Variable Type Len Pos
2 sales Num 8 8 2 budget Num 8 8
1 year Num 8 0 3 sales Char 8 16
1 year Num 8 0
Data set ONE contains 100 observations. Data set TWO contains 50 observations. Both data
sets are sorted by the variable YEAR. The following SAS program is submitted:
data three;
merge one two;
by year;
Which one of the following is the result of the program execution?
A. No messages are written to the SAS log.
B. ERROR and WARNING messages are written to the SAS log.
C. Data set THREE is created with two variables and 50 observations.
D. Data set THREE is created with three variables and 100 observations.
300-070 dumps Answer: B

Question: 12.In Report Studio, based on the crosstab below, which of the following is true?
A.Sales territory is a parent to Quantity and Revenue.
B.Quantity and Revenue have a parent-child relationship.
C.Order method is a peer of Retailer type.
D.Sales territory is a peer of Order method.
Question: 13.An author wants to create a filter on this report to only show Product line totals larger than 1
billion. What calculation is used to create this filter?

A.Detail filter as: Total ([Revenue] for Product line)>1000000000 Application = After auto aggregation
B.Detail filter as: Total ([Revenue])>1000000000 Scope = Product line
C.Summary filter as: [Revenue]>1000000000 Scope = Product line
D.Summary filter as: ([Revenue] for Product line>1000000000) Application = After auto aggregation
300-070 pdf Answer:C
Question: 14.In Report Studio, why would an author create Static Choices for a prompt?
A.To provide prompt options that are not found in the data source.
B.So that the prompt appears with an option selected by default.
C.To provide default values to satisfy a parameter so a prompt page will not appear.
D.So that the items that appear in the prompt depend on items selected in another prompt.
Question: 15.In Report Studio, if an author adds a prompt to a report page containing a list, how can the
author prevent an automatically generated prompt from appearing when the report runs?
A.Add a Static Choice
B.Specify a Default Selection
C.Set the Auto-Submit property to Yes
D.Change the Required property to No
300-070  vce Answer:B
Question: 16.In Report Studio, when should authors use a Generated Prompt?
A.They only want the user to be able to choose one option.
B.They are unsure of the most appropriate prompt type to choose.
C.They want to use the same prompt on a prompt page and a report page.
D.They want the options to be based on selections made in another prompt.

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Exam Code: 300-209
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 271

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Section 1: Sec One (1 to 30)
Health Appraisal and Fitness Testing
A client’s health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial “walk-through” showing of a facility.
300-209 exam Answer: B
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal
professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of a client’s understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determine
whether to conduct an assessment.
300-209 dumps Answer: D
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a
consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total
serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the
following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment of cardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment of cardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute
and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
300-209 pdf Answer: B
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-year
old female client’s muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
300-209 vce Answer: D
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the
event of injury to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and
insufficient safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do
everything possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
300-209 exam Answer: B
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having “increased risk”?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D
A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment.
Which of the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3
hours before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night
before the assessment.
300-209 dumps Answer: A
Hydrodensitometry (hydrostatic weighing, underwater weighing) has several sources of
error. Which of the following is NOT a common source of error when using this
technique to determine body composition?
A. Measurement of the vital capacity of the lungs.
B. Interindividual variability in the amount of air in the gastrointestinal tract.
C. Interindividual variability in the density of the individual lean tissue compartment.
D. Measurement of the residual volume.

Answer: A
The definition of cardiorespiratory fitness is
A. The maximal force that a muscle or muscle group can generate in a single effort.
B. The coordinated capacity of the heart, blood vessels, respiratory system, and tissue
metabolic systems to take in, deliver, and use oxygen.
C. The ability to sustain a held maximal force or to continue repeated sub maximal
D. The functional ROM about a joint.
300-209 pdf Answer: B
Which of the following formulae is used for determining workload on a bicycle
A. Belt length x resistance x grade.
B. Belt length x resistance x revolutions pedaled per minute.
C. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution x revolutions per minute.
D. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution.
Answer: C
Adults age physiologically at individual rates. Therefore, adults of any specified age will
vary widely in their physiologic responses to exercise testing. Special consideration
should be given to older adults when giving a fitness test, because

A. Age is often accompanied by de conditioning and disease.
B. Age predisposes older adults to clinical depression and neurologic diseases.
C. Older adults cannot be physically stressed beyond 75% of age-adjusted maximum.
D. Older adults are not as motivated to exercise as those who are younger.
300-209 vce Answer: A
A client with a functional capacity of 7 MET, an ejection fraction of 37%, and an ST –
segment depression of 1 mm below baseline on exertion
A. Should not exercise until his or her ejection fraction is >50%.
B. Is considered to be at low risk.
C. Is considered to be at moderate risk.
D. Is considered to be at high risk.
Answer: C
The most accurate screening method for signs and symptoms of CAD is a
A. Maximal exercise test with a 12-lead ECG.
B. Submaximal exercise test with a 12-lead ECG.
C. Discontinuous protocol, stopping at 85% of maximal heart rate.
D. Continuous protocol, stopping at 85% of maximal heart rate.
300-209 exam Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-170
Exam Name: DCVAI Implementing Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Automation (DCVAI)
Updated: Jul 29, 2017
Q&As: 102

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1.The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and closely held
businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the spread of U.S
technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world.
Which of the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
300-170 dumps Answer: A, B
2.When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services, the important distinction is whether the client
is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed by the firm.
The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify based upon
their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment regardless of
impairment the individual ¯s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working papers and
related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater as they frequently
Answer: B
3.S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited partnerships,
professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies registered under the
investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities ¯ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
300-170 pdf Answer: C
4.The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1)-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation?
By securities in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B
5.Valuation of must be specified. For example, the assignment might include language such
as …engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory, and goodwill, on a

going-concern basis of…
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
300-170 vce Answer: A
6.Which one of the following is NOT always clearly defined? Therefore, if the term is used, it should be
supplemented by a definition of exactly what it means in the given valuation context.
A. Enterprise value
B. Partial interest
C. Invested capital
D. Securities
Answer: C
7.Unfortunately, the term enterprise value is used, at best, very ambiguously and, at worst, very carelessly.
It means different things to different people, each of whom many believe that his or her definition is the
right definition.
It is generally used to represent some sort of of the company and is often used as a synonyms
for .
A. Average value, Market value
B. Aggregate value, Market value of invested capital (MVIC)
C. Partial interest, Aggregate value
D. Specific ownership interest subject to appraisal, Equity or invested capital
300-170 dumps Answer: B
8.The primary ownership interest characteristics that need to be addressed in almost every business
valuation are the following EXCEPT:
A. Control or minority valuation basis (not necessarily a black-and white issue there may be
elements of control without absolute control
B. Degree of marketability
C. Fair market value
D. Fair market value on a nonmarketable, non-controlling ownership interest basis.
Answer: C, D
9.In most business valuations, the opinion of value will be based at least partly on other, similar
transactions, such as:
A. Prices at which stocks are denominated
B. Degree of marketability
C. Prices at which stocks in the same or a related industry are trading in the public market relative to their
earnings, assets, dividends or other relative variables
D. Black-or-white issues
300-170 exam Answer: C
10.In a marital dissolution the parties may be concerned with the change in value that occurred during the
marriage. In estate cases, the trustee, the executer, or personal representative will consider adopting the
alternative valuation date (i.e. six months after the date of death) to determine which is more
These are the examples of:
A. Situations identifying valuation date
B. Situations having more than one valuation dates
C. Litigated cases
D. Universally applicable methods to finalize valuation date
Answer: B
11.In cases, the valuation date itself is an issue to be resolved by the court. In such situations,
the appraiser must be prepared to address the valuation as of several dates, sometimes without knowing
which date the court determined to be relevant until after the judgment is rendered. Since the choice of
valuation date in such cases is a legal matter.
A. Litigated cases
B. Estate tax cases
C. Enterprise value identification cases
D. Cooperatives
300-170 pdf Answer: A
12.Valuation reports should contain a set of limiting conditions, and one of the typical limiting conditions is
as follows:
A. Legal and estate tax factors
B. The valuation is valid only for the valuation date or dates specified herein. No other purpose is intended
or should be inferred
C. Litigation over business valuation is commonplace
D. The purpose of the valuation encompasses the use to which the valuation exercise is expected to be
Answer: B
13. The amount at which property would change hands between a willing seller and a willing buyer, when
neither is acting under compulsion and when both have reasonable knowledge of the relevant facts .
This definition is related to:
A. Investment value
B. Fair market value
C. Litigation value
D. Standard of value
300-170 vce Answer: B
14. Market value is the most probable price which a property should bring in a completive and open
market under all conditions requisite to fair sale the buyer and seller each acting prudently and
knowledgeably, and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus.
Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from

seller to buyer under conditions/s whereby:
A. Buyer and seller are typically motivated
B. Both parties are well informed or well advised and acting in what they consider their best interests
C. A reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market
D. Differences in financing costs and tax status
Answer: A, B, C
15.Virtually, all businesses or interests in businesses may be appraised under some alternatives premises
of value.
Which of the following is not out of those premises?
A. Value as a going concern
B. Value as an assemblage of assets
C. Value as an orderly disposition
D. Value as a sudden liquidation
300-170 exam Answer: D

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Exam Code: 200-310
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Updated: Jul 17, 2017
Q&As: 453

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Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
200-310 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
Which two are types of network virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. VSS: Virtual Switching System
B. VRF: virtual routing and forwarding
C. VCI: virtual channel identifier
D. VLSM: variable length subnet masking
E. VM: virtual machine
F. VMP: Virtual Memory Pool
Correct Answer: AB
The spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco NX-OS technology in the
distribution and access layer?
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
E. Flex Links
200-310 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server
virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric
Correct Answer: A
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in
the data center?
A. It supports NIC teaming.
B. It removes STP dependency.
C. It increases scalability.
D. It improves convergence time.
200-310 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office to headquarters via an Internet
connection while maintaining confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol between the two
A. GRE over IPsec
B. IPsec

Correct Answer: A
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes client traffic between multiple routers?
200-310 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. extends the network to remote users
B. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
C. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
D. reduces the number of physical connections
E. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
Correct Answer: DE
What are the three models that are required in the systematic approach of the top-down design
methodology? (Choose three.)
A. logical
B. physical
C. layered
D. network components
E. technological
F. protocols
G. virtual
200-310 dumps 
Correct Answer: ABC
Where in the network hierarchy should network access control be performed?
A. backbone
B. core
C. access
D. distribution
Correct Answer: C
What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice and video applications?
A. 300 bytes
B. 1 sec
C. 150 ms
D. 500 ms
200-310 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should
these services be provisioned?
A. core
B. aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. distribution
Correct Answer: B
Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?
A. recognizes users, their devices, and their roles in the network
B. does not offer audit and reporting features
C. must be placed inline with other network devices
D. does not recognize guest users
Correct Answer: A
What are two purposes of route redundancy? (Choose two.)
A. minimize the effect of link failures
B. minimize the effect of internetworking device failures
C. minimize the convergence time of STP
D. load balance across redundant paths
E. save network costs
200-310 pdf 
Correct Answer: AB
Which two options can be virtual networking devices? (Choose two.)
A. ESX host
C. switches
D. routers
E. Hyper-V host
Correct Answer: CD
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. Which is the most
important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?
A. security
B. static versus dynamic routing
C. bandwidth
D. QoS
E. latency
200-310 vce 
Correct Answer: A

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