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  • Manage Azure subscriptions and resources (5-10%)
  • Implement and manage storage (5-10%)
  • Configure and manage virtual networks (15-20%)
  • Manage identities (15-20%)
  • Evaluate and perform server migration to Azure (15-20%)
  • Implement and manage application services (5-10%)
  • Implement advanced virtual networking (5-10%)
  • Secure identities (5-10%)

Latest effective Microsoft Azure AZ-102 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com that contains 100 user
accounts.
You purchase 10 Azure AD Premium P2 licenses for the tenant.
You need to ensure that 10 users can use all the Azure AD Premium features.
What should you do?
A. From the Groups blade of each user, invite the users to a group.
B. From the Licenses blade of Azure AD, assign a license.
C. From the Directory role blade of each user, modify the directory role.
D. From the Azure AD domain, add an enterprise application.
Correct Answer: B
To assign a license, under Azure Active Directory > Licenses > All Products, select one or more products, and then
select Assign on the command bar. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-
directory/fundamentals/license-users-groups

QUESTION 2
From the MFA Server blade, you open the Block/unblock users blade as shown in the exhibit.pass4itsure az-102 exam question q2

What caused AlexW to be blocked?
A. An administrator manually blocked the user.
B. The user reports a fraud alert when prompted for additional authentication.
C. The user account password expired.
D. The user entered an incorrect PIN four times within 10 minutes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You have an on-premises file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure file share.
You deploy an Azure File Sync Storage Sync Service, and you create a sync group.
You need to synchronize files from Server1 to Azure.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure az-102 exam question q3Correct Answer: pass4itsure az-102 exam question q3-1Explanation:
Step 1: Install the Azure File Sync agent on Server1
The Azure File Sync agent is a downloadable package that enables Windows Server to be synced with an Azure file
share
Step 2: Register Server1.
Register Windows Server with Storage Sync Service
Registering your Windows Server with a Storage Sync Service establishes a trust relationship between your server (or
cluster) and the Storage Sync Service.
Step 3: Add a server endpoint
Create a sync group and a cloud endpoint.
A sync group defines the sync topology for a set of files. Endpoints within a sync group are kept in sync with each other.
A sync group must contain one cloud endpoint, which represents an Azure file share and one or more server endpoints.
A server endpoint represents a path on registered server.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-sync-files-deployment-guide

QUESTION 4
You download an Azure Resource Manager template based on an existing virtual machine. The template will be used to
deploy 100 virtual machines.
You need to modify the template to reference an administrative password. You must prevent the password from being
stored in plain text.
What should you create to store the password?
A. Azure Active Directory (AD) Identity Protection and an Azure policy
B. a Recovery Services vault and a backup policy
C. an Azure Key Vault and an access policy
D. an Azure Storage account and an access policy
Correct Answer: C
You can use a template that allows you to deploy a simple Windows VM by retrieving the password that is stored in a
Key Vault. Therefore, the password is never put in plain text in the template parameter file. References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/resources/templates/101-vm-secure-password/

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure Linux virtual machine that is protected by Azure Backup.
One week ago, two files were deleted from the virtual machine.
You need to restore the deleted files to an on-premises computer as quickly as possible.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure az-102 exam question q5Correct Answer: pass4itsure az-102 exam question q5-1Explanation:
To restore files or folders from the recovery point, go to the virtual machine and choose the desired recovery point.
Step 0. In the virtual machine\\’s menu, click Backup to open the Backup dashboard.
Step 1. In the Backup dashboard menu, click File Recovery.
Step 2. From the Select recovery point drop-down menu, select the recovery point that holds the files you want. By
default, the latest recovery point is already selected.
Step 3: To download the software used to copy files from the recovery point, click Download Executable (for Windows
Azure VM) or Download Script (for Linux Azure VM, a python script is generated).
Step 4: Copy the files by using AzCopy
AzCopy is a command-line utility designed for copying data to/from Microsoft Azure Blob, File, and Table storage, using
simple commands designed for optimal performance. You can copy data between a file system and a storage account,
or
between storage accounts.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-restore-files-from-vm
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-use-azcopy

QUESTION 6
You have an Azure DNS zone named adatum.com. You need to delegate a subdomain named research.adatum.com to
a different DNS server in Azure. What should you do?
A. Create an PTR record named research in the adatum.com zone.
B. Create an NS record named research in the adatum.com zone.
C. Modify the SOA record of adatum.com.
D. Create an A record named “.research in the adatum.com zone.
Correct Answer: D
Configure A records for the domains and sub domains.
References: http://www.stefanjohansson.org/2012/12/how-to-configure-custom-dns-names-for-multiple-subdomain-
based-azure-web-sites/

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription named Subscnption1 that contains an Azure virtual machine named VM1.
VM1 is in a resource group named RG1.
VM1 runs services that will be used to deploy resources to RG1.
You need to ensure that a service running on VM1 can manage the resources in RG1 by using the identity of VM1.
What should you do fit
A. From the Azure portal modify the Access control (1AM) settings of VM1.
B. From the Azure portal, modify the Policies settings of RG1.
C. From the Azure portal, modify the value of the Managed Service Identity option for VM1.
D. From the Azure portal, modify the Access control (IAM) settings of RG1.
Correct Answer: C
A managed identity from Azure Active Directory allows your app to easily access other AAD-protected resources such
as Azure Key Vault. The identity is managed by the Azure platform and does not require you to provision or rotate any
secrets.
User assigned managed identities can be used on Virtual Machines and Virtual Machine Scale Sets.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/app-service-managed-service-identity

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual networks. The virtual networks are hosted in separate resource
groups.
Another administrator plans to create several network security groups (NSGs) in the subscription.
You need to ensure that when an NSG is created, it automatically blocks TCP port 8080 between the virtual networks.
Solution: You create a resource lock, and then you assign the lock to the subscription.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
How can I freeze or lock my production/critical Azure resources from accidental deletion? There is way to do this with
both ASM and ARM resources using Azure resource lock. References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azureedu/2016
/04/27/using-azure-resource-manager-policy-and-azure-lock-to-control-your-azure-resources/

QUESTION 9
Another administrator reports that she is unable to configure a web app named corplod7509086n3 to prevent all
connections from an IP address of 11.0.0.11. You need to modify corplod7509086n3 to successfully prevent the
connections from the IP address. The solution must minimize Azure-related costs.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Check the answer in explanantion.
Correct Answer: A
See explanation below.
Step 1:
Find and select application corplod7509086n3:
1.
In the Azure portal, on the left navigation panel, click Azure Active Directory.
2.
In the Azure Active Directory blade, click Enterprise applications.
Step 2:
To add an IP restriction rule to your app, use the menu to open Network>IP Restrictions and click on Configure IP
Restrictionspass4itsure az-102 exam question q9Step 3:
Click Add rule
You can click on [+] Add to add a new IP restriction rule. Once you add a rule, it will become effective immediately. pass4itsure az-102 exam question q9-1Step 4:
Add name, IP address of 11.0.0.11, select Deny, and click Add Rule pass4itsure az-102 exam question q9-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/app-service-ip-restrictions

QUESTION 10
You need to prevent remote users from publishing via FTP to a function app named FunctionApplod7509087fa. Remote
users must be able to publish via FTPS. What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Check the answer in explanantion.
Correct Answer: A
See explanation below.
Step 1:
Locate and select the function app FunctionApplod7509087fa.
Step 2:
Select Application Settings > FTP Access, change FTP access to FTPS Only, and click Save.pass4itsure az-102 exam question q10References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/appserviceteam/2018/05/08/web-apps-making-changes-to-ftp-
deployments/

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure subscription that is used by four departments in your company. The subscription contains 10
resource groups. Each department uses resources in several resource groups.
You need to send a report to the finance department. The report must detail the costs for each department. Which three
actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer
area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure az-102 exam question q11Correct Answer: pass4itsure az-102 exam question q11-1Explanation:
Box 1: Assign a tag to each resource.
You apply tags to your Azure resources giving metadata to logically organize them into a taxonomy. After you apply
tags, you can retrieve all the resources in your subscription with that tag name and value. Each resource or resource
group
can have a maximum of 15 tag name/value pairs. Tags applied to the resource group are not inherited by the resources
in that resource group.
Box 2: From the Cost analysis blade, filter the view by tag
After you get your services running, regularly check how much they\\’re costing you. You can see the current spend and
burn rate in Azure portal.
1.
Visit the Subscriptions blade in Azure portal and select a subscription.
2.
You should see the cost breakdown and burn rate in the popup blade.
3.
Click Cost analysis in the list to the left to see the cost breakdown by resource. Wait 24 hours after you add a service for
the data to populate.
4.
You can filter by different properties like tags, resource group, and timespan. Click Apply to confirm the filters and
Download if you want to export the view to a Comma-Separated Values (.csv) file.
Box 3: Download the usage report
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-using-tags
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-getting-started

QUESTION 12
You have 100 Azure subscriptions. All the subscriptions are associated to the same Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
tenant named contoso.com.
You are a global administrator.
You plan to create a report that lists all the resources across all the subscriptions.
You need to ensure that you can view all the resources in all the subscriptions.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure portal, modify the profile settings of your account.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Add-AzureADAdministrativeUnitMember cmdlet.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the New-AzureADUserAppRoleAssignment cmdlet.
D. From the Azure portal, modify the properties of the Azure AD tenant.
Correct Answer: C
The New-AzureADUserAppRoleAssignment cmdlet assigns a user to an application role in Azure Active Directory (AD).
Use it for the application report. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azuread/new-
azureaduserapproleassignment?view=azureadps-2.0

QUESTION 13
You configure Azure AD Connect for Azure Active Directory Seamless Single Sign-On (Azure AD Seamless SSO) for an
on-premises network. Users report that when they attempt to access myapps.microsoft.com, they are prompted
multiple
times to sign in and are forced to use an account name that ends with onmicrosoft.com.
You discover that there is a UPN mismatch between Azure AD and the on-premises Active Directory. You need to
ensure that the users can use single-sign on (SSO) to access Azure resources.
What should you do first?
A. From the on-premises network, deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
B. From Azure AD, add and verify a custom domain name.
C. From the on-premises network, request a new certificate that contains the Active Directory domain name.
D. From the server that runs Azure AD Connect, modify the filtering options.
Correct Answer: B
Azure AD Connect lists the UPN suffixes that are defined for the domains and tries to match them with a custom domain
in Azure AD. Then it helps you with the appropriate action that needs to be taken. The Azure AD sign-in page lists the
UPN suffixes that are defined for on-premises Active Directory and displays the corresponding status against each
suffix. The status values can be one of the following:
State: Verified
Azure AD Connect found a matching verified domain in Azure AD. All users for this domain can sign in by using their on-
premises credentials.
State: Not verified
Azure AD Connect found a matching custom domain in Azure AD, but it isn\\’t verified. The UPN suffix of the users of
this domain will be changed to the default .onmicrosoft.com suffix after synchronization if the domain isn\\’t verified.
Action Required: Verify the custom domain in Azure AD.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/plan-connect-user-signin

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Exam AZ-101: Microsoft Azure Integration and Security: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-az-101.aspx

  • Evaluate and perform server migration to Azure (15-20%)
  • Implement and manage application services (20-25%)
  • Implement advanced virtual networking (30-35%)
  • Secure identities (25-30%)

Latest effective Microsoft Azure AZ-101 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You need to create a function app named corp7509086nl that supports sticky sessions. The solution must minimize the
Azure-related costs of the App Service plan. What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Check the answer in explanation.
Correct Answer: A
See explanation below.
Step 1:
Select the New button found on the upper left-hand corner of the Azure portal, then select Compute > Function App.
Step 2:
Use the function app settings as listed below.
App name: corp7509086n1
Hosting plan: Azure App Service plan
(need this for the sticky sessions)
Pricing tier of the the App Service plan: Shared compute: Free
Step 3:
Select Create to provision and deploy the function app.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-create-function-app-portal

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure subscription.
You enable multi-factor authentication for all users.
Some users report that the email applications on their mobile device cannot co browser and from Microsoft Outlook
2016 on their computer.
You need to ensure that the users can use the email applications on their mobile device.
What should you instruct the users to do?
The users can access Exchange Online by using a web
A. Enable self-service password reset.
B. Create an app password.
C. Reset the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) password.
D. Reinstall the Microsoft Authenticator app.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-sspr-howitworks

QUESTION 3
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenet named adatum.com.
You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users.
What should you do?
A. Create a sign-in risk policy in Azure AD Identity Protection
B. Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
C. Create and configure the Identity Hub.
D. Configure a security policy in Azure Security Center.
Correct Answer: A
With Azure Active Directory Identity Protection, you can:
require users to register for multi-factor authentication
handle risky sign-ins and compromised users References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-
directory/identity-protection/flows

QUESTION 4
You have an Azure virtual network named VNet1 that contains a subnet named Subnet1. Subnet1 contains three Azure
virtual machines. Each virtual machine has a public IP address.
The virtual machines host several applications that are accessible over port 443 to user on the Internet.
Your on-premises network has a site-to-site VPN connection to VNet1.
You discover that the virtual machines can be accessed by using the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) from the Internet
and from the on-premises network.
You need to prevent RDP access to the virtual machines from the Internet, unless the RDP connection is established
from the on-premises network. The solution must ensure that all the applications can still be accesses by the Internet
users.
What should you do?
A. Modify the address space of the local network gateway.
B. Remove the public IP addresses from the virtual machines.
C. Modify the address space of Subnet1.
D. Create a deny rule in a network security group (NSG) that is linked to Subnet1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure Subscription named Subscription1.
Adatum contains a group named Developers. Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev.
You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Subscription1, you assign the DevTest Labs User role to the Developers group.
Does this meet the goal?
A.
B. Yes
C. No
Correct Answer: B
DevTest Labs User role only lets you connect, start, restart, and shutdown virtual machines in your Azure DevTest
Labs.
You would need the Logic App Contributor role.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-securing-a-logic-app

QUESTION 6
You need to create a web app named corp7509086n2 that can be scaled horizontally. The solution must use the lowest
possible pricing tier for the App Service plan. What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Check the answer in explanation.
Correct Answer: A
See explanation below.
Step 1:
In the Azure Portal, click Create a resource > Web + Mobile > Web App.
Step 2:
Use the Webb app settings as listed below.
Web App name: corp7509086n2
Hosting plan: Azure App Service plan
Pricing tier of the Pricing Tier: Standard
Change your hosting plan to Standard, you can\\’t setup auto-scaling below standard tier.
Step 3:
Select Create to provision and deploy the Web app.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/environment/app-service-web-how-to-create-a-web-app-in-an-ase
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/app-service/plans/

QUESTION 7
You have a public load balancer that balancer ports 80 and 443 across three virtual machines.
You need to direct all the Remote Desktop protocol (RDP) to VM3 only.
What should you configure?
A. an inbound NAT rule
B. a load public balancing rule
C. a new public load balancer for VM3
D. a new IP configuration
Correct Answer: A
To port forward traffic to a specific port on specific VMs use an inbound network address translation (NAT) rule.

QUESTION 8
You create an Azure subscription that is associated to a basic Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You need to
receive an email notification when any user activates an administrative role. What should you do?
A. Purchase Azure AD Premium 92 and configure Azure AD Privileged Identity Management,
B. Purchase Enterprise Mobility + Security E3 and configure conditional access policies.
C. Purchase Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 and create a custom alert rule in Azure Security Center.
D. Purchase Azure AD Premium PI and enable Azure AD Identity Protection.
Correct Answer: A
When key events occur in Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM), email notifications are sent. For example,
PIM sends emails for the following events:
When a privileged role activation is pending approval
When a privileged role activation request is completed
When a privileged role is activated
When a privileged role is assigned
When Azure AD PIM is enabled
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-email-notifications

QUESTION 9
You are configuring Azure Active Directory (AD) Privileged Identity Management.
You need to provide a user named Admm1 with read access to a resource group named RG1 for only one month.
The user role must be assigned immediately.
What should you do?
A. Assign an active role.
B. Assign an eligible role.
C. Assign a permanently active role.
D. Create a custom role and a conditional access policy.
Correct Answer: B
Azure AD Privileged Identity Management introduces the concept of an eligible admin. Eligible admins should be users
that need privileged access now and then, but not all-day, every day. The role is inactive until the user needs access,
then
they complete an activation process and become an active admin for a predetermined amount of time.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

QUESTION 10
From the MFA Server blade, you open the Block/unblock users blade as shown in the exhibit.pass4itsure az-101 exam question q10What caused AlexW to be blocked?
A. An administrator manually blocked the user.
B. The user reports a fraud alert when prompted for additional authentication.
C. The user account password expired.
D. The user entered an incorrect PIN four times within 10 minutes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You have a Microsoft SQL Server Always On availability group on Azure virtual machines. You need to configure an
Azure internal load balancer as a listener for the availability group. What should you do?
A. Enable Floating IP.
B. Set Session persistence to Client IP and protocol.
C. Set Session persistence to Client IP.
D. Create an HTTP health probe on port 1433.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You have an Azure subscription that contains a policy-based virtual network gateway named GW1 and a virtual network
named VNet1. You need to ensure that you can configure a point-to-site connection from VNet1 to an on-premises
computer. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Reset GW1.
B. Add a service endpoint to VNet1.
C. Add a connection to GW1.
D. Add a public IP address space to VNet1.
E. Delete GWL
F. Create a route-based virtual network gateway.
Correct Answer: EF
E: Policy-based VPN devices use the combinations of prefixes from both networks to define how traffic is
encrypted/decrypted through IPsec tunnels. It is typically built on firewall devices that perform packet filtering. IPsec
tunnel encryption and decryption are added to the packet filtering and processing engine.
F: A VPN gateway is used when creating a VPN connection to your on-premises network.
Route-based VPN devices use any-to-any (wildcard) traffic selectors, and let routing/forwarding tables direct traffic to
different IPsec tunnels. It is typically built on router platforms where each IPsec tunnel is modeled as a network interface
or VTI (virtual tunnel interface).

QUESTION 13
You plan to move services from your on-premises network to Azure.
You identify several virtual machines that you believe can be hosted in Azure. The virtual machines are shown in the
following table.pass4itsure az-101 exam question q13Which two virtual machines can you access by using Azure migrate? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Sea-CA0l
B. Hou-NW01
C. NYC-FS01
D. Sea-DC01
E. BOS-DB01
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains. You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates. You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed. You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages. Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the AD RMS cluster
B. the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C. the Active Directory domain controllers
D. the Client Access servers
E. the Mailbox servers
F. the Global Catalog servers
70-342 exam Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: The CRL is exactly what its name implies: a list of subscribers paired with digital certificate status. The list enumerates revoked certificates along with the reason(s) for revocation. The dates of certificate issue, and the entities that issued them, are also included. In addition, each list contains a proposed date for the next release. When a potential user attempts to access a server, the server allows or denies access based on the CRL entry for that particular user.
C: If federation cannot be implemented and the external organization cannot implement their own AD RMS infrastructure, hosting the user accounts can be the best option. However, the cost of managing such accounts (for both the IT department= and each user) must be considered. In this case, the users will need to be authenticated by a domain controller.

QUESTION 8
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM). You create a dial plan named UMPlan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy. You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a UM hunt group
B. Create a UM IP gateway.
C. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX I and EX2.
E. Assign EX I and EX2 to UMPlan1.
F. Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPlan1.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* When you’re setting up Unified Messaging (UM), you must configure the IP PBXs on your network to communicate with the Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service and the Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service in your Exchange organization. You must also configure the Client Access and Mailbox servers to communicate with the IP PBXs.
C: A Unified Messaging (UM) IP gateway represents a physical Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway, IP Private Branch eXchange (PBX), or session border controller (SBC) hardware device.
* Here are the basic steps for connecting VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, SIP-enabled PBXs, or SBCs to Client Access and Mailbox servers:
Step 1: Install the Client Access and Mailbox servers in your organization.
Step 2: Create and configure a Telephone Extension, SIP URI, or E.164 UM dial plan.
Step 3: Create and configure a UM IP gateway. You must create and configure a UM IP gateway for each VoIP gateway, IP PBX, SIP-enabled PBX, or SBC that will be accepting incoming calls and sending outgoing calls.
Step 4: Create a new UM hunt group if needed. If you create a UM IP gateway and don’t specify a UM dial plan, a UM hunt group will be automatically created.
Incorrect:
B, D:
The question states, “You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox”. The dial plan is therefore a Telephone Extension dial plan. Client Access and Mailbox servers cannot be associated with Telephone Extension or E.164 dial plans.

QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization. You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment. The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com. All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com. All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com. You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com. You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B. Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C. Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D. Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E. Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.
70-342 dumps Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. First, the wizard creates the HybridConfiguration object in your on-premises Active Directory.
This Active Directory object stores the hybrid configuration information for the hybrid deployment and is updated by the Hybrid Configuration wizard. Next, the wizard gathers existing on-premises Exchange and Active Directory topology configuration data, Office 365 tenant and Exchange Online configuration data, defines several organization parameters and then runs an extensive sequence of configuration tasks in both the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations.
E:
Note:
* By default, Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 doesn’t allow you to send mail outside of your domain. To send mail outside your domain, you need to create a Send connector.
* Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
/ Parameters include TlsCertificateName
The TlsCertificateName parameter specifies the X.509 certificate to use with TLS sessions and secure mail. Valid input for this parameter is [I]Issuer[S]Subject. The Issuer value is found in the certificate’s Issuer field, and the Subject value is found in the certificate’s Subject field. You can find these values by running the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed. Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App. You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes. You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Export the administrator audit log.
B. Run an administrator role group report.
C. Export the mailbox audit log.
D. Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E. Review the security event log.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: Use the Auditing tab to run reports or export entries from the mailbox audit log and the administrator audit log. / The mailbox audit log records whenever a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox. This can help you determine who has accessed a mailbox and what they have done.
/ The administrator audit log records any action, based on a Windows PowerShell cmdlet, performed by an administrator. This can help you troubleshoot configuration issues or identify the cause of security- or compliance-related problems.
D: Run a Non-Owner Mailbox Access Report
Use this report to find mailboxes that have been accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox.

QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com. All public folders are stored on a server named EX5.
You deploy a new server named EX6. EX6 has Exchange Server 2013 installed. You move all mailboxes to EX6. You need to move the public folders to EX6. The solution must ensure that users can access the public folders after EX5 is decommissioned. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On EX6, create a public folder mailbox.
B. On EX6, run the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet.
C. On EX5, modify the replication partners for all of the public folders.
D. On EX6, run the New-SiteMailboxProvisioningPolicy cmdlet.
E. On EX5, assign the FolderOwner permission to the Public Folder Management management role group for all of the public folders.
F. On EX6, run the MoveAllReplicas.ps1 script.
70-342 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Note: See step 4 and 5 below.
Step 1: Download the migration scripts
Step 2: Prepare for the migration
Step 3: Generate the .csv files
Step 4: Create the public folder mailboxes on the Exchange 2013 server Step 5: Start the migration request Example:
New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest -SourceDatabase (Get-PublicFolderDatabase -Server ) -CSVData (Get-Content   Encoding Byte) -BadItemLimit $BadItemLimitCount
Step 6: Lock down the public folders on the legacy Exchange server for final migration (downtime required) Step 7: Finalize the public folder migration (downtime required) Step 8: Test and unlock the public folder migration

QUESTION 12
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database available group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 contains three Mailbox servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3. DAG1 contains a mailbox database copy named DB1.
You implement a lagged copy of DB1 on Server3. The copy lag time is seven days. You need to ensure that copies of successfully processed email messages are stored on Server1 and Server2 for seven days. What should you modify?
A. The Shadow Redundancy settings
B. The Safety Net settings
C. The settings of DAG1
D. The settings of DB1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Microsoft Exchange 2013 Safety Net is a new feature in Exchange Server 2013 that prevents data loss by maintaining a queue of successfully delivered messages. The Exchange 2013 Safety Net is essentially a delivery queue that exists on each Exchange 2013 mailbox server. Each time a message is delivered to a database, a copy of that message is held within the Safety Net. The message copy remains in the Safety Net until its expiration date, which is determined by the administrator.
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This month’s security patches have a lot of problems and it’s hard to decide where to start. Let’s start with a problem we’ve already learned and then go to an area that has not yet been fully defined. It is worth mentioning that Microsoft is now acknowledging many of the past vulnerabilities.

This month’s relatively easy part of the reason, I believe, in Windows 7 and earlier versions of Windows 10 (including Fall creators Update, version 1703, has become more or less fully baked, and keep my selection version). In addition to some mundane security patches, the December Win10 1607 update fixes the “Cdpusersvc_xxxx has stopped working” bug introduced in a security patch two months ago, and the rest is largely routine.

Windows

Of course, the exception is the Windows Fall Security Update version 1709. If you succumb to pressure (or forced upgrades) and install the latest version of WIN10, you will be Remonsnic by your trust for a series of unfortunate patch events. If you want to install this month’s update on WIN10 1709, be sure to read the Computerworld issues and solutions. Or, it’s best to forget about it by next month.

The only major problem I see in office 12 is to block the word {ddeauto} field, a mysterious topic I mentioned yesterday. If you have a Word document that needs to be updated every time you open it, you will only notice the difficulty. So, if you install this month’s office patch and then open a Word document and no longer respond correctly (by extracting the data from an Excel spreadsheet and putting the data in a document), you need to manually work around the registry and turn the DDE right again. As a long-time advocate of powerful documents, I am sorry to see the “Automatic” feature. At the same time, I can understand why their days are countless. I hate to admit it, but Microsoft has made the right choice to cut off “automatic” updates.

Windows

If you are using facial recognition (also known as Windows Hello) on Windows 10 to log on to your computer, be aware that earlier versions of the Microsoft operating system may be easily fooled by simple photos that users print. Even those who run the latest fall creator updates may become victims here. However, it is critical that, if facial recognition is set up in previous releases, it may even affect the Windows 10 machine, which is about to be fully updated, running the version 1703 or 1709 version of Fall creators update. In other words, to avoid it, you need to set Windows Hello again, even on the latest version of a computer that uses the Microsoft desktop operating system. All of this sounds like a very worrying loophole in the Microsoft facial recognition login program, assuming the security companies make money here. However, it seems that if you log on to a Windows PC using facial recognition, it may be a prudent idea to set it again. Alternatively, if you are running an earlier version of Windows 10, you will need to update to the new fall creators update and then reset Windows Hello.

There is a warning around a password manager that has recently been bundled with some versions of Microsoft’s flagship operating system. Keeper Password Manager was preinstalled on his computer because of the new installation of Windows 10. This vulnerability was resolved in version 11.4, removing the vulnerable “add to existing” feature. Patch-supported operating systems include Windows 10,windows vista,windows 8,windows 8.1 and Windows 7.

Windows

Many users have rated the upgrade of Windows 10 to 1703 to 1709 as a forced upgrade from Win 7 and 8.1 to 10-“Get Windows X” campaign. Although the surface is different, the end result is the same. Many people who use Windows Fall Update (version 1703) are forced to upgrade to Fall creators update (version 1709) this month, even on systems that do not need to be upgraded. Known issues in this update:

Windows Pro devices on the current business Branch (CBB) will be upgraded unexpectedly. Microsoft is researching the solution and will provide updates in the upcoming release.

Windows

Those who were forced to upgrade from 1703 to 1709 are now in a state of trap; If one allows the WIN10 to update itself automatically and 1709 installer decides to take over, then one will stay at 1709. The user has 10 days to roll back to the old version, and those days are gone.

The Microsoft Security Technology Center emphasizes how vulnerabilities work and a remote code execution vulnerability exists in Microsoft Office software when the software fails to properly handle objects in memory. An attacker who successfully exploited this vulnerability could run arbitrary code in the context of the current user “if the current user is logged on with administrative user rights, the attacker can control the affected system.” Attackers can install programs; View, change, or delete data; Or create a new account with full user rights.

Related Windows News: https://www.computerworld.com/article/3216425/microsoft-windows/microsoft-patch-alert-few-problems-in-december-unless-youre-running-win10-version-1709.html

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QUESTION 1
Your Active Directory currently contains five virtualized domain controllers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. The system state of each domain controller is backed up daily. The backups are shipped to a remote location weekly. Your company recently implemented a disaster recovery site that contains several servers. The servers run Windows Server 20l2 R2 and have the HyperV server role installed. The disaster recovery site has a highspeed WAN link to the main office. You need to create an Active Directory recovery plan that meets the following requirements: Restores the Active Directory if a catastrophe prevents all access to the main office. Minimizes data loss. What should you include in the plan?
A. HyperV replicas
B. Live migration
C. Virtual machine checkpoints
D. System state restores
70-980 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several domain controllers. The domain controllers run either Windows Server 20l2 or Windows Server 200S R2. The domain functional level is Windows Server 200S R2. The forest functional level is Windows Server 200S. The corporate compliance policy states that all items deleted from Active Directory must be recoverable from a Recycle Bin. You need to recommend changes to the current environment to meet the compliance policy. Which changes should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 200S R2.
B. Run the EnableADOptionalFeature cmdlet.
C. Run the NewADObject cmdlet.
D. Run the SetServer cmdlet
E. Raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 20l2.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Your network contains 500 client computers that run Windows 7 and a custom application named Appl. Appl uses data stored in a shared folder. You have a failover cluster named Clusterl that contains two servers named Serverl and Server2. Serverl and Server2 run Windows Server 20l2 and are connected to an iSCSI Storage Area Network (SAN). You plan to move the shared folder to Clusterl. You need to recommend which cluster resource must be created to ensure that the shared folder can be accessed from Clusterl. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. The Generic Application cluster role
B. The DFS Namespace Server cluster role
C. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for general use type
D. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for scaleout application data type
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you enable MAC address spoofing for the existing virtual network adapter.Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new external virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new external virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new private virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new private virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each  server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines.
Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter. You connect the new virtual network adapters to the external virtual network switch and configure the new virtual network adapters to use a VLAN identifier of 2. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-980 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Service by using a service template. Service contains two virtual machines.
The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table
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You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability
information of Service1.
Solution: From Configuration Manager, you create a Collection and a Desired Configuration Management baseline.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), you modify the properties of the service template. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-980 exam Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-694
Exam Name: Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 181:
An IP address is made up of:
A. The host, domain name, and port number.
B. The host, domain name, and domain type.
C. The domain name, subnetwork, and host.
D. The domain type, subnetwork, and port number.
70-694 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 182:
SNMP is a program that:
A. Allows a computer to emulate a dumb terminal attached to a remote host.
B. Provides the ability to exchange files between remote computers.
C. Monitors networks for activity and trouble.
D. Defines the exchange of text and graphical information over the network.
Answer: C
QUESTION 183:
SMTP is a protocol that:
A. Defines the exchange of text and graphical information over a network.
B. Manages the distribution of e-mail over networks that use TCP/IP.
C. Monitors networks for activity and trouble.
D. Exchanges files over the World Wide Web.
70-694 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 184:
What is the correct definition of a transmission protocol?
A. Hardware settings that control the devices that define a communication standard
B. Rules that define the internal architecture of devices such as modems and CSU/DSUs
C. Software settings that control hardware devices during data transmission
D. Rules that define a specified communication function
Answer: C
QUESTION 185:
The encapsulation process begins with what layer in the transmitting protocol stack?
A. The bottom layer
B. The middle layer
C. The largest layer
D. The top layer
70-694 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 186:
Which of the following are examples of frameworks for designing communications protocols?
A. OSI and DOS
B. DOS and TCP/IP
C. TCP/IP and Windows
D. OSI and TCP/IP
Answer: D
QUESTION 187:
The OSI model is an example of a seven-layer framework. What does each layer specify?
A. A protocol standard
B. A specific proprietary protocol
C. A data link format
D. The manufacturer’s protocol
70-694 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 188:
Which of the following describes DCE?
A. Equipment that is at the beginning or end point of data communications
B. Software that moves data from the beginning point onto the network
C. Equipment that moves information onto and off the network
D. Software that is at the beginning or end point of data communications
Answer: C
QUESTION 189:
Which of the following includes only DCE?
A. Computer terminals and mainframes
B. Computer terminals and modems
C. Mainframes and modems
D. Modems and CSUs/DSUs
70-694 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 190:
What term describes the physical connection between the DTE and the DCE?
A. Channel
B. Voltage channel
C. Interface
D. Processing node
Answer: C
QUESTION 191:
Communication over a telecommunications circuit is defined as:
A. DTE-to-DCE communication.
B. DCE-to-DCE communication.
C. DCE-to-PBX transmission.
D. PBX-to-PBX transmission.
70-694 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 192:
What do asynchronous modems use to coordinate transmission?
A. Bytes
B. Start and stop bits
C. Octets
D. Transmit and terminate bits
Answer: B
QUESTION 193:
During synchronous transmission, what is used to coordinate transmission?
A. Start and stop bits
B. Transmit and terminate bits
C. Overhead
D. Clocks
70-694 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 194:
What type of transmission mode uses two channels to provide simultaneous
transmission and reception?
A. Half-duplex
B. Bi-duplex
C. Full-duplex
D. Duplex
Answer: C
QUESTION 195:
XMODEM is an example of a protocol using what type of error checking?
A. CRC
B. Parity
C. Checksum
D. Cyclic redundancy
70-694 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 196:
Transmission speeds are most often expressed in what unit of measure?
A. Bytes
B. Baud
C. Bits per second (bps)
D. Bands
Answer: C
QUESTION 197:
Standards developed by the IEEE under the 802.X heading relate to:
A. Modems.
B. PSTN servers.
C. LANs.
D. Data terminal equipment.
70-694 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 198:
Packet-switched networks and circuit-switched networks may share the same:
A. Physical path.
B. Physical media.
C. Packets.
D. PAD.
Answer: A
QUESTION 199:
The X.25 protocol applies the concepts of the:
A. Bottom three layers of the TCP/IP framework.
B. Interface between the DTE and DCE at the interface to a packet-switching network.
C. Interface between a telephone and a packet-switched terminal to the central office.
D. Software application standards and protocols for packet-switched networks.
70-694 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 200:
Which of the following are examples of optical transmission devices that use SONET?
A. Repeaters and add/drop multiplexers
B. Condensers and CSUs/DSUs
C. CSUs/DSUs and digitizers
D. Virtual tributaries and condensers
Answer: A
QUESTION 201:
Within a data communications system, what component converts the information
between the DTE and the transmission channel?
A. DCE
B. DTE interface
C. DCE interface
D. Transmission channel
70-694 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 202:
Within a data communications network, modems are classified as what type of
device?
A. DTE
B. Analog
C. Digital
D. Transmission channel
Answer: B
QUESTION 203:
On the receiving side of a data communications system, what is the purpose of a
modem?
A. To convert digital data to analog signals
B. To convert the analog signal to recover the digital data
C. To modulate the signals to eliminate data loss
D. To amplify the signals to ensure accurate reception of data
70-694 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 204:
Your LAN contains modems from different manufacturers, yet they all adhere to
the same standard. This is an example of:
A. Equalization.
B. Compatibility.
C. Modem protocols.
D. Configuration management.
Answer: B
QUESTION 205:
What is modulation?
A. A process used by modems to move information through the transmission channel
B. A process used by routers to send information to the correct location
C. A process used by bridges to filter packets according to their destinations
D. A process used by modems to convert signals from one format to another
70-694 exam Answer: A

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Exam Name: Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse (beta)
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 27
Which one of the following belongs to detailed site planning?
A. Max. UE Tx Power on RACH, CPICH Ec/No Offset.
B. Spreading code, PC overhead, Replacement Window.
C. Scrambling code, MHPA gain, ISHO neighbours.
D. Mobile Network Code, Max. Allowed DL Bit rate.
70-767 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Which group of parameters should be highlighted at the border of multi mode network?
A. ISHO triggering.
B. Inter-frequency handover triggering.
C. Soft handover triggering.
D. Softer handover triggering.
Answer: A
QUESTION 29
How many radio links on average, per user connected, would be considered a reasonable
value for a soft handover overhead in a WCDMA network?
A. 1.7 to 1.8.
B. 1.3 to 1.4.
C. 1.5 to 1.6.
D. 1.9 to 2.
70-767 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 30
At what level does radio interface synchronization have to be planned?
A. Site.
B. Carrier.
C. Cell.
D. RNC.
Answer: C
QUESTION 31
During pre-launch optimisation how can coverage problems be indicated in a cell?
A. By having very high throughput [kbit/s] in a cell.
B. By having TX power limitation and high throughput [kbit/s].
C. By achieving TX power limitations of NodeB or UE.
D. By having TX power limitation and low throughput [kbit/s].
70-767 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Soft handover parameters are set per:
A. RNC.
B. cell.
C. MSC.
D. site.
Answer: B
QUESTION 33
The output of coverage planning is needed for which one of the following processes?
A. Propagation model tuning.
B. Transmission planning.
C. Loading field measurements.
D. Code planning.
70-767 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 34
Which kind of channels exists in the WCDMA technology and how are they mapped?
A. Logical mapped on physical channels.
B. Logical mapped on transport mapped on physical channels.
C. Transport mapped on logical mapped on physical channels.
D. Transport mapped on physical channels.
Answer: B
QUESTION 35
What is SHO gain?
A. It is an additional macro diversity gain against slow fading.
B. It is an additional micro diversity gain.
C. It reduces the radio link loss due to multiple handovers.
D. It is a software feature in RAN.
70-767 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 36
When the UE receives the RRCConnectionRelease message in state CELLFACH, the
message is received on the:
A. CCCH it releases all its radio resources and enters idle mode.
B. CCCH it sends the SMS on the Paging Channel and then enters the idle mode.
C. DCCH it releases all its radio resources and enters idle mode.
D. DTCH it continues to use the radio resource as long as the users need it.
Answer: A
QUESTION 37
In the hand-over control procedure, during an event 1B a primary scrambling code (SC):
A. is replaced from another SC.
B. leaves the active sets if its level is level under a threshold for a determined period of
time.
C. enters the active set if its level is comparable to the already active ones, its level is
over a threshold for a determined period of
time and the active set size limit has not been reached.
D. is monitored in case of need.
70-767 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Soft handover areas and pilot pollution can be optimised by:
A. reducing NodeB Tx power.
B.down tilting NodeB antenna.
C. increasing UE TX power.
D. using compressed mode.
Answer: B
QUESTION 39
In passive distributed antenna systems, what are the MAIN components?
A. Splitters, connectors and electro-optic converters.
B. Diplexers, couplers, splitters, radiating and RF cables.
C. Splitters, optical fibres and jumpers.
D. Optical fibres, radiating cables and attenuators.
70-767 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 40
How does little i (or other to own cell interference) affect the uplink load, if at all?
A. By increasing the load by
B. There is no affect, it only affects the downlink.
C. By increasing the load by a factor of (1 + i*powerrise).
D.By decreasing the load by a factor of (1 + i*powerrise).
Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Which one of the following analyses can be performed with an UE connected
measurement system but NOT with a scanner measurement system?
A. Drop call analysis.
B. SIR analysis.
C. P-CPICH coverage measurement.
D. SHO area measurement.
70-767 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 42
What inter-RAT criteria measurements should be highlighted in the border area of multi
mode network?
A. T.
B. R.
C. H.
D. S.
Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Inter cell interference CANNOT be reduced by:
A. limiting TX power of UE or NodeB.
B. down tilting NodeB antenna.
C. squeezing soft handover areas as a function of active set.
D. increasing the number of sectors per site.
70-767 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 44
Transmission time is NOT reduced in compressed mode by:
A. reducing the spread factor by 2.
B. using higher layer scheduling.
C. puncturing.
D. limiting NRT traffic.
Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Assuming that the BTS max. power is 43dBm/carrier, what is a typical value of the
parameter PtxPrimaryCPICH?
A. 23dBm.
B. 33dBm.
C. 20dBm.
D. 40dBm.
70-767 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 46
In a site with 3 cells and 2 carriers, what is the total number of downlink hardware
channels needed if the amount needed for traffic is 158.7 per site and the amount used for
signalling is 8?
A. 183
B. 167
C. 255
D. 207
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-773
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION NO: 30
Which commnand would correctly define a router’s host-name?
A. # set ip host-name
B. > set ip host-name
C. # set system host-name
D. > set system host-name
70-773 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 31
Which command would correctly set a router’s date and time?
A. # set date 199708290900.00
B. # set system time 199708290900.00
C. > set date 199708290900.00
D. > set system time 199708290900.00
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
Which two statements are true about the rescue configuration file? (Choose two.)
A. It gets updated automatically when you commit.
B. You need to create it by issuing request system configuration rescue save.
C. It is rollback file number 50 and you can recover it by issuing rollback 50. D.
You can load it by entering rollback rescue.
70-773 dumps Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 33
Which command will save the current active configuration as the rescue configuration?
A. # save | rescue
B. # save rescue configuration
C. > request system configuration rescue save
D. > request rescue-configuration save current
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Which two statements are true regarding interface properties? (Choose two.)
A. MTU and speed must be configured under each unit.
B. Physical parameters such as MTU, duplex mode, and speed are configured under the
interface name.
C. IP and IPv6 addresses are configured under a unit-number.
D. DLCI numbers, VPI/VCI values, and VLAN tags are physical parameters.
 70-773 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 35
Which CLI command displays packet and byte counts for an interface in real-time?
A. monitor traffic
B. show interfaces
C. monitor interface
D. show traffic counts
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
Which CLI command displays error statistics for an interface in real-time?
A. monitor traffic
B. show interfaces
C. monitor interface
D. show interfaces extensive
70-773 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
What is used to segment larger networks into smaller networks?
A. supernet masks
B. subnet masks
C. wildcard masks
D. route filtering
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 38
Click the Exhibit button. user@host> show route protocol static
inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, – = Last Active, * = Both
192.168.2.128/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
 > to 172.20.106.10 via fe-0/0/5.106
192.168.2.192/26 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 10.210.14.131 via ge-0/0/0.0
192.168.2.192/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.18.1.1 via ge-0/0/1.0
192.168.2.224/28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06
> to 10.210.14.130 via ge-0/0/0.0
Using the route table shown in the exhibit, what will be the next-hop IP address used for a
destination IP address of 192.168.2.239? (Assume the only routes to this destination are
static routes.)
A. 10.210.14.130
B. 172.18.1.1
C. 10.210.14.131
D. 172.20.106.10
70-773 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 39
.Click the Exhibit button.
Given the routing entries shown in the exhibit, which next-hop IP address will be used for the
destination IP
address 192.168.2.158? (Assume only static routes are available for the destination.)
user@host> show route protocol static
inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden)
+ = Active Route, – = Last Active, * = Both
192.168.2.128/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.20.106.10 via fe-0/0/5.106
192.168.2.136/28 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 10.210.14.131 via ge-0/0/0.0
192.168.2.192/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.18.1.1 via ge-0/0/1.0
192.168.2.128/28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06
> to 10.210.14.130 via ge-0/0/0.0
A. 10.210.14.130
B. 172.18.1.1
C. 10.210.14.131
D. 172.20.106.10
Answer: D
 QUESTION NO: 40
.Which protocol family is required prior to assigning an IP address to an interface?
A. family ip
B. family ip6
C. family inet
D. family inet4
70-773 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
Which command configures an address of 192.168.1.1 with a mask of 255.255.255.0 on
interface ge-0/0/0?
A. set ip interface ge-0/0/0 address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
B. set ip interface ge-0/0/0 address 192.168.1.1/24
C. set interface ge-0/0/0 ip4 address 192.168.1.1 mask 255.255.255.0
D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.1/24
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Which statement is correct about logical units on Juniper Router interfaces?
A. Logical units are used only when a Layer 2 identifier is present such as a VLAN.
B. A logical unit of 0 is required when using a frame-relay DLCI.
C. A logical unit is always required.
D. Logical units are not required unless ATM or 802.1Q VLAN tagging is configured.
70-773 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
After issuing the show interfaces terse command, you notice that the status of one
interface is “up down”. What does this indicate?”
A. Layer 1 on the interface is up but Layer 2 is down.
B. Layer 2 on the interface is up but Layer 3 has not been configured.
C. The interface is administratively up but the link status is down.
D. The interface is up but has been administratively turned off.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
Which option is correct to configure the maximum transmit packet size of a Fast Ethernet
interface?
A. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 ethernet-options mtu 1200
B. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 mtu 1200
C. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 mtu 1200
D. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 mtu 1200
70-773 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 45
Which two statements are correct regarding units in JUNOS? (Choose two.)
A. Units in JUNOS are always required for any interface configured with logical addresses
such as IP and IPv6.
B. Units in JUNOS are only required when you are configuring sub-interfaces for inter-VLAN
routing.
C. Unit numbers must match the DLCI or VCI numbers configured on the interface.
D. Unit 0 is the only value allowed on interfaces running HDLC, PPP, or for Ethernet
interfaces not doing VLAN-tagging.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 46
Which two are correct when configuring an IP address for a Fast Ethernet interface?
(Choose two.)
A. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 address 10.1.1.1/24
B. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 family inet address 10.1.1.1/24
C. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 address 10.1.1.1/24
 D. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address 10.1.1.1/24
70-773 exam Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 47
The interface ge-0/2/3 is located in which flexible PIC concentrator slot?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-740
Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 162

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QUESTION 42
In the absence of his normal dealer contact, a counterparty calls the back office and asks the clerk for his
opinion about how long his money should be placed on deposit. What action should the back office clerk
take?
A. He should give his opinion.
B. He should give his opinion and tell the counterparty that he is not qualified to do so.
C. He should tell the counterparty that he is not qualified to give an opinion and refer the counterparty to
another dealer.
D. He should give his opinion and refer the counterparty to another dealer.
70-740 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
A middle or back office clerk receives an FX ticket in which the counterparty is not clearly identified. What
should he/she do?
A. Keep the ticket in “stand-by mode” until a matching confirmation is received
B. Immediately refer the ticket to the compliance officer
C. Refer the ticket to the FX dealer for further details
D. Refer the ticket to the nostro account manager for further instructions
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
Which risk factors fall under counterparty risk?
A. Currency risk, interest rate risk and swap risk
B. Settlement risk, delivery risk and replacement cost
C. Operational risk
D. Settlement risk and swap risk
70-740 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
What are the three successive stages of money laundering?
A. Integration, layering, placement
B. Integration, placement, layering
C. Placement, layering, integration
D. Layering, integration, placement
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
You spot a rate discrepancy between you and your counterparty on a AUD/USD deal. The deal was traded
direct. You refer the discrepancy to the dealer and he tells you to change the rate.
What should you do?
A. Amend the rate yourself
B. Ask the settlements clerk to amend the rate for you
C. Ask the dealer to manually amend the rate on the ticket and then pass it to the settlements clerk to
amend
D. Make no amendment
70-740 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
You have been given collateral. In which case would you be least concerned about insisting on a
“haircut”?
A. Non-cash emerging markets collateral
B. Cash collateral in JPY, your base currency is GBP
C. Cash collateral in USD, your base currency is USD
D. Non-cash high yield collateral
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
You have just opened a position in EUR/USD that you run overnight. What risk is present?
A. Settlement, counterparty and equity risk
B. Only counterparty risk
C. Only currency and interest rate risks
D. Settlement, counterparty and market risk
70-740 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
A EUR based bank has a USD-convertible bond. What market risks are present?
A. Interest rate and currency risks
B. Interest rate, stock price and currency risks
C. Stock price and currency risks
D. Stock price risk
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
For which of the following transactions are proper and completed bilateral master agreements considered
essential prior to any dealing?
A. Spot FX
B. Repo
C. Forward FX
D. FRAs
70-740 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Most non deliverable forwards (NDFs) are cash-settled in:
A. GBP
B. USD
C. CHF
D. EUR
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
What information is not explicitly confirmed between the two counterparties of a FX swap transaction using
a MT 300?
A. The rate
B. The amount
C. The swap points
D. Settlement information
70-740 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which of the following statements apply to an FX Swap?
A. It consists of two separate transactions, dealt with two different counterparties.
B. It replaces a pair of foreign exchange transactions.
C. It fully eliminates counterparty risk.
D. It reduces credit risk with the counterparty, as compared to money market deals.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which interest rates are used to calculate the exchange rate of an outright transaction value tomorrow
(over tom)?
A. The overnight interest rates of both currencies
B. The spot next interest rates of both currencies
C. The one week interest rates of both currencies
D. The torn next interest rates of both currencies
70-740 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Your FX swap dealer sold and bought 2 months USD/CHF 10,000,000.00; rates were set to 0.9300
against 0.9285. What payment is your bank expecting in two months from now?
A. CHF 9,300,000.00
B. CHF 10,770,059.24
C. CHF 9,285,000.00
D. USD 10,000,000.00
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
A month ago, a customer placed NZD 100,000.00 at 2.00% on a time deposit for 90 days. Today, 30 days
later, he requests an anticipated close of his deposit. 2 and 3 month interbank rates are 2.10% bid and
2.20% offered. What do you do?
A. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest calculated on 30 days
B. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest on 30 days less your
refinancing costs of 0.20% calculated on 30 days
C. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest on 30 days less your
refinancing costs of 0.10% calculated on 60 days
D. You agree and pay back to the customer the capital plus 2.00% interest on 90 days minus the
actualization of this amount at 2.20% calculated over 60 days
70-740 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
If the 90-day rate is 3.10% and the 180-day is 3.50%, what is the 120-day rate using straight-line
interpolation?
A. 3.20%
B. 3.21%
C. 3.23%
D. 3.30%
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which of the following are considered money market, cash or derivative instruments?
A. Currency futures
B. Forward FXs
C. Currency options
D. Forward rate agreements (FRA)
70-740 exam Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-774
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 102

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QUESTION 19.A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks.
If the project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
70-774 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 20.Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product
request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the
objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a
straightforward development effort.
As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?
A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the
project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
Answer: B
QUESTION 21.The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects.
A procurement professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a
decentralized contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
70-774 dumps Answer: D
 QUESTION 22
Medial home states that:
A. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver
comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
B. A proprietorship of primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver comprehensive
care over the long-term in their own variety of settings.
C. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families that do not deliver
comprehensive care over the long-term in a variety of settings.
D. A partnership between primary care providers (PCPs), patients and their families to deliver
comprehensive care just foe a short period of time in a variety of settings.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which of the following are the four aspects that all the businesses are required to produce financial
statements at least annually?
A. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
B. Journals, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of expense
C. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of changes in equity, statement of cash flow
D. Balance sheet, statement of operations, statement of controlled liabilities, statement of expense
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Balance sheet is majorly composed of:
A. heading, body and notes
B. heading, preliminary side bullets and notes
C. footers, body and notes
D. heading, body and footers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
At the top of the balance sheet there is a three-line heading that includes name of the organization, name
ff statement and
A. One date
B. Two dates
C. Three dates
D. none of the above
70-774 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
A major difference between the balance sheet of an investor-owned and a non-profit health care
organization is in the section.
A. owners’ asset
B. owners’ liability
C. owners’ equity
D. owners’ expense
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Two dates are often shown so that the reader can compare two successive periods, this is called:
A. comparative net assets
B. comparative balance sheet
C. comparative income statement
D. comparative cash flows
70-774 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
The resources that the organization owns, typically recorded at their original costs are called assets.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
The financial obligations of the organization are known as:
A. comparative net assets
B. liabilities
C. expenses
D. none of the above
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Net assets are:
A. The difference between an organization’s assets and liabilities
B. The difference between an owner’s assets and liabilities
C. The difference between a shareholder’s assets and expenses
D. The difference between a stakeholder’s assets and expenses
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
In investor-owned organizations, the accounting equation is:
A. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and owner’s equity
B. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and shareholder’s equity
C. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and proprietor’s equity
D. Assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and net assets
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
If assets are equal to the sum of liabilities and net assets in an accounting equation then this equation is
feasible for:
A. Investor-owned organizations
B. Profit-based organizations
C. Non-profit based organizations
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is NOT included in current assets?
A. Cash and cash equivalents
B. short-term investments
C. patient accounts receivables
D. long-term investments
70-774 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
A measure of how quickly an asset can be converted into cash is called:
A. Cash conversion
B. Asset conversion
C. Liquidity
D. Equity
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
Cash (or cash equivalents) is the most liquid asset on the balance sheet.
A. True
B. False
70-774 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
By subtracting contractual allowances and charity care discounts from gross patient accounts receivables,
what remains is:
A. Patients accounts payable
B. Patients accounts receivable
C. Patients accounts bill
D. Patients cash income
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Health care organizations also present an estimate of how much of their patient accounts receivables they
likely will not be able to collect, this estimate is called:
A. Allowance for collectables
B. Expense for collectables
C. Allowance for uncollectables
D. Expense for uncollectables
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Supplies refer to small-dollar items that will be used up or fully consumed within more than two years.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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