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QUESTION 1
What causes echo or reverberation in the room during a call?
A. too many acoustic panels
B. too many hard surfaces
C. too many people
D. too many devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the IX5000?
A. immersive collaboration
B. mobile-device use
C. desktop use
D. home use
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two peripheral devices are available for the IX5000? (Choose two.)
A. additional Touch 12 screens
B. additional Touch 10 screens
C. additional Touch 8 screens
D. document scanner
E. auxiliary monitors
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
Which two standards does the IX5000 codec support? (Choose two.)
A. H.324
B. H.320
C. H.265
D. G.729AB
E. G.728
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which infrastructure component is needed for OBTP?
A. Prime Collaboration
B. Cisco VCS
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco TelePresence System
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which action should you take before upgrading a telepresence system?A. Restore the current configurations.
B. Back up the current configurations.
C. Restore the factory settings.
D. Contact TAC for upgrade instructions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two options are available through the participant icon? (Choose two.)
A. List all missed calls.
B. Drop a caller from the call.
C. List all participants who were dropped from the call.
D. List all participants on the call.
E. Add a caller to the call.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
How can you change presentation display options during a call?
A. Open the share tray and drag the presentation to the desired location.
B. Open the share tray and assign display numbers to each presentation.
C. Open the system settings and reconfigure the display options.
D. Open the participant list and drag the presentation to the desired location.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is the required ratio for the whiteboard setup?
A. 16:9
B. 4:3
C. 21:9
D. 5:7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two actions are part of the Display Connection step during endpoint configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Determine the screen resolution.
B. Register the endpoint to Unified Communications Manager.
C. Perform an internal display cabling check.
D. Determine the system layout display on Touch 10.
E. Register the endpoint to the Cisco VCS.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
What should you do first when the cameras are blurry?
A. Close and re-open Self View
B. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
C. Close and re-open the share tray.
D. Power-cycle the system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the proper order of steps for installing an IX5000?
A. Perform cable routing, install display frames, install tabletops, and install the codec.
B. Install tabletops, perform cable routing, install display frames, and install the codec.
C. Install display frames, install the codec, perform cable routing, and install tabletops.
D. Install display frames, install tabletops, perform cable routing, and install the codec.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
How many presentations can be shared in a direct IX5000-to-IX5000 call?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
If a single microphone fails, you should first test cabling between which two points?
A. the TDM and the codec
B. the microphone bar and the Touch 10
C. the microphone bar and the codec
D. the microphone bar and the TDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
What can cause the tables to appear warped?
A. Cables to the displays are installed incorrectly.
B. Parts or screws in the table assembly are installed incorrectly.
C. The room contains too manycontrasting colors.
D. The table is placed too close to the screens.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Where can you find packet-transmission statistics?
A. Monitoring > Maintenance
B. Monitoring > Network Data
C. Monitoring > Statistics
D. Monitoring > Call Info
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What is the minimum required number of people to install an IX5000 in one day?
A. threeB. four
C. two
D. one
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What should you do first when the local Touch 10 falsely indicates that content is being shared?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What should you do first when a display shows a black screen instead of presentation content after hot-
swapping cables?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Where is the option to choose OBTP?
A. Booking > Basic Settings> New Conference
B. New Conference > Booking > Basic Settings > Type
C. Booking > New Conference > Basic Settings > Type
D. Basic Settings > New Conference > Booking
Correct Answer: C

Conclusion:

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PASS4ITSURE Cisco 400-101 DUMPS TRAINING PROGRAM ONLINE HERE(1-12)
Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What is the problem?
A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E. The link is congested.
400-101 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Here we see that the Time to Live (TTL) value of the packet is one, so it will be forwarded to the next hop router, but then dropped because the TTL value will be 0 at the next hop.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside thenetwork.Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shownas accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative ofreceive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data burstscoming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). You will never see asustained data traffic within show interface’s “input rate” counter as they are averaging bitsper second (bps) over 5 minutes by default (way too long to account for microbursts). Youcan understand microbursts from a scenario where a 3-lane highway merging into a singlelane at rush hour – the capacity burst cannot exceed the total available bandwidth (i.e.single lane), but it can saturate it for a period of time.

Question No : 3 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the extended ping command field on the left to its usage on the right.
400-101 dumps
400-101 dumps Answer:
400-101 dumps

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
Answer: A
Explanation:
We can see that the connection is initiated by the Source IP address shown as 144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is inhex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254. Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
400-101 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid forreaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would notneed a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to dowith this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will havea default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
Answer: B
Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines itsinterpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload typecodes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamicallythrough non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any giventime; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecsand their payload type values can be found at the link below:

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
400-101 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:“Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudoheader of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zerooctets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.”In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around andadd it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield thevalue of the UDP checksum field.If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as theone’s complement (all 1s).

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
400-101 exam Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols areneeded so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames.The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populatedbased on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB)is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused.

Question No : 11 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the argument of the mls ip cef load-sharing command on the left to the
function it performs on the right.
400-101 dumps
400-101 dumps Answer:

Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.)
A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0
B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0
C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0
D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0
E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Output drops are caused by a congested interface. For example, the traffic rate on theoutgoing interface cannot accept all packets that should be sent out, or a service policy isapplied that is oversubscribed. The ultimate solution to resolve the problem is to increasethe line speed. However, there are ways to prevent, decrease, or control output dropswhen you do not want to increase the line speed. You can prevent output drops only ifoutput drops are a consequence of short bursts of data. If output drops are caused by aconstant high-rate flow, you cannot prevent the drops. However, you can control them.

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QUESTION 18
When configuring the WLC for single sign-on for the NAC, which device is used for the RADIUS accounting IP address?
A. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
B. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
C. Cisco NAC Guest Server
D. Cisco ACS
E. Cisco WCS
642-737 exam 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which option verifies that a wireless client has authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
802.1X AP supplicant credentials have been enabled and configured on a Cisco WLC v7.0 in both the respective Wireless>AP>Global Configuration location and AP>Credentials tab locations. What describes the 802.1X AP authentication process when connected via Ethernet to a switch?
A. Only WLC AP global credentials are used.
B. Only AP credentials are used.
C. WLC global AP credentials are used first; upon failure, the AP credentials are used.
D. AP credentials are used first; upon failure, the WLC global credentials are used.
642-737 dumps 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which two statements best describe the local authentication configuration options for a Cisco WLC v7.0 and local mode AP? (Choose two.)
A. LEAP and EAP-FAST only
B. LEAP, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP, and EAP-TLS only
C. LEAP, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP, EAP-TLS, and EAP-MD5
D. EAP-FAST with PAC provision only
E. EAP-FAST with PAC or certificate provision

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 22
Client Management Frame Protection is supported on which Cisco Compatible Extensions version clients?
A. v2 and later
B. v3 and later
C. v4 and later
D. v5 only
642-737 pdf 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which three items must be configured on a Cisco WLC v7.0 to allow implementation of isolated bonding network? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS server IP address
B. DHCP IP address
C. SNMP trap receiver IP address
D. interface name
E. SNMP community name
F. ACL name
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 24
Which three WLAN polices can be controlled by using the Cisco IBNS on the Cisco WLC and Cisco Secure ACS? (Choose three.)
A. QoS setting
B. VLAN
C. EAP type
D. ACL
E. authentication priority order
F. NAC state
642-737 vce 
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 25
A major justification for investments in computer-integrated manufacturing CIM) projects is:
A. Reduction in the costs of spoilage, reworked units, and scrap.
B. Lower Carr ring amount and depreciation expense for factory equipment.
C. Increased working capital.
D. Stabilization of market share.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Automating and computerizing production processes requires a substantial investment infined assets and an increase in risk because of greater fixed costs. CI also necessitates anincrease in software costs and extensive worker retraining. However, the costs of spoilage,rework, and scrap are reduced along with labor costs. The qualitative advantages of I areincreased flexibility, shorter manufacturing lead time, quicker development of new products,better product delivery and service, faster response to market changes, and improvedcompetitiveness.

QUESTION 26
A major benefit of computer integrated manufacturing CIM) is:
A. Increased amount of scrap available for resale.
B. Increased working capital.
C. Delivery of customized products with long lead times.
D. Increased flexibility.
642-737 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CIM entails a holistic approach to manufacturing in which design is translated into productby centralized processing and robotics. CIM can help an organization reduce costs ofspoilage, increase flexibility, and increase productivity. Flexibility is the key benefit. Atraditional manufacturing system might become disrupted from an emergency change, butCII1 will reschedule everything in the plant when a priority requirement is inserted into thesystem.

QUESTION 27
The effect of just-in-time production approaches:
A. Reduces the dependency on suppliers.
B. Reduces the cost of implementing strategies.
C. Decreases production facility flexibility.
D. Increases the need for a dependable workforce.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Just-in-time JIT) production approaches can reduce the cost of production. It lowers oreliminates inventory costs and requires production improvements to eliminate productdefects.

QUESTION 28
A manufacturer uses a materials requirements planning 1RP) system to track inventory, orders, and raw material requirements. A preliminary audit assessment indicates that the organization’s inventory is understated. Using audit software, what conditions should the auditor search for in the MRP database to support this hypothesis?
I.Item cost set at zero.
II. Negative quantities on hand.
III. Order quantity exceeding requirements.
IV. Inventory lead times exceeding delivery schedule.
A. I and II only.
B. I and I only.
C. II and I only.
D. III and I only.
642-737 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If there is no monetary amount in the database for existing inventory, inventory will beunderstated. Moreover, inadequate edit checks or uncontrolled borrow/ paybacks could causenegative quantities to be reported. This condition would cause inventory to be understated. Ifthe amount ordered exceeds requirements, the result is an increase in inventory. However, byitself, this condition would not cause inventory to be understated or overstated. Also, if leadtimes are longer than delivery times, the effect is an increase in inventory but not necessarilya misstatement.

QUESTION 29
The internal auditor found that the purchasing department has a policy of setting all purchasing lead times to the highest number of days experienced within each product subassembly}, even though some subassemblies required 3 or more months to complete. To address the objective of reducing inventory holding costs related to this policy, the internal auditor should focus on:
A. Reviewing production requirements for a sample of products to determine at which pointin the production process materials and subassemblies are needed.
B. Evaluating whether product-line assignments were rotated among the members of thepurchasing department.
C. Identifying signature approval authority} among members of the purchasing department inrelation to any computer system controls.
D. Testing those products having the highest sales to determine the average number of daysthat the completed products were held in inventory.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The effect of this policy is to increase inventory holding carrying) costs. Using the longestlead time avoids stockout costs but ensures that many items will be delivered long beforethey are needed.

QUESTION 30
Just-in-time JIT) inventory systems have been adopted by large manufacturers to minimize the carrying costs of inventories. Identify the primary vulnerability of JIT systems.
A. Computer resources.
B. Materials supply contracts.
C. Work stoppages.
D. Implementation time.
642-737 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
JIT minimizes inventory by relying on coordination with suppliers to provide deliveries whenthey are needed for production. Consequently, work stoppages are more likely due to Stockouts, because the inventory buffer is reduced or eliminated.

QUESTION 31
A company manufactures banana hooks for retail sale. The bill of materials for this item and the parts inventory for each material required are as follows: An incoming order calls for deliver,” of 2,000 banana hooks in 2 weeks. The company has 200 finished banana hooks in current inventory. If no safety stocks are required for inventory, what are the company’s net requirements for swag hooks and screws needed to fill this order?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The company needs 1,800 banana hooks 2,000 — 200) and therefore 1,800 swag hooks 11,800) and 3,600 wood screws 2 1,800). Given that 300 swag hooks and 400 wood screwsare on hand, the company must obtain 1,500 swag hooks 1,800 — 300) and 3,200 woodscrews 3,600 400).

QUESTION 32  
The purpose of the economic order quantity model is to:
A. Minimize the safety stock.
B. Minimize the sum of the order costs and the holding costs.
C. Minimize the inventory quantities.
D. Minimize the sum of the demand costs and the backlog costs.
642-737 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The purpose of the EOQ model is to minimize the sum of inventory order costs setup) andholding carrying) costs. The EOQ equals the square root of: twice the annual demandmultiplied by the variable cost per order, divided by the unit periodic holding cost.

QUESTION 33
Which of the follov5ring is used in determining the economic order quantity ECQ)?
A. Regression analysis.
B. Calculus.
C. Markov process.
D. Queuing theory
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The primary business application of differential calculus is to identify the maxima or minimaof curvilinear functions. In business and economics, these are the points of revenue or profitmaximization maxima) or cost minimization minima). The Eli results from differentiating thetotal cost with regard to order quantity.

QUESTION 34
The EOQ economic order quantity) model calculates the cost-minimizing quantity of a product to order, based an a constant annual demand, carrying costs per unit per annum, and cost per order. For example, the EOQ is approximately 447 units if the annual demand is 10,000 units, carrying costs are US $1 per item per annum, and the cost of placing an order is US $10. What will the EOQ be if the demand falls to 5,000 units per annum and the carrying and ordering costs remain at US $1 and US $10, respectively?
A. 316
B. 447
C. 483
D. 500
642-737 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The ECQ formula is
X =(2AD/K)1/2

QUESTION 35
A company stocks, maintains, and distributes inventory. The company decides to add to the safety stock and expedite delivery for several product lines on a trial basis. For the selected product lines the company will experience:
A. An increase in some costs but no change in the service level.
B. A change in the service level.
C. An increase in ordering, carrying, and delivery costs.
D. decrease in ordering, carrying, and delivery costs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Safety stocks are amounts held in excess of forecasted demand to avoid the losses associatedwith stockouts. Holding safety stocks improves the level of service to customers at theexpense of increased holding costs.

QUESTION 36
Which of the following inventory items would be the most frequently reviewed in an ABC inventory control system?
A. Expensive, frequently used, high stock-out cost items with short lead times.
B. Expensive, frequently used, low stock-out cost items with long lead times.
C. Inexpensive, frequently used, high stock-out cost items with long lead times.
D. Expensive, frequently used, high stock-out cost items with long lead times.
642-737 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
The ABC system is a method for controlling inventories that divides inventory items intothree groups:
Group A — high-monetary value items, which account for a small portion perhaps 10%) ofthe total inventory usage
Group B — medium-monetary value items, which may account for about 20°10 of the totalinventory items
Group C — low-monetary value items, which account for the remaining 70% of sales orusage The ABC system permits the proper degree of managerial control to be identified andexercised over each group. Group A items are reviewed on a regular basis. Group B itemsmay not have to be revered as often as group A items, but more often than group C items. Forgroup C, extensive use of models and records is not cost effective. It is cheaper to order largequantities infrequently. The ABC method therefore reduces the safety-stock investmentbecause high-value items are frequently monitored and medium- value items are monitoredmore often than inexpensive items. Frequent review can prevent stockouts and decreaseinventory levels, and the cost of such review is minimized if it is limited to high- or mediumvalueitems.

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QUESTION 4
An engineer is performing an international multisite deployment and wants to create an effective backup method to access TEHO destinations in case the call limit triggers. Which technology provides this ability?
A. AAR
B. CFUR
C. LRG
D. SRST
300-075 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
A presales engineer is working on a quote for a major customer and must evaluate how many Cisco VCS Expressway traversal call licenses for which to plan. Calls to and from which three routes must the engineer include in the tally? (Choose three.)
A. gateway
B. Cisco 9971 Endpoint
C. border controllers
D. gatekeeper
E. SIP trunk
F. VCS
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 6
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list
300-075 dump Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
In Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where do you configure the default bit rate for audio and video devices?
A. Enterprise Parameters
B. Region under Region Information
C. Cisco CallManager service under Service Parameter Configuration
D. Enterprise Phone Configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which three messages does a Cisco VCS use to monitor the Presence status of endpoints? (Choose three.)
A. start-call
B. in-all
C. end-call

D. call-ended
E. call-started
F. registration
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: BDF
Question: 9
You work as a Software Developer for company Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle events throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to inspect incoming and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What will be the correct order to create the HTTP module?
Answer: Pending
Question: 10
You work as a Software Developer for company Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework 3.5. The application contains two HTML pages named Error.htm and PageNotFound.htm. You want to make sure that the following requirements are met:
l When any user requests a page that does not exist, the PageNotFound.htm page is displayed.
l When any other error occurs, the Error.htm page is displayed. Which of the following code
segments will you add to the Web.config file to accomplish this task?
A. <customErrors mode=”On” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
B. <customErrors mode=”Off”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
C. <customErrors mode=”On”>
<error statusCode=”400″ redirect=”Error.htm”/>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
D. <customErrors mode=”Off” defaultRedirect=”Error.htm”>
<error statusCode=”404″ redirect=”PageNotFound.htm”/>
</customErrors>
300-075 vce Answer: A
Question: 11
You work as a Software Developer for company Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. The application will be used to share any type of photos on Internet. All the photos should be accessible in various sizes and formats. You need to add a download feature that can be easily maintained. You also need to make sure that only a single version of all photos is stored on a SQL server database. What will you do?
A. Create an HttpModule class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
B. Create a user control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
C. Create an HttpHandler class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the Photo according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
D. Create an ActiveX control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
Answer: C
Question: 12
You work as a Software Developer for company Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists of three Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the following requirements: l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails. l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user. You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the following configurations will you use?
A. <sessionState mode=”StateServer”/>
B. <sessionState mode=”InProc”/>
C. <sessionState mode=”Custom”/>
D. <sessionState mode=”SQLServer”/>
300-075 exam Answer: D
Question: 13
You work as a Software Developer for company Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application will be used by all the branches of the company. You are using the CompareInfo class for culture-sensitive string comparisons. You write the following code in the application:
String s1 = “C rtify”;
String s2 = “c rtify”;
String s3 = “c rtify”;
You need to compare the s1 string with the s2 string and ensure that the string comparison must ignore case. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo;
Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1, s2, CompareOptions.IgnoreCase));
B. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo;
Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1, s2, CompareOptions.None));
C. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo;
Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1, s2, CompareOptions.Ordinal));
D. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo;
Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1, s2, CompareOptions.OrdinalIgnoreCase));
Answer: A
Question: 14
Andrew works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. The company’s network has a Web server that hosts the company’s Web site. Andrew wants to enhance the security of the Web site by implementing Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Which of the following types of encryption does SSL use? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Symmetric
B. Secret
C. IPSec
D. Asymmetric
300-075 dump Answer: A, D
Question: 15
You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application and use it to create code access security policies. Which of the following tools will you use to examine and modify code access security policies from a batch file?
A. Tlbimp.exe
B. GacUtil.exe
C. Sn.exe
D. Caspol.exe
E. StoreAdm.exe
Answer: D
Question: 16
You can use LINQ in an ASP.NET application through the LinqDataSource control, the __________ control, or by creating LINQ queries.
A. ADO.NET DataSet
B. ObjectDataSource
C. SqlDataSource
D. XmlDataSource
300-075 pdf Answer: B
Question: 17
Which of the following techniques is used to transmit passwords during authentication?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Hashing
C. Salted Hash
D. Symmetric encryption
Answer: C
Question: 18
Which of the following session and instancing modes will you set if you require a sessionfull binding and want to create a new instance object for each client request?
A. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerSession.
B. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to Single.
C. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
D. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
300-075 vce Answer: C
Question: 19
In .NET Framework 3.5, you can create and access values that persist from one application session to another. What are these values called?
A. Objects
B. Settings
C. Properties
D. Attributes
Answer: B
Question: 20
Session variables can be any valid __________.
A. .NET Framework type
B. Integer type
C. SessionStateItemCollection object
D. Object type
300-075 exam Answer: A
Question: 21
In which of the following objects are session variables stored?
A. SessionStateStoreData
B. SessionStateModule
C. SessionStateItemCollection
D. SessionStateStoreProviderBase
Answer: C
Question: 22
Which of the following utilities is used to encrypt credentials and session state connection strings?
A. Aximp.exe
B. Aspnet_regiis.exe
C. Aspnet_compiler.exe
D. Aspnet_setreg.exe
300-075 dump Answer: D
Question: 23
Which of the following modifiers is not available in C#?
A. private
B. friend
C. internal
D. public
E. protected
Answer: B
Question: 24
Which of the following classes will you use to specify that a string must be centered when drawn?
A. StringAlignment
B. StingFormat
C. String
D. LineAlignment
300-075 pdf Answer: B
Question: 25
Which of the following is a reference type in Visual C#?
A. primitive types
B. strings
C. enums
D. structures
Answer: B
Question: 26
Which of the following data structures is used for storing reference data types?
A. Stack
B. Queue
C. Hard disk
D. Heap
300-075 vce Answer: D
Question: 27
Which of the following is a restriction operator in LINQ?
A. GROUPBY
B. WHERE
C. THENBY
D. SELECTMANY
Answer: B
Question: 28
Which of the following modifiers in C# will you use if you do NOT want a custom-build component to be a base class?
A. sealed
B. virtual
C. override
D. static
300-075 exam Answer: A
Question: 29
Which of the following attributes of the customErrors element is used to specify whether custom errors are enabled, disabled, or shown only to remote clients?
A. Off
B. Mode
C. On
D. RemoteOnly
Answer: B
Question: 30
What is the main purpose of a try-catch block?
A. To obtain and use resources that are being caught.
B. To signal the occurrence of an exception during the program execution.
C. To catch and handle an exception generated by an executable code.
D. To ensure that the necessary cleanup of external resources is done immediately.
300-075 dump Answer: C
Question: 31
ASP.NET version 2.0 health monitoring supports an __________.
A. Event driven model
B. Event provider model
C. Event log model
D. Event API model
Answer: B
Question: 32
Which of the following APIs is used to collect information about any running state and any errors that occur within an ASP.NET application?
A. Profile API
B. Health Monitoring API
C. Error Handling API
D. Personalization API
300-075 pdf Answer: B
Question: 33
The <customErrors> element does not apply to errors that occur in __________.
A. XML Web services
B. Windows services
C. Web services directory
D. Web services
Answer: A
Question: 34
Which of the following syntaxes is used for the EncryptionAlgorithm property of the Message class?
A. [MessagingDescriptionAttribute(“MessageEncryptionAlgorithm”)]
public EncryptionAlgorithm : EncryptionAlgorithm { }
B. [MessagingDescriptionAttribute(“MessageEncryption”)]
public EncryptionAlgorithm EncryptionAlgorithm { }
C. [MessagingDescriptionAttribute(“MessageEncryption”)]
public EncryptionAlgorithm EncryptionAlgorithm { get; set; }
D. [MessagingDescriptionAttribute(“MessageEncryptionAlgorithm”)]
public EncryptionAlgorithm : EncryptionAlgorithm { get; set; }
300-075 vce Answer: C
Question: 35
Which of the following is the best encryption algorithm to encrypt and decrypt messages?
A. AES
B. TripleDES
C. DES
D. RSA
Answer: D
Question: 36
Which of the following is not a method of controlling traffic through a firewall?
A. Application filtering
B. Encryption-level filtering
C. Stateful inspection
D. Packet filtering
300-075 exam Answer: B
Question: 37
Which of the following algorithms supports key lengths from 128 bits to 192 bits in increments of 64 bits?
A. DESCryptoServiceProvider
B. TripleDESCryptoServiceProvider
C. TripleDES
D. AESCryptoServiceProvider
Answer: C
Question: 38
Which of the following provide simplified access to ASP.NET AJAX login, roles, and profile services from Windows Forms and WPF applications?
A. Entity Framework
B. AJAX application services
C. Client application services
D. Sync Framework
300-075 dump Answer: C
Question: 39
Which of the following providers is a block cipher that encrypts and decrypts data in blocks of 8 bytes?
A. RNGCryptoServiceProvider
B. SHA1CryptoServiceProvider
C. RC2CryptoServiceProvider
D. RSACryptoServiceProvider
Answer: C
Question: 40
Which of the following is required to be implemented by marshal-by-value objects to implement custom serialization rules?
A. ISerializable
B. SerializableAttribute
C. ISerializableAttribute
D. ISerialize
300-075 pdf Answer: A

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QUESTION 16
Which technology focuses on Layer 2 distributed data centers?
A. FabricPath
B. Adapter FEX
C. LISP
D. OTV
210-451 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Cisco APICs utilize sharding to provide what function for an ACI fabric?
A. It provides scalability and reliability to the data sets generated and processed by the Distributed Policy Repository, the endpoint registry, the Observer, and the Topology Manager
B. It provides replication of application network policies across the APICs in the cluster
C. It provides a method for determining which APIC will act as the master in a fabric during the election process
D. It provides horizontal scaling ability for policy management on APICs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 21
One class B network 155. 16. 0. 0, the mask is 255. 255. 255. 192. Then subnet quantity available is ( ) , the host quantity in every subnet at most is ( )
A. 512 126
B. 1024 64
C. 1024 62
D. 256 254
E. 192 254
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
For network segment 192.168.2.16/28, how many hosts it can hold at most?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 15
D. 14
E. 7
210-451 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
The IP address 0. 0. 0.0 indicates ( ).
A. Network address
B. Broadcast address of specially designated network segment
C. All networks
D. Broadcast address of all nodes of local network segment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What is the network address for 190. 233. 27. 13/16?
A. 190. 0. 0. 0
B. 190. 233. 0. 0
C. 190. 233. 27. 0
D. 190. 233. 27. 1
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following address types are reserved for multicast use?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class E

D. Class D
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which is the default network mask length of 219.25.23.56?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What is the maximum bits of a Class B address can be used for subnet ?
A. 8
B. 14
C. 16
D. 22
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
The subnet mask of a class a address is 250. 205. 240. 0, how many bits are used to divide subnet?
A. 4
B. 0
C. 9
D. 12
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements are correct regarding OSPF Router LSA ?
A. Every router running OSPF must generate Router LSA.
B. In broadcast and NBMA network, only DR0ther generates Router LSA
C. Router LSA describes link states of the router in area.
D. Router LSA is flooded in the whole AS.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 30
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Network LSA in OSPF network?
A. Network LSA is generated by ABR.
B. Only the router which connects NBMA or Broadcast Network may generate Network LSA.
C. DR uses Network LSA to describe routers that have established adjacency relation with it in the network.
D. Network LSA is flooded in the whole AS.
210-451 vce Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 31
Which type of LSA is only used to calculate external route?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which of the followings are OSPF packet type ?
A. LSA
B. LS Request
C. LSP
D. LS Update
E. LS Ack
210-451 exam Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 33
Which of the following elements together uniquely identify a LSA?
A. LS type
B. Link state ID
C. Advertising Router
D. LS Sequence number
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements are correct regarding how OSPF detects old and duplicate LSAs?
A. The smaller the sequence number, the more recent the LSA.
B. The smaller the LS age, the more recent the LSA.
C. When router generates a new LSA at the first time, it will use Ox80000001 as the sequence number.
D. An LSA can be flushed from routing domain by setting its LSA age to \4axage.
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 35
Which of the following statements are correct regarding intra-area route calculation of OSPF?
A. Every OSPF router only uses one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
B. Every OSPF uses more than one Router LSA to describe local active link state for one area.
C. One Router LSA only describes one link.
D. One Router LSA describes more than one link.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 36
A customer is using the Hitachi Command Suite (HCS) to manage their storage environment comprising VSPs, HUS and HNAS platforms connected to Linux and Windows servers. Several of the HUS systems, as well as competitors arrays are virtualized behind the VSPs. Which three functions does the HCS provide in this environment? (Choose three.)
A. common GUI
B. server virtualization software
C. integration of all third-party arrays in a global storage management framework
D. single management tool for all Hitachi storage systems and virtualized storage environments
E. common CLI
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 37
Which Hitachi Command Suite product would be installed on a server different from the one where the Hitachi Device Manager software resides?
A. Tiered Storage Manager
B. Tuning Manager
C. Partition Manager
D. Replication Manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
You are working within a Hitachi Device Manager environment. What are three benefits of implementing Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP)? (Choose three.)
A. Data written across multiple disks optimizes performance.
B. User capacity can be allocated before storage is purchased.
C. User data is automatically mirrored to secondary storage.
D. HDP volumes can be dynamically shrunk.
E. HDP volumes can be dynamically expanded.
210-451 vce Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 39
From the Mobility tab of the Hitachi Command Suite (HCS), which two operations would you perform to optimize placement of data within a Hitachi Dynamic Tiering (HDT) environment? (Choose two.)
A. Create an HDT tiering policy.
B. Edit Tier Relocation of HDT volumes.
C. Expand HDT volumes.
D. Start manual monitoring of HDT pools.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 40
What information is provided by the Hitachi Device Manager Agent to the Hitachi Device Manager server? (Choose three.)
A. WWN
B. IP address
C. domain name
D. host name
E. MAC address
210-451 exam Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 41
Using Hitachi Device Manager, a customer needs to see all required information on a display but the screen layout is difficult to read. They do not need to see the volume labels. What should the customer do?
A. Access More Actions and choose Hide Labels.
B. Access Column Settings and deselect Labels.
C. Edit the ShowLabels parameter in the server.properties file and restart the HiCommandServer service.
D. Ask for the user profile to be changed to disallow labels.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
You want to restore the HiRDB database on a Hitachi Command Suite (HCS) server. Which two operations should you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Edit the server. properties file to prepare the database synchronization.
B. Open the Utility tab in the HCS GUI and select the Restore Database function.
C. Run the HiRDB backup/restore wizard and select the backup file to be restored.
D. Use the hcmdsdb /restore command to initiate the restore process.
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 43
Which two operations would you perform on a VSP using the Element Manager feature of Hitachi Device Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Create a system disk.
B. Generate storage utilization reports for groups of storage systems.
C. View the configuration of a storage system.
D. Update a storage system microcode.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 44
You want to create a Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning pool on a VSP using Hitachi Device Manager. Which two conditions apply? (Choose two.)
A. Drive types cannot be mixed.
B. LDEVs must be selected.
C. Parity groups must be selected.
D. The maximum pool number cannot exceed 127.
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 45
Hitachi Device Manager manages file servers based on information sent from which two products? (Choose two.)
A. Netapp file servers
B. Hitachi High performance NAS platform
C. Hitachi NAS blades
D. Hitachi Data Ingestor
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 46
What must be setup before adding an HUS110 into Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) and discovering this storage system?
A. a Command Device in the HUS110 mapped to the HDvM server
B. a Storage Management Device in the HUS110 mapped to the HDvM server
C. a TCP/IP connection between the HUS110 and the HDvM server
D. a SAN connection between the HUS110 and the HDvM server
210-451 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Examine the image below:
Four areas of the image have been highlighted for your reference. In the image, what highlighted area is represented by the color green?
A. Banner ad
B. Image ad
C. In stream video
D. In video overlay
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Ben has created 60 videos for YouTube that he uses to promote his software training company. The videos are not promoted videos, but they are advertisements, informative sessions, and free computer lessons that he has published on YouTube. Ben would like to use YouTube Insight. How can he access this tool?
A. Ben can use YouTube insight for all of his videos if he will make one video a promoted vide o.
B. Ben can use YouTube insight by click his account name in YouTube, then choosing Insight.
C. Ben cannot use YouTube insight because his videos are not promoted videos.
D. Ben can download YouTube insight from the YouTube homepage, choosing applications, and then the YouTube Insight application.
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
You are a consultant to John, who owns an online dog food company. You’ve recommended that John include his Google AdWords to some very specific placement types. In fact, you’ve told John that there are six different placement types he may choose from. Which of the following is NOT one of the six placement types included as part of the Google Content Network placement types?
A. Commerce
B. Audio
C. Game
D. Video
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
You are creating an InVideo overlay ad unit based on YouTube’s FLA template. As you create this ad, you must follow some very specific requirements for the overlay to be accepted by YouTube. Which one of the following statements is an accurate statement about the overlay advertisement?
A. The maximum file size is 100KB, the maximum animation is 10 seconds, and the frame rate must be set to 30 frames per second.
B. The maximum file size is 100KB, the maximum animation is 10 seconds, and the frame rate must be set to 25 frames per second.

C. The maximum file size is 120KB, the maximum animation is 30 seconds, and the frame rate must be set to 10 frames per second.
D. The maximum file size is 10KB, the maximum animation is 3 seconds, and the frame rate must be set to 30 frames per second.
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Fred is a Google AdWords consultant for his client. He is explaining to his client that there are actually three ways to add managed placements to an ad group. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three methods Fred can use to add managed placements to an ad group?
A. Browsing the Web for placements with the Google AdWords toolbar
B. Using the Placement tool
C. Copying from the automatic placement table
D. Manually adding
Correct Answer: A


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QUESTION 1
What is created by the Content Server as a result of the copy operation?
A. A relation object to the original document being copied
B. A relation object to the original document being copied with a link to the original content
C. A new document object and a copy of the original content
D. A new document object and link to the original content
300-175 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true when a checkin operation is performed by the Content Server?
A. The Lock Owner property must match the user name performing the operation before the Lock Owner property is cleared out.
B. The Lock Owner property is set with the user name performing the operation.
C. The Owner property is set with the user name performing the operation.
D. The Last Access Date property is set to the current date and time.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What is required to enable editing of a document in the repository?
A. The document must be checked out.
B. The document must use an appropriate permission set with Edit (Write) permission.
C. The document must be owned by the user performing the edit.
D. The user must not be editing other documents.
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true regarding a document object with renditions?
A. Renditions are generated for each version of a document.
B. Renditions are generated for only new versions of a document.
C. Renditions are generated only from the original content.
D. Renditions cannot have images embedded.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What implements subscriptions to document objects?
A. Client Application
B. BAM Server
C. Content Server
D. xPlore Server
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
What must the client application do to enable a user to view a different rendition format than the original associated with the document object?
A. Request the format from the same document object.

B. Request the format from a different object related to the original.
C. Generate the rendition being requested by the user.
D. Request the format from the previous version of the document object.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about full-text activation in D2?
A. For optimal full-text search capabilities, DQL Fulltext and Documentum xPlore should be used simultaneously.
B. Activation of full-text search capabilities using Documentum xPlore and OpenSearch requires an external search engine installation.
C. Activation of full-text search capabilities using DQL Fulltext and OpenSearch requires an external search engine installation.
D. For optimal full-text search capabilities, DQL Fulltext and OpenSearch should be used simultaneously.
300-175 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding functionality in D2 version 4.0 and later?
A. Full-text search results include relevance.
B. Google syntax is no longer supported for simple and advanced searches.
C. Boolean syntax is only supported in advanced searches.
D. The default setting for simple search is 5 results.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What is the process used to ensure that multiple repositories can share the same subset of documents?
A. Content Pre Caching
B. Publication
C. Content Replication
D. Object Replication
300-175 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What facilitates access to a specific document from different locations?
A. Mirroring
B. Linking
C. Virtualization
D. Cloud
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which product provides policy-based implementation of Information Lifecycle Management?
A. Hierarchical Storage Management
B. MIGRATE_CONTENT
C. Content Storage Services
D. FTP Services

300-175 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which benefit does the Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS) architecture provide in a single- repository distributed environment?
A. A copy of the content to store at each location is created.
B. Content upload and download performance is improved.
C. Content and properties from the repository are published to a target site.
D. Global users, global groups, and global ACL’s can be created on a governing repository to be
replicated onto member repositories.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
When using a Documentum web application, which components are required for accessing a repository?
A. Application Server, Content Server
B. BOCS, Application Server
C. ACS, Content Server
D. Rendering Server, Content Server
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which architectural characteristic of Documentum provides for aggregation of unstructured content?
A. Relational Database
B. Content Storage Services
C. Common Repository
D. Documentum Reporting Services
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which formats can be stored in the Documentum repository?
A. Any format that is stored on a computer
B. Image formats only
C. PDF and Microsoft Office
D. Web-ready formats only
300-175 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
An administrator has modified an XML document in the file system. How can the administrator replace an XML document that already exists in the repository with the modified document?
A. Delete the existing document from the repository and import the replacement file.
B. Checkout the existing document and check in the replacement document from file.
C. Checkout the document from the file system and check it back in as a new major version.
D. Import the new document to the repository.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
What is a characteristic feature of My Documentum for Desktop?
A. Integration with Windows File System Explorer
B. Recycle bin
C. A Documentum menu bar item
D. A customization of Webtop
300-175 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which Webtop feature enables quick access to favorite documents from the browser tree menu?
A. Properties dialog
B. Favorites
C. Subscription
D. Notification
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
What happens to a Microsoft Word document when a user imports it into the repository?
A. A copy of the document is made and imported into the repository file store.
B. Nothing. Documentum only stores metadata along with a pointer to the document in the file system.
C. A copy of the document is made and imported along with metadata into the repository.
D. The original document is moved from the file system and imported into the repository file store.
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
In a Documentum environment, how is it apparent to a user that Microsoft Office integrations are enabled on their machine?
A. The user is restricted to using only Microsoft Office formats when creating new documents.
B. A Microsoft logo appears in the upper-right corner of the Webtop home page.
C. A Documentum menu option displays when the user opens Microsoft Word.
D. A Microsoft Office menu option displays when the user logs in to Webtop.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
A Webtop user checks out a Microsoft Word document from the repository and edits it. How will the user be prompted upon checkin of the edited document?
A. Checkin as the same, next minor, or next major version.
B. Checkin as the same version
C. Checkin as either the next major or minor version
D. Rename the new version
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
When a document object is checked in as the same version, which statement is true?
A. All renditions are orphaned from all versions.
B. All renditions are orphaned from the current version.

C. No renditions are orphaned from the current version.
D. All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of same version checkin.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
If a user has completed the checkout operation on a document object, which statement is true?
A. Only this user or a superuser can cancel the checkout operation.
B. Only this user can cancel the checkout operation.
C. Only this user or a superuser cancheckin the document object.
D. Only the superuser can cancel the checkout operation.
300-175 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
When a document with renditions is versioned, which statement is true?
A. New renditions must be generated automatically.
B. All renditions from previous version are carried over by default.
C. All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of new version checkin.
D. All renditions are orphaned from all versions.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which statement is true for checking in multiple document objects to a repository?
A. The client application determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
B. The Content Server determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
C. The data dictionary can be configured to allow more than one document object with the same name in the same folder.
D. The Content Server architecture does not allow document objects with the same name in the same folder.
300-175 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which statement is true for a user who has Browse and Extended Delete and does not belong to any roles listed on the permission set?
A. The user can view the document object’s content and delete the document object.
B. The user can move or delete the document object but is unable to view the properties.
C. The user can move or delete the document object and view its content.
D. The user can view the properties but is unable to view the document object’s content.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which statement is true regarding versioning when a user edits version 1.1 of a document object, which is an older version than what is currently available?
A. A new version of the document object is created, and “1.0” is appended to the edited version.
B. A new version of the document object is created, and “2.0” is appended to the edited version.
C. The document object is saved as version 1.1.
D. The document object is saved as version 2.0.

C. No renditions are orphaned from the current version.
D. All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of same version checkin.
300-175 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
A client application applies the “In Review” version label to a document object. What is the expected behavior the next time a user performs a checkin on that document?
A. The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document and the previous version.
B. The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document and is removed from the previous version.
C. The “In Review” version label cannot be applied to the new version of the document and remains with the previous version.
D. The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document, while the previous version with the same label will be deleted by the Content Server.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
A user has Edit (Write) permission on a document object that is contained in FolderA. The same user has Edit (Write) permission on FolderA and FolderB. The user wants to move the document object from FolderA to FolderB. Which statement is true?
A. The user can move the document from FolderA to FolderB without acquiring additional permissions.
B. The user must also have Delete permission on the document object and FolderA to move the document.
C. The user must have Delete permission on the document object and both folders to move the document.
D. The user must have Delete permission on both folders to move the document.
300-175 pdf Correct Answer: A

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300-115 dumps
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QUESTION 102
Which statement about using EtherChannel on Cisco IOS switches is true?
A. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
B. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
C. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 16 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
D. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 10 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An EtherChannel consists of individual Fast Ethernet or Gigabit Ethernet links bundled into a single logical link. The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps (Fast EtherChannel) or 8 Gbps (Gigabit EtherChannel) between your switch and another switch or host. Each EtherChannel can consist of up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces. All interfaces in each EtherChannel must be the same speed, and all must be configured as either Layer 2 or Layer 3 interfaces.
QUESTION 103
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
These three ports show that they are in Port Channel 1, and the (SU) means they are in use and operating at layer 2. The protocol used for this port channel shows as LACP, which is a standards based protocol, as opposed to PAgP, which is Cisco proprietary.
QUESTION 104
What happens on a Cisco switch that runs Cisco IOS when an RSTP-configured switch receives 802.1d BPDU?
A. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP switch receives an 802.1d BPDU, it responds with an 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.
B. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it responds with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.
C. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU.
D. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For backward compatibility with 802.1D switches, RSTP selectively sends 802.1D configuration BPDUs and TCN BPDUs on a per-port basis. When a port is initialized, the migrate-delay timer is started (specifies the minimum time during which RSTP BPDUs are sent), and RSTP BPDUs are sent. While this timer is active, the switch processes all BPDUs received on that port and ignores the protocol type. If the switch receives an 802.1D BPDU after the port migration-delay timer has expired, it assumes that it is connected to an 802.1D switch and starts using only 802.1D BPDUs. However, if the RSTP switch is using
802.1D BPDUs on a port and receives an RSTP BPDU after the timer has expired, it restarts the timer and starts using RSTP BPDUs on that port. Reference:
QUESTION 105
When two MST instances (MST 1 and MST 2) are created on a switch, what is the total number of spanning-tree instances running on the switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unlike other spanning tree protocols, in which all the spanning tree instances are independent, MST establishes and maintains IST, CIST, and CST spanning trees: An IST is the spanning tree that runs in an MST region. Within each MST region, MST maintains multiple spanning tree instances. Instance 0 is a special instance for a region, known as the IST. All other MST instances are numbered from 1 to 4094. In the case for this question, there will be the 2 defined MST instances, and the special 0 instance, for a total of 3  instances.
QUESTION 106
Which of the following regarding MPLS Encapsulation is FALSE?
A. The customer’s Layer 2 header is preserved at the iLER for Layer 2 services.
B. The customer’s Layer 2 Header is preserved at the iLER for Layer 3 services.
C. The service provider’s Layer 2 header is added at the iLER for Layer 2 services.
D. The service provider’s Layer 2 header is added at the iLER for Layer 3 services.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
What action does a router perform when it looks up the label of an incoming packet in its LFIB and sees
that the LFIB maps to an egress label of 3?
A. It requests a new label from the peer that provided this label.
B. It pops the label.
C. It pushes an additional label onto the label stack.
D. It signals a new label to the peer that sent the packet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
Click on the exhibit.
Under which condition might the peer entry with an LDP ID of 10.10.10.2:0 show the state “Nonexistent”?
A. When the interface to the peer router is down.
B. When router R1 has no route to the peer address 10.10.10.2.
C. When LDP is not configured on the peer router’s interface.

D. When the targeted session is not configured.
300-115 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 109
Click on the exhibit.
Given the output below, which of the following is FALSE?
A. A packet arriving with label 131066 will be forwarded out interface 1 /1 /4 with label 131070.
B. The router is an egress router for FEC 10.10.10.221/32.
C. There are multiple LSPs to reach FEC 10.10.10.244/32.
D. The router’s system address is 10.10.10.242/32.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
Which of the following about Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR command “oam Isp-trace prefix” is FALSE?
A. The router performs a unidirectional LSP test.
B. The router collects hop information along the tunnel’s path.
C. The router uses MPLS Echo Request packets that are IP-routed,
D. The MPLS TTL values are incremented at each request.
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 111
Click on the exhibit.
Router R2 advertises an OSPF summary route 10.10.10.0/24 into Area 1. Router R3 receives labels for individual FECs 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32. These two FECs are installed in router R3’s LIB but not in the LFIB. What needs to be done on router R3 to install these labels into its LFIB?
A. Disable route summarization on router R3.
B. Enable LDP aggregate prefix match.
C. Create an import policy to accept 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32.
D. Disable LDP exact match on 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
Click on the exhibit. This policy is applied as an LDP export policy. In addition to the FECs learned from its neighbors, which FECs now appear in the router’s LIB?
A. Local FECs not included in the 192.168.1.0/24 address space and the system IP FEC.
B. Only the system IP FEC appears in the LIB.
C. Any local FECs, except those with a 24-bit mask.
D. Local FECs in the 192.168.1.0/24 address space.
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
Which of the following are the default settings for the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR when using LDP?
A. Per-platform label space, conservative retention mode
B. Per-interface label space, conservative retention mode
C. Per-platform label space, liberal retention mode
D. Per-interface label space, liberal retention mode
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
Which of the following about T-LDP is FALSE?
A. Link-based and T-LDP sessions may be configured on the same LSR.
B. T-LDP supports sessions between non-directly connected devices.
C. T-LDP can be configured between directly connected devices.
D. T-LDP Hello messages are sent to a multicast address.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Which of the following LDP message categories is UDP-based?
A. Notification
B. Session
C. Discovery
D. Advertisement
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 116
Two directly connected routers set different interface Hello timeout values. Router R1 uses 15 seconds, while router R2 uses 30 seconds. Which of the following best describes the LDP adjacency?
A. The adjacency forms with the lower timeout value.
B. The adjacency forms with the higher timeout value.
C. The adjacency is in init state.
D. The adjacency times out after 30 seconds.
300-115 vce 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR enabled with LDP has multiple equal cost paths to a given FEC. After ECMP is enabled, which of the following is FALSE?
A. The router has new entries added for the given FEC in its LIB.
B. The router has new entries added for the given FEC in its FIB.
C. The router generates a single label for the given FEC and advertises it to all its peers,
D. The router has multiple LSP tunnels for the given FEC.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
Which of the following about the RSVP-TE Hello protocol is FALSE?
A. The Hello protocol can speed up convergence without reducing refresh time.
B. Hello messages are sent after at least one RSVP session is active on the interface.
C. An interface with multiple RSVP sessions sends Hello messages for each session.
D. An RSVP neighbor is declared down if Hello messages are not received within the Hello timeout.
300-115 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
Which of the following describes how a router sets the destination IP address for an RSVP RESV message?
A. It sets the address to the system address of the head-end router.
B. It sets the address to the next upstream hop from the ERO.
C. It sets the address to the next upstream hop from the PSB.
D. It sets the address to the next upstream hop from the RRO.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
Which of the following about RSVP-TE on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is TRUE?
A. Label bindings are distributed to other routers when explicitly requested.
B. Label bindings are distributed to all neighbors including non-downstream routers.
C. Label bindings are distributed if labels have not been received from downstream routers.
D. All labels received from downstream neighbors are stored in the LIB.
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 121
Click on the exhibit.
RSVP state for LSP 1 has timed out on router R3. Which of the following actions will router R3 initiate to clear the RSVP session?
A. Send a RESV Tear message toward router R6.
B. Send a RESV Tear message toward router R1.
C. Send a RESV Error message toward router R6.
D. Send a RESV Error message toward router R1.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 122
Which of the following about the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR command “own Isp-trace” is FALSE?
A. The MPLS TTL values are incremented at each request.
B. The router uses MPLS Echo Request packets that are IP-routed.
C. The router collects hop information along the tunnel’s path.
D. The router performs an unidirectional LSP test.
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
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Exam Code: 300-560
Exam Name: NPDEV Developing with Network Programmability
Q&As: 102

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1. Which two Data ONTAP products or features benefit a customer running an Oracle decision support system on Linux? (Choose two.)
A. CIFS
B. FlexVol
C. SnapValidator
D. Virtual Local Disks
300-560 exam Answer: BC
2. Which two products/functions from NetApp are NOT supported on the V-Series platform? (Choose two.)
A. SnapLock Compliance
B. RAID-DP
C. FlexVol
D. SnapLock Enterprise
E. SnapMirror
Answer: AB
3. Regulations call for semi-conductor manufacturers to maintain design data in reference form over extended periods. Which NetApp solution offers this capability?
A. SnapVault
B. Open System SnapVault
C. SnapLock
D. SnapMirror
300-560 dump Answer: C
4. What is Tech OnTap from NetApp?
A. a weekly technical podcast
B. a monthly e-newsletter
C. a monthly Webcast by a NetApp specialist

D. an online knowledgebase for Data ONTAP
Answer: B
5. What are two features that NetApp DataFort has that Microsoft’s free EFS does not? (Choose two.)
A. FIPS hardware key security
B. CryptoShred
C. CryptoLock
D. SAN user-aware authentication
300-560 pdf Answer: AB
6. Which three statements about SnapDrive for Windows are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is the foundation for SnapManager for SQL.
B. It provides NTFS-consistent Snapshot copies.
C. It simplifies LUN management in a Windows environment.
D. It simplifies CIFS management in a Windows environment.
E. It requires Active Directory to function.
Answer: ABC
7. Which feature of the NearStore VTL solution enables it to useup to 50% fewer physical tapes than other VTLs?
A. shadow tapes
B. tape smart sizing
C. self tuning
D. tape compressor
300-560 vce Answer: B
8. Your customer wants to run a database on a NetApp storage array where they already have home directories. In the event of low system resources, which NetApp product can ensure that the database receives the majority of the storage array resources?
A. FlexClone

B. FlexShare
C. SnapManager for Oracle
D. FlexCache
Answer: B
9. What is a vFiler?
A. a virtual instance of a NetApp Storage System created via MultiStore

B.a controller running Data ONTAP that can front-end third-party storage
C. a simulated version of Data ONTAP that runs on Linux
D.a NetApp Disk-to-Disk virtual tape solution
300-560 exam Answer: A
10. Within the NetApp Manageability Software Family, which products does the Application Suite contain?
A. Protection Manager, Virtual File Manager, SAN Manager
B. SnapDrive for Windows, SnapDrive for UNIX, ApplianceWatch
C. Operations Manager, File Storage Resource Manager, CommandCentral Storage
D. SnapManager for Oracle, SnapManager for SQL Server, SnapManager for Exchange
Answer: D
11. In a SnapManager for Exchange opportunity, which two additional software components can help you differentiate and grow NetApp value as compared to competing solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Single Mailbox Recovery software
B. SnapVault
C. VFM
D. SnapValidator
300-560 dump Answer: AB
12. SnapManager for Oracle, SnapManager for SQL Server, and SnapManager for Exchange are all part of which NetApp Manageability Software suite?
A. Data Suite

B. Server Suite
C. Storage Suite
D. Application Suite
Answer: D
13. Which two NetApp products can be used in a customer’s existing third-party Exchange storage environment? (Choose two.)
A. Single Mailbox Recovery software
B. ReplicatorX
C. SnapManager for Exchange
D. Operations Manager

300-560 pdf Answer: AB
14. Which three requirements do NetApp core data storage systems provide to ensure patient health care data is compliant with health care regulations? (Choose three.)
A. archival
B. security
C. disaster recovery
D. high availability
E. high performance
Answer: ABC
15. Which capabilities does NetApp ONTAP GX provide to achieve high performance for render and animation server farms?
A. N-Way Clustering and Global File System
B. Stretch Fabric MetroCluster and WAFL
C. Clustering with SnapMirror Sync
D. MetroCluster and RAID-DP
300-560 vce Answer: A

16. Which two statements are true about SnapRestore? (Choose two.)
A. After you use SnapRestore to revert to a selected Snapshot copy, you cannot undo the reversion.
B. After you use SnapRestore to recover a file, the restored file remains read-only.
C. SnapRestore allows for the recovery of a single file.
D. SnapRestore allows for the recovery of a qtree and its contents.
Answer: AC
17. Which two protocol groups are supported natively on NetApp storage? (Choose two.)
A. NAS protocols (CIFS, NFS)
B. SAN protocols (ISCSI, FCP)
C. streaming protocols (RTP, RTSP)
D. messaging protocols (imap4, pop3)
Answer: AB
18. Which two benefits would a customer enjoy after implementing SnapManager for Oracle into their
Oracle Database environment? (Choose two.)
A. reduced recovery time objective
B. transparent database migration
C. reduced database copy time
D. reduced mirrored database footprint
300-560 exam Answer: AC
19. Which two NetApp replication products support heterogeneous file service environments? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual File Manager
B. Open Systems SnapVault
C. SyncMirror
D. SnapMirror
Answer: AB

20. What is a function of NetApp FlexClone technology?
A. It allows copies of database data sets with no additional space usage.
B. It shrinks volumes and LUNs.
C. It compresses databases.
D. It validates every block written by the database to the storage.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION NO: 54
Given the following Relationships Graph in a FileMaker Pro 12 database:  A layout is based on the table occurrence Class and a portal shows records from the table occurrence Employee If the field Trainer:: Name is placed into the portal, what is the result?
A. The text <Field Missing> is displayed in each row of the portal.
B. Each row shows the name of each enrolled employee’s first related trainer.
C. The name of the first related trainer for the class is repeated in each row of the portal.
D. The name of the trainer for the first class enrolled by the first Employee record of the portal is repeated in each row of the portal.
210-260 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Which method can be used to sort related records within a portal in a FileMaker Pro 12 database?
A. in Browse Mode, right-click on a field in the portal and choose Sort Ascending from the contextual pop-up menu
B. in Layout Mode, select the portal then choose Sort records in the Behavior section of the Data tab of the Inspector
C. in the Relationships Graph, change the Sort records setting in the Specify Table dialog for the portal’s table occurrence
D. run a script using the Sort Records by Field script step, choosing one of the portal’s related fields and checking the Sort only related records option
E. change the Sort records setting in the Edit Relationship dialog for the last relationship leading to the portal’s table occurrence from the context of the layout’s table occurrence on the Relationships Graph
Answer: E
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56
Which two techniques could be used to generate the data points for a pie chart? (Choose two.)
A. Concatenate multiple number fields from the current record into a return-delimited list
B. Set up multiple data series, each of which points to a number field in the current record
C. Specify a summary field from a related set of records as the data series and put the chart in a Subsummary layout part
D. Specify a summary field from the current found set as the data series and put the chart in a Leading Grand Summary layout part
210-260 dumps Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
A database has a Customer table and an Order table. On a layout based on the Customer table there is a portal showing related orders for the current calendar year. The portal does not include a filter formula. There is a calculation field in the Customer table, zSumOrders, that adds up the total amount of all the customer’s orders for the year. zSumOrders is included on the layout. Assuming no changes to the data, what may cause the displayed value of zSumOrders on a customer record to change?
A. In Layout Mode, move the zSumOrders field into the Orders portal row
B. Add one or more sort criteria to the relationship on which the Orders portal is based
C. Add a portal filter using Filter Portal Records so only unpaid orders will be displayed
D. Change the criteria of the portal’s relationship to further limit the set of records displayed in the
Orders portal
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
Which statement is true of container fields in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. A user can insert a file using Store only a reference to the file if the container is set to Store container data externally
B. OLE objects can be inserted into container fields if the field is set for Interactive content using  the Inspector in Layout mode.
C. Files stored (not referenced) in containers fields defined to Store container data externally can be opened by a double-click in Browse mode.
D. A container optimized for Interactive content using the Inspector in Layout mode will render HTML files as web pages in Browse mode.
E. A container must be optimized for Interactive content using the Inspector in Layout mode to allow drag and drop insertion of files into the container.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
Which statement is true about the Filter Portal Records feature in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. The portal filter formula must refer to at least one field in the immediately related table.
B. The feature requires one or more additional relationships to be added to the Relationships Graph.
C. The portal filter formula may not refer to any globally stored fields, summary fields, or unstored calculation fields.
D. There can be one unique filter formula applied for each portal state (Normal State, In Focus, Hover, or Pressed)
E. Aggregate functions (e.g., Sum, Count) based on the portal’s relationship will not be affected by the portal’s filter formula.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
Which two statements are true about OnTimer triggers? (Choose two.)
A. They only run when the application is idle.
B. OnTimer triggers are configured in the File Options dialog.
C. Different OnTimer scripts can be installed in different windows.
D. Days and times can be specified when the OnTimer script activates.
210-260 vce Answer: A,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 61
A file has the following script specified for OnLastWindowClose:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Exit Script [Result; False]
Commit Records/Requests [No dialog]
Assume the Layout Setup dialog for the current layout is set to Save record changes automatically. When a user attempts to close the file, what will be the result?
A. The file will close and the current record will be committed.
B. The file will close and the current record will not be committed.
C. The file will remain open and the current record will be committed.
D. The file will remain open and the current record will not be committed
Answer: C
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following Aruba controllers is able to provide IEEE 802.3af? (Choose two)
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 6000 with M3
E. 7000
200-155 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
What is the maximum number of remote APs supported by a 3600 controller?
A. 512
B. 1024
C. 128
D. 256
E. 2048
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which dual radio access point models support concurrent operations in the 2.4Ghz band as well as the
5Ghz band? (Choose three)
A. AP-92
B. AP-93
C. AP-105
D. AP-224
E. AP-135
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following APs do NOT support dual radio operations? (Choose two)
A. AP 93
B. AP 105
C. RAP 3WN
D. AP 224
E. AP 135
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
Centralized licensing is not in use on an Aruba based network which has a Master and three local
controllers. No APs terminate on the Master controller. Roles and Firewall policies need to be created and
applied, hence PEF-NG license is required
On which controller should the license be installed?
A. Only the master controller since role and firewall policies are created here.
B. Only the local controllers since firewall policies are applied here
C. The master and all three local controllers

D. This isn’t the correct license for this purpose, use PEF-VPN license
E. This is not needed because PEF-NG is part of base OS
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
What information do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. The controller’s MAC address and the feature description.
B. Controller’s MAC address and the certificate number
C. Controller’s Serial Number and the feature description
D. Controller’s Serial Number and the certificate number
E. Controller’s MAC address and Serial Number
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
What are the PEF-NG license limits based on?
A. Number of APs
B. One license per controller
C. Number of users
D. Number of local controllers
E. Master Controller total user count
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which of the following licenses are consumed by Mesh APs advertising an SSIDs?
A. AP license
B. Mesh license
C. PEF-V license
D. No license is required
E. RAP License
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
The permanent licenses on the controller will be deleted with the use of which command?
A. Delete license
B. Write erase
C. Licenses cannot be deleted once activated
D. Write erase all
E. Reboot delete all
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
A network administrator wants to terminate VPN sessions on a local controller in the DMZ.
Which statement is true about the PEF-VPN license?
A. It is only applied to the master controller
B. It is only applied to the DMZ controller.
C. It is based on the number of APs

D. One license is needed on the master and the DMZ local
E. It is distributed by the license server as needed
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is the best practice regarding licensing for a backup master to support Master Redundancy in a
network without centralized licensing?
A. Backup master only requires the AP license
B. Supported limits and installed licenses should be the same on primary master and backup Master
C. Licenses are pushed from the primary to the backup Master along with the configuration
D. The Backup Master does not require licenses to support master redundancy
E. On the backup only one license of each type is needed.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following licenses can be included in the licensing pool for centralized licensing? (Choose
three)
A. Factory default licenses
B. PEFNG license
C. Evaluation licenses
D. RFProtect license
E. PEFV license
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 13
By default Centralized licensing messages between master controllers are sent _______________.
A. In the clear unencrypted
B. Using CPSec
C. Using IPSec site to site VPN tunnels
D. Encrypted using GRE
E. PAPI
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which of the following will occur if a master license server fails with no standby server present? (Choose
two)
A. Local controllers licenses will continue to be valid for 30 days
B. Local controllers will immediately remove all installed licenses
C. No licenses will be sent to any new controllers that come online
D. All licenses go back into the pool for redistribution
E. A Local Controller elects itself master license server
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
Which may be applied directly to an VLAN interface? (Choose three)
A. Access List (ACL)
B. Firewall Policy

C. Roles
D. AAA profiles
E. RF Plan Map
200-155 vce Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 16
When creating a firewall rule on an Aruba controller, which parameter is optional?
A. Destination
B. Service
C. Source
D. Log
E. Action
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
An administrator creates a WLAN with an unmodified default AAA profile. What is the default role the user
is placed in?
A. default-logon
B. logon
C. guest-logon
D. default-ap
E. AP-Role
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
What is the first role a user is given when a user associates to an open WLAN?
A. The guest post authentication role
B. The initial role in the captive portal profile
C. The role in the server group profile
D. The initial role in the AAA profile
E. The initial role in the 802.1x profile
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Which of the following could be used to set a user’s post-authentication role or VLAN association?
(Choose two)
A. AAA default role for authentication method
B. Server Derivation Rule
C. Vendor Specific Attributes
D. AP Derivation Rule
E. The Global AAA profile
Correct Answer: BC

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