This month’s security patches have a lot of problems and it’s hard to decide where to start. Let’s start with a problem we’ve already learned and then go to an area that has not yet been fully defined. It is worth mentioning that Microsoft is now acknowledging many of the past vulnerabilities.

This month’s relatively easy part of the reason, I believe, in Windows 7 and earlier versions of Windows 10 (including Fall creators Update, version 1703, has become more or less fully baked, and keep my selection version). In addition to some mundane security patches, the December Win10 1607 update fixes the “Cdpusersvc_xxxx has stopped working” bug introduced in a security patch two months ago, and the rest is largely routine.

Windows

Of course, the exception is the Windows Fall Security Update version 1709. If you succumb to pressure (or forced upgrades) and install the latest version of WIN10, you will be Remonsnic by your trust for a series of unfortunate patch events. If you want to install this month’s update on WIN10 1709, be sure to read the Computerworld issues and solutions. Or, it’s best to forget about it by next month.

The only major problem I see in office 12 is to block the word {ddeauto} field, a mysterious topic I mentioned yesterday. If you have a Word document that needs to be updated every time you open it, you will only notice the difficulty. So, if you install this month’s office patch and then open a Word document and no longer respond correctly (by extracting the data from an Excel spreadsheet and putting the data in a document), you need to manually work around the registry and turn the DDE right again. As a long-time advocate of powerful documents, I am sorry to see the “Automatic” feature. At the same time, I can understand why their days are countless. I hate to admit it, but Microsoft has made the right choice to cut off “automatic” updates.

Windows

If you are using facial recognition (also known as Windows Hello) on Windows 10 to log on to your computer, be aware that earlier versions of the Microsoft operating system may be easily fooled by simple photos that users print. Even those who run the latest fall creator updates may become victims here. However, it is critical that, if facial recognition is set up in previous releases, it may even affect the Windows 10 machine, which is about to be fully updated, running the version 1703 or 1709 version of Fall creators update. In other words, to avoid it, you need to set Windows Hello again, even on the latest version of a computer that uses the Microsoft desktop operating system. All of this sounds like a very worrying loophole in the Microsoft facial recognition login program, assuming the security companies make money here. However, it seems that if you log on to a Windows PC using facial recognition, it may be a prudent idea to set it again. Alternatively, if you are running an earlier version of Windows 10, you will need to update to the new fall creators update and then reset Windows Hello.

There is a warning around a password manager that has recently been bundled with some versions of Microsoft’s flagship operating system. Keeper Password Manager was preinstalled on his computer because of the new installation of Windows 10. This vulnerability was resolved in version 11.4, removing the vulnerable “add to existing” feature. Patch-supported operating systems include Windows 10,windows vista,windows 8,windows 8.1 and Windows 7.

Windows

Many users have rated the upgrade of Windows 10 to 1703 to 1709 as a forced upgrade from Win 7 and 8.1 to 10-“Get Windows X” campaign. Although the surface is different, the end result is the same. Many people who use Windows Fall Update (version 1703) are forced to upgrade to Fall creators update (version 1709) this month, even on systems that do not need to be upgraded. Known issues in this update:

Windows Pro devices on the current business Branch (CBB) will be upgraded unexpectedly. Microsoft is researching the solution and will provide updates in the upcoming release.

Windows

Those who were forced to upgrade from 1703 to 1709 are now in a state of trap; If one allows the WIN10 to update itself automatically and 1709 installer decides to take over, then one will stay at 1709. The user has 10 days to roll back to the old version, and those days are gone.

The Microsoft Security Technology Center emphasizes how vulnerabilities work and a remote code execution vulnerability exists in Microsoft Office software when the software fails to properly handle objects in memory. An attacker who successfully exploited this vulnerability could run arbitrary code in the context of the current user “if the current user is logged on with administrative user rights, the attacker can control the affected system.” Attackers can install programs; View, change, or delete data; Or create a new account with full user rights.

Related Windows News: https://www.computerworld.com/article/3216425/microsoft-windows/microsoft-patch-alert-few-problems-in-december-unless-youre-running-win10-version-1709.html

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QUESTION 1
Your Active Directory currently contains five virtualized domain controllers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. The system state of each domain controller is backed up daily. The backups are shipped to a remote location weekly. Your company recently implemented a disaster recovery site that contains several servers. The servers run Windows Server 20l2 R2 and have the HyperV server role installed. The disaster recovery site has a highspeed WAN link to the main office. You need to create an Active Directory recovery plan that meets the following requirements: Restores the Active Directory if a catastrophe prevents all access to the main office. Minimizes data loss. What should you include in the plan?
A. HyperV replicas
B. Live migration
C. Virtual machine checkpoints
D. System state restores

70-980 exam Correct Answer:
A
QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several domain controllers. The domain controllers run either Windows Server 20l2 or Windows Server 200S R2. The domain functional level is Windows Server 200S R2. The forest functional level is Windows Server 200S. The corporate compliance policy states that all items deleted from Active Directory must be recoverable from a Recycle Bin. You need to recommend changes to the current environment to meet the compliance policy. Which changes should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 200S R2.
B. Run the EnableADOptionalFeature cmdlet.
C. Run the NewADObject cmdlet.
D. Run the SetServer cmdlet
E. Raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 20l2.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Your network contains 500 client computers that run Windows 7 and a custom application named Appl. Appl uses data stored in a shared folder. You have a failover cluster named Clusterl that contains two servers named Serverl and Server2. Serverl and Server2 run Windows Server 20l2 and are connected to an iSCSI Storage Area Network (SAN). You plan to move the shared folder to Clusterl. You need to recommend which cluster resource must be created to ensure that the shared folder can be accessed from Clusterl. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. The Generic Application cluster role
B. The DFS Namespace Server cluster role
C. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for general use type
D. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for scaleout application data type

70-980 dumps Correct Answer:
C
QUESTION 4
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you enable MAC address spoofing for the existing virtual network adapter.Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new external virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new external virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

70-980 pdf Correct Answer:
B
QUESTION 6
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new private virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new private virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each  server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines.
Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter. You connect the new virtual network adapters to the external virtual network switch and configure the new virtual network adapters to use a VLAN identifier of 2. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

70-980 vce Correct Answer:
B
QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Service by using a service template. Service contains two virtual machines.
The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table

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You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability
information of Service1.
Solution: From Configuration Manager, you create a Collection and a Desired Configuration Management baseline.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.
70-980 dumps

You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), you modify the properties of the service template. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

70-980 exam Correct Answer:
B

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QUESTION 181:
An IP address is made up of:
A. The host, domain name, and port number.
B. The host, domain name, and domain type.
C. The domain name, subnetwork, and host.
D. The domain type, subnetwork, and port number.
70-694 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 182:
SNMP is a program that:
A. Allows a computer to emulate a dumb terminal attached to a remote host.
B. Provides the ability to exchange files between remote computers.
C. Monitors networks for activity and trouble.
D. Defines the exchange of text and graphical information over the network.
Answer: C
QUESTION 183:
SMTP is a protocol that:
A. Defines the exchange of text and graphical information over a network.
B. Manages the distribution of e-mail over networks that use TCP/IP.
C. Monitors networks for activity and trouble.
D. Exchanges files over the World Wide Web.
70-694 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 184:
What is the correct definition of a transmission protocol?
A. Hardware settings that control the devices that define a communication standard
B. Rules that define the internal architecture of devices such as modems and CSU/DSUs
C. Software settings that control hardware devices during data transmission
D. Rules that define a specified communication function
Answer: C

QUESTION 185:
The encapsulation process begins with what layer in the transmitting protocol stack?
A. The bottom layer
B. The middle layer
C. The largest layer
D. The top layer
70-694 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 186:
Which of the following are examples of frameworks for designing communications protocols?
A. OSI and DOS
B. DOS and TCP/IP
C. TCP/IP and Windows
D. OSI and TCP/IP
Answer: D
QUESTION 187:
The OSI model is an example of a seven-layer framework. What does each layer specify?
A. A protocol standard
B. A specific proprietary protocol
C. A data link format
D. The manufacturer’s protocol
70-694 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 188:
Which of the following describes DCE?
A. Equipment that is at the beginning or end point of data communications
B. Software that moves data from the beginning point onto the network
C. Equipment that moves information onto and off the network
D. Software that is at the beginning or end point of data communications

Answer: C
QUESTION 189:
Which of the following includes only DCE?
A. Computer terminals and mainframes
B. Computer terminals and modems
C. Mainframes and modems
D. Modems and CSUs/DSUs
70-694 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 190:
What term describes the physical connection between the DTE and the DCE?
A. Channel
B. Voltage channel
C. Interface
D. Processing node
Answer: C
QUESTION 191:
Communication over a telecommunications circuit is defined as:
A. DTE-to-DCE communication.
B. DCE-to-DCE communication.
C. DCE-to-PBX transmission.
D. PBX-to-PBX transmission.
70-694 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 192:
What do asynchronous modems use to coordinate transmission?
A. Bytes
B. Start and stop bits
C. Octets
D. Transmit and terminate bits
Answer: B

QUESTION 193:
During synchronous transmission, what is used to coordinate transmission?
A. Start and stop bits
B. Transmit and terminate bits
C. Overhead
D. Clocks
70-694 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 194:
What type of transmission mode uses two channels to provide simultaneous
transmission and reception?
A. Half-duplex
B. Bi-duplex
C. Full-duplex
D. Duplex
Answer: C
QUESTION 195:
XMODEM is an example of a protocol using what type of error checking?
A. CRC
B. Parity
C. Checksum
D. Cyclic redundancy
70-694 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 196:
Transmission speeds are most often expressed in what unit of measure?
A. Bytes
B. Baud
C. Bits per second (bps)
D. Bands
Answer: C

QUESTION 197:
Standards developed by the IEEE under the 802.X heading relate to:
A. Modems.
B. PSTN servers.
C. LANs.
D. Data terminal equipment.
70-694 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 198:
Packet-switched networks and circuit-switched networks may share the same:
A. Physical path.
B. Physical media.
C. Packets.
D. PAD.
Answer: A
QUESTION 199:
The X.25 protocol applies the concepts of the:
A. Bottom three layers of the TCP/IP framework.
B. Interface between the DTE and DCE at the interface to a packet-switching network.
C. Interface between a telephone and a packet-switched terminal to the central office.
D. Software application standards and protocols for packet-switched networks.
70-694 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 200:
Which of the following are examples of optical transmission devices that use SONET?
A. Repeaters and add/drop multiplexers
B. Condensers and CSUs/DSUs
C. CSUs/DSUs and digitizers
D. Virtual tributaries and condensers
Answer: A

QUESTION 201:
Within a data communications system, what component converts the information
between the DTE and the transmission channel?
A. DCE
B. DTE interface
C. DCE interface
D. Transmission channel
70-694 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 202:
Within a data communications network, modems are classified as what type of
device?
A. DTE
B. Analog
C. Digital
D. Transmission channel
Answer: B
QUESTION 203:
On the receiving side of a data communications system, what is the purpose of a
modem?
A. To convert digital data to analog signals
B. To convert the analog signal to recover the digital data
C. To modulate the signals to eliminate data loss
D. To amplify the signals to ensure accurate reception of data
70-694 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 204:
Your LAN contains modems from different manufacturers, yet they all adhere to
the same standard. This is an example of:
A. Equalization.
B. Compatibility.
C. Modem protocols.
D. Configuration management.

Answer: B
QUESTION 205:
What is modulation?
A. A process used by modems to move information through the transmission channel
B. A process used by routers to send information to the correct location
C. A process used by bridges to filter packets according to their destinations
D. A process used by modems to convert signals from one format to another
70-694 exam Answer: A

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QUESTION 27
Which one of the following belongs to detailed site planning?
A. Max. UE Tx Power on RACH, CPICH Ec/No Offset.
B. Spreading code, PC overhead, Replacement Window.
C. Scrambling code, MHPA gain, ISHO neighbours.
D. Mobile Network Code, Max. Allowed DL Bit rate.
70-767 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Which group of parameters should be highlighted at the border of multi mode network?
A. ISHO triggering.
B. Inter-frequency handover triggering.
C. Soft handover triggering.
D. Softer handover triggering.
Answer: A
QUESTION 29
How many radio links on average, per user connected, would be considered a reasonable
value for a soft handover overhead in a WCDMA network?
A. 1.7 to 1.8.
B. 1.3 to 1.4.
C. 1.5 to 1.6.
D. 1.9 to 2.
70-767 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 30
At what level does radio interface synchronization have to be planned?
A. Site.
B. Carrier.
C. Cell.

D. RNC.
Answer: C
QUESTION 31
During pre-launch optimisation how can coverage problems be indicated in a cell?
A. By having very high throughput [kbit/s] in a cell.
B. By having TX power limitation and high throughput [kbit/s].
C. By achieving TX power limitations of NodeB or UE.
D. By having TX power limitation and low throughput [kbit/s].
70-767 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Soft handover parameters are set per:
A. RNC.
B. cell.
C. MSC.
D. site.
Answer: B
QUESTION 33
The output of coverage planning is needed for which one of the following processes?
A. Propagation model tuning.
B. Transmission planning.
C. Loading field measurements.
D. Code planning.
70-767 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Which kind of channels exists in the WCDMA technology and how are they mapped?
A. Logical mapped on physical channels.
B. Logical mapped on transport mapped on physical channels.
C. Transport mapped on logical mapped on physical channels.
D. Transport mapped on physical channels.
Answer: B
QUESTION 35
What is SHO gain?

A. It is an additional macro diversity gain against slow fading.
B. It is an additional micro diversity gain.
C. It reduces the radio link loss due to multiple handovers.
D. It is a software feature in RAN.
70-767 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 36
When the UE receives the RRCConnectionRelease message in state CELLFACH, the
message is received on the:
A. CCCH it releases all its radio resources and enters idle mode.
B. CCCH it sends the SMS on the Paging Channel and then enters the idle mode.
C. DCCH it releases all its radio resources and enters idle mode.
D. DTCH it continues to use the radio resource as long as the users need it.
Answer: A

QUESTION 37
In the hand-over control procedure, during an event 1B a primary scrambling code (SC):
A. is replaced from another SC.
B. leaves the active sets if its level is level under a threshold for a determined period of
time.
C. enters the active set if its level is comparable to the already active ones, its level is
over a threshold for a determined period of
time and the active set size limit has not been reached.
D. is monitored in case of need.

70-767 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Soft handover areas and pilot pollution can be optimised by:
A. reducing NodeB Tx power.
B.down tilting NodeB antenna.
C. increasing UE TX power.
D. using compressed mode.
Answer: B
QUESTION 39
In passive distributed antenna systems, what are the MAIN components?
A. Splitters, connectors and electro-optic converters.
B. Diplexers, couplers, splitters, radiating and RF cables.
C. Splitters, optical fibres and jumpers.
D. Optical fibres, radiating cables and attenuators.
70-767 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 40
How does little i (or other to own cell interference) affect the uplink load, if at all?
A. By increasing the load by
B. There is no affect, it only affects the downlink.
C. By increasing the load by a factor of (1 + i*powerrise).
D.By decreasing the load by a factor of (1 + i*powerrise).
Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Which one of the following analyses can be performed with an UE connected
measurement system but NOT with a scanner measurement system?
A. Drop call analysis.
B. SIR analysis.
C. P-CPICH coverage measurement.
D. SHO area measurement.
70-767 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 42
What inter-RAT criteria measurements should be highlighted in the border area of multi

mode network?
A. T.
B. R.
C. H.
D. S.
Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Inter cell interference CANNOT be reduced by:
A. limiting TX power of UE or NodeB.
B. down tilting NodeB antenna.
C. squeezing soft handover areas as a function of active set.
D. increasing the number of sectors per site.
70-767 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 44
Transmission time is NOT reduced in compressed mode by:
A. reducing the spread factor by 2.
B. using higher layer scheduling.
C. puncturing.
D. limiting NRT traffic.
Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Assuming that the BTS max. power is 43dBm/carrier, what is a typical value of the
parameter PtxPrimaryCPICH?
A. 23dBm.
B. 33dBm.
C. 20dBm.
D. 40dBm.
70-767 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 46
In a site with 3 cells and 2 carriers, what is the total number of downlink hardware
channels needed if the amount needed for traffic is 158.7 per site and the amount used for
signalling is 8?
A. 183

B. 167
C. 255
D. 207
Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 30
Which commnand would correctly define a router’s host-name?
A. # set ip host-name
B. > set ip host-name
C. # set system host-name
D. > set system host-name
70-773 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 31
Which command would correctly set a router’s date and time?
A. # set date 199708290900.00
B. # set system time 199708290900.00
C. > set date 199708290900.00
D. > set system time 199708290900.00
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
Which two statements are true about the rescue configuration file? (Choose two.)
A. It gets updated automatically when you commit.
B. You need to create it by issuing request system configuration rescue save.
C. It is rollback file number 50 and you can recover it by issuing rollback 50. D.
You can load it by entering rollback rescue.
70-773 dumps Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 33
Which command will save the current active configuration as the rescue configuration?
A. # save | rescue
B. # save rescue configuration
C. > request system configuration rescue save
D. > request rescue-configuration save current
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which two statements are true regarding interface properties? (Choose two.)
A. MTU and speed must be configured under each unit.
B. Physical parameters such as MTU, duplex mode, and speed are configured under the
interface name.
C. IP and IPv6 addresses are configured under a unit-number.
D. DLCI numbers, VPI/VCI values, and VLAN tags are physical parameters.
70-773 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 35
Which CLI command displays packet and byte counts for an interface in real-time?
A. monitor traffic
B. show interfaces
C. monitor interface
D. show traffic counts
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
Which CLI command displays error statistics for an interface in real-time?
A. monitor traffic
B. show interfaces
C. monitor interface
D. show interfaces extensive
70-773 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
What is used to segment larger networks into smaller networks?
A. supernet masks
B. subnet masks
C. wildcard masks
D. route filtering
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 38
Click the Exhibit button. [email protected]> show route protocol static
inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, – = Last Active, * = Both
192.168.2.128/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.20.106.10 via fe-0/0/5.106
192.168.2.192/26 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 10.210.14.131 via ge-0/0/0.0
192.168.2.192/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.18.1.1 via ge-0/0/1.0
192.168.2.224/28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06
> to 10.210.14.130 via ge-0/0/0.0
Using the route table shown in the exhibit, what will be the next-hop IP address used for a
destination IP address of 192.168.2.239? (Assume the only routes to this destination are
static routes.)
A. 10.210.14.130
B. 172.18.1.1
C. 10.210.14.131
D. 172.20.106.10
70-773 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 39
.Click the Exhibit button.
Given the routing entries shown in the exhibit, which next-hop IP address will be used for the
destination IP
address 192.168.2.158? (Assume only static routes are available for the destination.)
[email protected]> show route protocol static
inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, – = Last Active, * = Both
192.168.2.128/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.20.106.10 via fe-0/0/5.106
192.168.2.136/28 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 10.210.14.131 via ge-0/0/0.0
192.168.2.192/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.18.1.1 via ge-0/0/1.0
192.168.2.128/28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06
> to 10.210.14.130 via ge-0/0/0.0
A. 10.210.14.130
B. 172.18.1.1
C. 10.210.14.131
D. 172.20.106.10
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
.Which protocol family is required prior to assigning an IP address to an interface?
A. family ip
B. family ip6
C. family inet
D. family inet4
70-773 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
Which command configures an address of 192.168.1.1 with a mask of 255.255.255.0 on
interface ge-0/0/0?
A. set ip interface ge-0/0/0 address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
B. set ip interface ge-0/0/0 address 192.168.1.1/24
C. set interface ge-0/0/0 ip4 address 192.168.1.1 mask 255.255.255.0
D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.1/24
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Which statement is correct about logical units on Juniper Router interfaces?
A. Logical units are used only when a Layer 2 identifier is present such as a VLAN.
B. A logical unit of 0 is required when using a frame-relay DLCI.
C. A logical unit is always required.
D. Logical units are not required unless ATM or 802.1Q VLAN tagging is configured.
70-773 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
After issuing the show interfaces terse command, you notice that the status of one
interface is “up down”. What does this indicate?”

A. Layer 1 on the interface is up but Layer 2 is down.
B. Layer 2 on the interface is up but Layer 3 has not been configured.
C. The interface is administratively up but the link status is down.
D. The interface is up but has been administratively turned off.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
Which option is correct to configure the maximum transmit packet size of a Fast Ethernet
interface?
A. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 ethernet-options mtu 1200
B. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 mtu 1200
C. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 mtu 1200
D. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 mtu 1200
70-773 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 45
Which two statements are correct regarding units in JUNOS? (Choose two.)
A. Units in JUNOS are always required for any interface configured with logical addresses
such as IP and IPv6.
B. Units in JUNOS are only required when you are configuring sub-interfaces for inter-VLAN
routing.
C. Unit numbers must match the DLCI or VCI numbers configured on the interface.
D. Unit 0 is the only value allowed on interfaces running HDLC, PPP, or for Ethernet
interfaces not doing VLAN-tagging.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 46
Which two are correct when configuring an IP address for a Fast Ethernet interface?
(Choose two.)
A. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 address 10.1.1.1/24
B. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 family inet address 10.1.1.1/24
C. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 address 10.1.1.1/24
D. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address 10.1.1.1/24
70-773 exam Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 47
The interface ge-0/2/3 is located in which flexible PIC concentrator slot?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-740
Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 162

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QUESTION 42
In the absence of his normal dealer contact, a counterparty calls the back office and asks the clerk for his
opinion about how long his money should be placed on deposit. What action should the back office clerk
take?
A. He should give his opinion.
B. He should give his opinion and tell the counterparty that he is not qualified to do so.
C. He should tell the counterparty that he is not qualified to give an opinion and refer the counterparty to
another dealer.
D. He should give his opinion and refer the counterparty to another dealer.
70-740 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
A middle or back office clerk receives an FX ticket in which the counterparty is not clearly identified. What
should he/she do?
A. Keep the ticket in “stand-by mode” until a matching confirmation is received
B. Immediately refer the ticket to the compliance officer
C. Refer the ticket to the FX dealer for further details
D. Refer the ticket to the nostro account manager for further instructions

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
Which risk factors fall under counterparty risk?
A. Currency risk, interest rate risk and swap risk
B. Settlement risk, delivery risk and replacement cost
C. Operational risk
D. Settlement risk and swap risk
70-740 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
What are the three successive stages of money laundering?
A. Integration, layering, placement
B. Integration, placement, layering
C. Placement, layering, integration
D. Layering, integration, placement
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
You spot a rate discrepancy between you and your counterparty on a AUD/USD deal. The deal was traded
direct. You refer the discrepancy to the dealer and he tells you to change the rate.
What should you do?
A. Amend the rate yourself
B. Ask the settlements clerk to amend the rate for you
C. Ask the dealer to manually amend the rate on the ticket and then pass it to the settlements clerk to
amend
D. Make no amendment
70-740 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
You have been given collateral. In which case would you be least concerned about insisting on a
“haircut”?
A. Non-cash emerging markets collateral
B. Cash collateral in JPY, your base currency is GBP
C. Cash collateral in USD, your base currency is USD
D. Non-cash high yield collateral
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
You have just opened a position in EUR/USD that you run overnight. What risk is present?
A. Settlement, counterparty and equity risk
B. Only counterparty risk
C. Only currency and interest rate risks
D. Settlement, counterparty and market risk
70-740 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
A EUR based bank has a USD-convertible bond. What market risks are present?
A. Interest rate and currency risks
B. Interest rate, stock price and currency risks
C. Stock price and currency risks
D. Stock price risk
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
For which of the following transactions are proper and completed bilateral master agreements considered
essential prior to any dealing?
A. Spot FX
B. Repo
C. Forward FX
D. FRAs
70-740 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Most non deliverable forwards (NDFs) are cash-settled in:
A. GBP
B. USD
C. CHF
D. EUR
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
What information is not explicitly confirmed between the two counterparties of a FX swap transaction using
a MT 300?
A. The rate
B. The amount
C. The swap points
D. Settlement information
70-740 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which of the following statements apply to an FX Swap?
A. It consists of two separate transactions, dealt with two different counterparties.
B. It replaces a pair of foreign exchange transactions.
C. It fully eliminates counterparty risk.
D. It reduces credit risk with the counterparty, as compared to money market deals.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which interest rates are used to calculate the exchange rate of an outright transaction value tomorrow
(over tom)?
A. The overnight interest rates of both currencies

B. The spot next interest rates of both currencies
C. The one week interest rates of both currencies
D. The torn next interest rates of both currencies
70-740 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Your FX swap dealer sold and bought 2 months USD/CHF 10,000,000.00; rates were set to 0.9300
against 0.9285. What payment is your bank expecting in two months from now?
A. CHF 9,300,000.00
B. CHF 10,770,059.24
C. CHF 9,285,000.00
D. USD 10,000,000.00
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
A month ago, a customer placed NZD 100,000.00 at 2.00% on a time deposit for 90 days. Today, 30 days
later, he requests an anticipated close of his deposit. 2 and 3 month interbank rates are 2.10% bid and
2.20% offered. What do you do?
A. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest calculated on 30 days
B. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest on 30 days less your
refinancing costs of 0.20% calculated on 30 days
C. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest on 30 days less your
refinancing costs of 0.10% calculated on 60 days
D. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest on 90 days minus the
actualization of this amount at 2.20% calculated over 60 days
70-740 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
If the 90-day rate is 3.10% and the 180-day is 3.50%, what is the 120-day rate using straight-line
interpolation?
A. 3.20%
B. 3.21%
C. 3.23%
D. 3.30%
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which of the following are considered money market, cash or derivative instruments?
A. Currency futures
B. Forward FXs
C. Currency options
D. Forward rate agreements (FRA)
70-740 exam Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-774
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 102

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Administer and Provision HDInsight Clusters

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  • Deploy and secure multi-user HDInsight clusters
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  • Configure HDInsight clusters
  • Manage and debug HDInsight jobs

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QUESTION 19.A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks.
If the project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
70-774 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 20.Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product
request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the
objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a
straightforward development effort.
As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?
A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the
project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
Answer: B
QUESTION 21.The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects.
A procurement professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a
decentralized contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
70-774 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Medial home states that:
A. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver
comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
B. A proprietorship of primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver comprehensive
care over the long-term in their own variety of settings.
C. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families that do not deliver
comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
D. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver
comprehensive care just foe a short period of time in a variety of settings.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which of the following are the four aspects that all the businesses are required to produce financial
statements at least annually?
A. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
B. Journals, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
C. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of cash flow
D. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of controlled liabilities, statement of expense
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Balance sheet is majorly composed of:
A. heading, body and notes
B. heading, preliminary side bullets and notes
C. footers, body and notes
D. heading, body and footers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
At the top of the balance sheet there is a three-line heading that includes name of the organization, name
ff statement and
A. One date
B. Two dates
C. Three dates
D. none of the above
70-774 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
A major difference between the balance sheet of an investor-owned and a non-profit health care
organization is in the section.
A. owners’ asset
B. owners’ liability
C. owners’ equity
D. owners’ expense
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Two dates are often shown so that the reader can compare two successive periods, this is called:
A. comparative net assets
B. comparative balance sheet
C. comparative income statement
D. comparative cash flows
70-774 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
The resources that the organization owns, typically recorded at their original costs are called assets.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
The financial obligations of the organization are known as:
A. comparative net assets
B. liabilities
C. expenses
D. none of the above
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Net assets are:
A. The difference between an organization’s assets and liabilities
B. The difference between an owner’s assets and liabilities
C. The difference between a shareholder’s assets and expenses
D. The difference between a stakeholder’s assets and expenses
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
In investor-owned organizations, the accounting equation is:
A. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and owner’s equity
B. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and shareholder’s equity
C. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and proprietor’s equity
D. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and net assets
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
If assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and net assets in an accounting equation then this equation is
feasible for:
A. Investor-owned organizations
B. Profit-based organizations
C. Non-profit based organizations
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is NOT included in current assets?
A. Cash and cash equivalents
B. short-term investments
C. patient accounts receivables
D. long-term investments
70-774 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
A measure of how quickly an asset can be converted into cash is called:
A. Cash conversion
B. Asset conversion
C. Liquidity
D. Equity
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Cash (or cash equivalents) is the most liquid asset on the balance sheet.
A. True
B. False
70-774 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
By subtracting contractual allowances and charity care discounts from gross patient accounts receivables,
what remains is:
A. Patients accounts payable
B. Patients accounts receivable
C. Patients accounts bill
D. Patients cash income
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Health care organizations also present an estimate of how much of their patient accounts receivables they
likely will not be able to collect, this estimate is called:
A. Allowance for collectables
B. Expense for collectables
C. Allowance for uncollectables
D. Expense for uncollectables
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Supplies refer to small-dollar items that will be used up or fully consumed within more than two years.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Jul 26, 2017
Q&As: 424

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains two Hyper-V hosts named Host1
and Host2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Host1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You plan to move VM1 to Host2.
You need to generate a report that lists any configuration issues on Host2 that will prevent VM1 from being
moved successfully.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Move-VM
B. Test-VHD
C. Debug-VM
D. Compare-VM
70-412  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1. You have a certificate template named
UserAutoEnroll that is based on the User certificate template. Domain users are configured to autoenroll
for UserAutoEnroll. A user named User1 has an email address defined in Active Directory. A user named
User2 does not have an email address defined in Active Directory. You discover that User1 was issued a
certificate based on UserAutoEnroll template automatically. A request by user2 for a certificate based on
the UserAutoEnroll template fails. You need to ensure that all users can autoenroll for certificated based on
the UserAutoEnroll template. Which setting should you configure from the properties on the UserAutoEnroll
certificate template?
A. Issuance Requirements
B. Request Handling
C. Cryptography
D. Subject Name
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Your organization is deploying a second Active Directory forest because a substantial number of users
need to access a resource that requires significant changes to the Active Directory schema, which are not
compatible with your current forest’s schema.
You want users in your forest to be able to access any resource in any domain in the new forest.
Which of the following should you do to accomplish this goal?
A. Configure a forest trust.
B. Configure an external trust.
C. Create a shortcut trust.
D. Configure name suffix routing.
70-412  dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-412

You need to add an additional UPN Suffix.
What should you use?
A. Set-ADSite
B. Set-ADReplicationSite
C. Set-ADDomain
D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink
E. Set-ADGroup
F. Set-ADForest
G. Netdom
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 5
You are employed as a network administrator at contoso.com.
Contoso.com has an active directory domain named contoso.com.
All servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
Contoso.com has a server named server1,which is configured as a file server.
You have been instructed to enabled a feature that discovers and eradicates duplication within data
without compromising its reliability or accuracy.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider having the Data Deduplication feature enabled.
B. You should consider having the Storage Spaces feature enabled.
C. You should consider having the Storage Management feature enabled.
D. You should consider having the folder redirection feature enabled.
70-412  exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
You want to enable key archiving on a CA.
You need to issue a certificate from a specific template to the user who will recover private keys.
Which certificate template will you use as the basis for this certificate?

A. Kerberos authentication
B. Code signing
C. OCSP response signing
D. Key recovery agent
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
You are employed as a senior network administrator at ABC.com.
ABC.com has an Active Directory domain named ABC.com.
All servers on the ABC.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
ABC.com has two servers,named SERVER1 and SERVER2 which are configured in a two- node failover
cluster.
Server1 includes a folder,named ABCAppData,which is configured as a Distributed File System (DFS)
name space folder target.
After configuring another two nodes in the failover cluster, you are instructed to make sure that access to
ABC AppData is highly available.
You also have to make sure that application data is replicated to ABCAppData via DFS replication.
Which following actions should you take ?
A. You should consider configuring a scale-out File Server
B. You should consider configuring the replication settings for the cluster
C. You should consider configuring a file server for general use
D. You should consider configuring the Quorum settings
70-412  vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-412

The Branch site contains a perimeter network.
For security reasons, client computers in the perimeter network can communicate with client computers in
the Branch site only.
You plan to deploy a new RODC to the perimeter network in the Branch site.
You need to ensure that the new RODC will be able to replicate from DC10.
What should you do first on DC10?
A. Run dcpromo and specify the /createdcaccount parameter.
B. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard.

C. Run the Add-ADDSReadOnlyDomainControllerAccount cmdlet.
D. Enable the Bridge all site links setting.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012. One of the domain controllers is named DC1.
The DNS zone for the contoso.com zone is Active Directory-integrated and has the default settings.
A server named Server1 is a DNS server that runs a UNIX-based operating system.
You plan to use Server1 as a secondary DNS server for the contoso.com zone.
You need to ensure that Server1 can host a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerForwarder cmdlet and specify the contoso.com zone
as a target.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerSetting cmdlet and specify DC1 as a target.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone cmdlet and specify the contoso.com
zone as a target.
D. From DNS Manager, modify the Advanced settings of DC1.
70-412  pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1. A Microsoft Azure Backup of Server1 is created automatically every
day.
You rename Server1 to Server2. you discover that backups are no longer created in Azure.
You need to backup the server to Azure.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure Management Portal, upload the Server2 certificae as a management certificate.
B. On Server2, run the Start-OBRegistration cmdlet.
C. On Server2, run the Add-WBBackupTarget cmdlet.
D. From the Azure Management Portal, modify the configuration on the backup vault.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and uses Windows Server Backup.
You need to identify whether the backups performed on Server1 support bare metal recovery.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-OBMachineSetting
B. GetWBVSSBackupOption
C. Get-WBPolicy
D. Get-OBPolicy
70-412  vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which permission should you assign on a CA to a group of users that you want to be able to respond to
certificate requests but you do not want to provide them with the ability to change CA security settings?
A. Read
B. Issue And Manage Certificates
C. Manage CA
D. Request Certificates
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have a subscription to Windows Azure.
You need to register the Microsoft Azure Backup Agent on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. Install the Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM) agent.
B. Create a backup vault.
C. Create Site Recovery vault.
D. Configure a passphrase for the Azure Backup Agent.
70-412  dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Both servers have the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 is located in the main office site.
Server2 is located in the branch office site. Server1 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the
main office site.
Server2 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site. You need to ensure that
if either Server1 or Server2 are offline, the client computers can still obtain IPv4 addresses.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
The storage location of the DHCP databases must not be a single point of failure. Server1 must provide
IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site only if Server2 is offline.
Server2 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site only if Server1 is
offline.
Which configuration should you use?
A. load sharing mode failover partners
B. a failover cluster
C. hot standby mode failover partners
D. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-412

You need to replicate users who haven’t authenticated against any domain controllers for the last 7 days.
What should you use?
A. Set-ADSite
B. Set-ADReplicationSite
C. Set-ADDomain
D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink
E. Set-ADGroup
F. Set-ADForest
G. Netdom
70-412  exam Correct Answer: C

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