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Pass4itsure offers the latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-210 practice test free of charge (46Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Using the Cisco WSA GUI, where should an operator navigate to determine the running software image on the Cisco WSA?
A. Systems Administration > System Upgrade
B. Systems Administration > Feature Keys
C. Systems Administration > General
D. Admin > System Info
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which description of an advantage of utilizing IPS virtual sensors is true?
A. Different configurations can be applied to different sets of traffic.
B. The persistent store is unlimited for the IPS virtual sensor.
C. The virtual sensor does not require 802.1q headers for inbound traffic.
D. Asymmetric traffic can be split between multiple virtual sensors
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ips/7- 0/configuration/guide/cli/cliguide7/cli_virtual_sensors.pdf

QUESTION 3
Refer to the following:
R01(config)#ip wccp web-cache redirect-list 80 password-local
A. Traffic denied in prefix-list 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA
B. The default “cisco” password is configured on the Cisco WSA
C. Traffic permitted in access-list 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA
D. Traffic using TCP port 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Email Security virtual appliance over the Cisco ESA appliance?
A. reduced space and power requirements
B. outbound message protection
C. automated administration
D. global threat intelligence updates from Talos
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
You have configured a VLAN pair that is connected to a switch that is unable to pass traffic. If the IPS is configured correctly, which additional configuration must you perform to enable the switch to pass traffic?
A. Configure access ports on the switch.
B. Configure the trunk port on the switch.
C. Enable IP routing on the switch.
D. Enable ARP inspection on the switch.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 6
What is the function of the Web Proxy Auto-Discovery protocol?
A. It enables a web client to discover the URL of a configuration file.
B. It enables a web client to download a script or configuration file that is named by a URL.
C. It enables a web client’s traffic flows to be redirected in real time.
D. It enables web clients to dynamically resolve hostname records.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco Cloud Web Security Connector feature allows access by all of an organization’s users while applying Active Directory group policies?
A. a company authentication key
B. a group authentication key
C. a PAC file
D. proxy forwarding
E. a user authentication key
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Which type of server is required to communicate with a third-party DLP solution?
A. an HTTPS server
B. an HTTP server
C. an ICAP-capable proxy server
D. a PKI certificate server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which interface on the Cisco Email Security Appliance has HTTP and SSH enabled by default?
A. data 1
B. data 2
C. management 1
D. all interfaces
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which website can be used to validate group information about connections that flow through Cisco CWS?
A. whoami.scansafe.net
B. policytrace.scansafe.net
C. whoami.scansafe.com
D. policytrace.scansafe.com
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 11
In addition to the CLI, what is another option to manage a Cisco IPS?
A. SDEE
B. Cisco SDM
C. Cisco IDM
D. Cisco ISE
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which commands are required to configure SSH on router? (Choose two.)
A. Configure domain name using ip domain-name command
B. Generate a key using crypto key generate rsa
C. Configure a DHCP host for the router using dhcpname#configure terminal
D. Generate enterprise CA self-sign certificate
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Here are the steps:
Configure a hostname for the router using these commands.
yourname#configure terminal
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.
yourname (config)#hostname LabRouter
LabRouter(config)#
Configure a domain name with the ip domain-name command followed by whatever you would like your domain name to be. I used CiscoLab.com.
LabRouter(config)#ip domain-name CiscoLab.com
We generate a certificate that will be used to encrypt the SSH packets using the crypto key generate rsa command.
Take note of the message that is displayed right after we enter this command: “The name for the keys will be: LabRouter.CiscoLab.com” — it combines the hostname of the router along with the domain name we configured to get the name of
the encryption key generated; this is why it was important for us to, first of all, configure a hostname then a domain name before we generated the keys.
Reference: https://www.pluralsight.com/blog/tutorials/configure-secure-shell-ssh-on-cisco- router

QUESTION 13
Which feature of the Cisco Hybrid Email Security services enables you to create multiple email senders on a single Cisco ESA?
A. Virtual Gateway
B. Sender Groups
C. Mail Flow Policy Connector
D. Virtual Routing and Forwarding
E. Email Marketing Connector
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which IPS feature allows you to aggregate multiple IPS links over a single port channel?
A. UDLD
B. ECLB
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A network security design engineer is considering using a Cisco Intrusion Detection System in the DMZ of the network. Which option is the drawback to using IDS in the DMZ as opposed to using
Intrusion Prevention System?
A. Sensors, when placed in-line, can impact network functionality during sensor failure.
B. IDS has impact on the network (that is, latency and jitter).
C. Response actions cannot stop triggered packet or guarantee to stop a connection techniques.
D. Response actions cannot stop malicious packets or cannot guarantee to stop any DOS attack.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
What are the two policy types that can use a web reputation profile to perform reputation- based processing? (Choose two.)
A. profile policies
B. encryption policies
C. decryption policies
D. access policies
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which statement about the default configuration of an IPS sensor’s management security settings is true?
A. There is no login banner
B. The web server port is TCP 80
C. Telnet and SSH are enable
D. User accounts lock after three attempts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which command verifies that CWS redirection is working on a Cisco IOS router?
A. show content-scan session active
B. show content-scan summary
C. show interfaces stats
D. show sessions
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
When a Cisco IPS is deployed in fail-closed mode, what are two conditions that can result in traffic being dropped? (Choose two.)
A. The signature engine is undergoing the build process.
B. The SDF failed to load.
C. The built-in signatures are unavailable.
D. An ACL is configured.Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which piece of information is required to perform a policy trace for the Cisco WSA?
A. the URL to trace
B. the source IP address of the trace
C. authentication credentials to make the request
D. the destination IP address of the trace
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which three administrator actions are used to configure IP logging in Cisco IME? (Choose three.)
A. Select a virtual sensor.
B. Enable IP logging.
C. Specify the host IP address.
D. Set the logging duration.
E. Set the number of packets to capture.
F. Set the number of bytes to capture.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation

QUESTION 22
A user is deploying a Cisco IPS appliance in a data center to mitigate most attacks, including atomic attacks. Which two modes does Cisco recommend using to configure for this? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN pair
B. interface pair
C. transparent mode
D. EtherChannel load balancing
E. promiscuous mode
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which method does Cisco recommend for collecting streams of data on a sensor that has been virtualized?
A. VACL capture
B. SPAN
C. the Wireshark utility
D. packet capture
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Which option represents the cisco event aggregation product?
A. CVSS system
B. IntelliShield
C. ASA CX Event Viewer
D. ASDM 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which Cisco ASA configuration command drops traffic if the Cisco ASA CX module fails?
A. no fail-open
B. fail-close
C. fail-close auth-proxy
D. auth-proxy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which Cisco ESA predefined sender group uses parameter-matching to reject senders?
A. BLACKLIST
B. WHITELIST
C. SUSPECTLIST
D. UNKNOWNLIST
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which sensor deployment mode does Cisco recommend when interface capacity is limited and you need to increase sensor functionality?
A. inline interface pair mode
B. inline VLAN pair mode
C. inline VLAN group mode
D. VLAN group mode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Which three categories of the seven major risk management categories are covered in the Cyber Risk Reports? (Choose three.)
A. vulnerability
B. risk rating
C. legal
D. confidence level
E. geopolitical
F. global reputation
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which settings are required when deploying Cisco IPS in high-availability mode using
EtherChannel load balancy?
A. ECLB IPS appliances must be in on-a-stick mode, ECLB IPS solution maintains state if a sensor goes down, and TCP flow is forced through the same IPS appliance.
B. ECLB IPS appliances must not be in on-a-stick mode, ECLB IPS solution maintains state if a sensor goes down, and TCP flow is forced through the same IPS appliance flow
C. ECLB IPS appliances must be in on-a-stick mode, ECLB IPS solution does not maintain state if a sensor goes down, and TCP flow is forced through a different IPS appliance.D. ECLB IPS appliances must not be in on-a-stick mode, ECLB IPS solution does not maintain state if a sensor goes down, and TCP flow is forced through a different IPS appliance.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/vpndevc/ps4077/products_configuration_example 09186 a0080671a8d.shtml

QUESTION 30
r01(config)#ip wccp web-cache redirect-list 80 password local
Refer to the above. What can be determined from this router configuration command for Cisco
WSA?
A. Traffic using TCP port 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA.
B. The default “cisco” password is configured on the Cisco WSA.
C. Traffic denied in prefix-list 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA.
D. Traffic permitted in access-list 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Who or what calculates the signature fidelity rating in a Cisco IPS?
A. the signature author
B. Cisco Professional Services
C. the administrator
D. the security policy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Which centralized reporting function of the Cisco Content Security Management Appliance aggregates data from multiple Cisco ESA devices?
A. message tracking
B. web tracking
C. system tracking
D. logging
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Which statement about the Cisco ASA CX role in inspecting SSL traffic is true?
A. To decrypt traffic, the Cisco ASA CX must accept the websites’ certificates as Trusted Root Cas.
B. If the administrator elects to decrypt traffic, the Cisco ASA CX acts as a man-in–me- middle.
C. Either all traffic is decrypted, or no traffic is decrypted by the Cisco ASA CX.
D. The traffic is encrypted, so the Cisco ASA CX cannot determine the content of the traffic.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 34
You ran the ssh generate-key command on the Cisco IPS and now administrators are unable to connect. Which action can be taken to correct the problem?
A. Replace the old key with a new key on the client.
B. Run the ssh host-key command.
C. Add the administrator IP addresses to the trusted TLS host list on the IPS.
D. Run the ssh authorized-keys command.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Which option is a benefit of deploying Cisco Application Visibility and Control?
A. It ensures bandwidth availability and performance of mission-critical applications in a data- and media-rich environment.
B. It performs deep packet inspection of mission-critical applications in a data- and media- rich environment.
C. It encrypts mission-critical applications in a data- and media-rich environment.
D. It securely tunnels mission-critical applications in a data- and media-rich environment.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 36
What is a value that Cisco ESA can use for tracing mail flow?
A. the FQDN of the source IP address
B. the FQDN of the destination IP address
C. the destination IP address
D. the source IP address
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 37
When you deploy a sensor to send connection termination requests, which additional traffic-monitoring function can you configure the sensor to perform?
A. Monitor traffic as it flows to the sensor.
B. Monitor traffic as it flows through the sensor.
C. Monitor traffic from the Internet only.
D. Monitor traffic from both the Internet and the intranet.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which signature engine is responsible for ICMP inspection on Cisco IPS?
A. AIC Engine
B. Fixed Engine
C. Service Engine
D. Atomic IP Engine
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-210 question
What are two facts about the interface that you can determine from the given output? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco Flexible NetFlow monitor is attached to the interface.
B. A quality of service policy is attached to the interface.
C. Cisco Application Visibility and Control limits throughput on the interface.
D. Feature activation array is active on the interface.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Which three statements about threat ratings are true? (Choose three.)
A. A threat rating is equivalent to a risk rating that has been lowered by an alert rating.
B. The largest threat rating from all actioned events is added to the risk rating.
C. The smallest threat rating from all actioned events is subtracted from the risk rating.
D. The alert rating for deny-attacker-inline is 45.
E. Unmitigated events do not cause a threat rating modification.
F. The threat rating for deny-attacker-inline is 50.
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

QUESTION 41
What are three features of the Cisco Security Intellishield Alert Manager Service? (Choose three.)
A. validation of alerts by security analysts
B. custom notifications
C. complete threat and vulnerability remediation
D. vendor-specific threat analysis
E. workflow-management tools
F. real-time threat and vulnerability mitigation
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation

QUESTION 42
What can you use to access the Cisco IPS secure command and control channel to make configuration changes?
A. SDEE
B. the management interface
C. an HTTP server
D. Telnet
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 43
Drag and drop the steps on the left into the correct order on the right to configure a Cisco ASA
NGFW with multiple security contexts
pass4itsure 300-210 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
Drag and drop the Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service components on the left onto the corresponding description on the right
pass4itsure 300-210 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
Drag and drop the terms on the left onto the correct definition for the promiscuous IPS risk rating calculation on the right
pass4itsure 300-210 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
Drag and drop the steps on the left into the correct order of initial Cisco IOS IPS configuration on the right.
pass4itsure 300-210 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference

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