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Valid information provided by Citrix officials

1Y0-402 – Citrix Education: training.citrix.com/mod/ctxcatalog/course.php?id=1935

Latest effective Citrix 1y0-402 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Currently, the environment is
configured with two locations with identical XenDesktop Sites. Each Site has two Delivery Controllers, two StoreFront
servers, and one NetScaler high availability pair. The same applications have been published from both Sites for all the
users. Two Zones (Zone A and Zone B) are configured in each Site with one Controller in each zone. The Microsoft
Exchange server is only accessible from Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Zone A in each Site.
The following access requirements have been identified:
Users should have a single URL when accessing resources from different Sites.
Users should always connect to the datacenter closest to their location.
Applications added to Favorites within Citrix Receiver should be retained when accessed from different Sites.
Launched applications and desktops should always connect through a local NetScaler.
No duplication of applications published from different Sites.
Microsoft Outlook should always launch in Zone A.
The architect should recommend configuring Optimal Gateway routing on ___________across both locations to ensure
that users connect through a local NetScaler. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Delivery Controllers
B. StoreFront servers
C. Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) vServers
D. NetScaler appliances
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: At a consumer goods company, a XenApp 6.5 environment is hosted on XenServer 6.5. The IT team is
migrating to XenApp and Desktop service on Citrix Cloud. Server OS machines will be hosted on-premises and Desktop
OS machines will be hosted on Microsoft Azure.
Which Citrix Smart Tool can reduce the cost of running XenApp and XenDesktop in public clouds?
A. Smart Check
B. Smart Migrate
C. Smart Build
D. Smart Scale
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The customer previously
installed all applications locally on managed laptops and desktops but is willing to evaluate other application delivery
methods as part of the new deployment. The environment will be standardized on Windows 10 and Windows Server
2016 for the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines.
As part of an application analysis performed earlier in the project, the information in the Exhibit was collected regarding
one of the required applications.
Click the Exhibit button to view the information.pass4itsure 1Y0-402 exam question q3

The customer has an additional objective to minimize the number of network traffic in the environment, particularly on
WAN or metered links. How should the architect install the application?
A. Directly on endpoint devices and included in a virtual desktop session using the Local App Access feature
B. Directly on a VDA machine image and accesses through a virtual desktop session
C. Directly on a Server OS VDA machine and accessed from the endpoint as a published application
D. Stream it to a VDA machine using Microsoft App-V and accessed through a virtual desktop session
E. In the Application Layer using Citrix App Layering
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a XenApp and XenDesktop environment and needs to design machine catalogs
and Delivery Groups. Users should only be able to access their assigned resources. Click on the Exhibit button to view
the design requirements.pass4itsure 1y0-402 exam question q4

What is the appropriate design using the minimum number of machine catalogs and Delivery Groups, based on the
requirements in the Exhibit?
A. 1 machine catalog, 2 Delivery Groups, and no tagging
B. 2 machine catalogs, 3 Delivery Groups, and tagging for the machine hosting the Engineering application – QA
version
C. 3 machine catalogs, 4 Delivery Groups, and no tagging
D. 1 machine catalog, 1 Delivery Group, and tagging for the machine hosting the Engineering application – QA version
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Architect designed an environment where policies will be deployed using Workspace Environment
Management (WEM). The architect decided to install two WEM Infrastructure Services servers in order to meet the
expected load in the environment.
What should the architect do to ensure that both servers can be utilized in the environment?
A. Configure two virtual (VIPs) on a NetScaler appliance: one for the primary server, and one for the backup server.
B. Configure a load-balancing virtual IP (VIP) on a NetScaler appliance so that both servers can be actively receiving
communications.
C. Enter both server names in the Agent Host Configuration; the first server listed will be contracted first; the second
server will be in a standby capacity until needed.
D. Enter both server names in the Agent Host Configurations so that both servers will be actively contacted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
Click the Exhibit button to view information collected by the architect during the Resource Layer discussions.pass4itsure 1y0-402 exam question q6

Based on the requirements, the Citrix Administrative team should use _______to manage Citrix policies and
__________ to manage Microsoft settings. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Citrix Studio; Workspace Environment Manager
B. Active Directory Group Policy Objects; Active Directory Group Policy Objects
C. Citrix Studio; Local Policies
D. Active Directory Group Policy Objects; Workspace Environment Manager
E. Citrix Studio; Active Directory Group Policy Objects
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Scenario: After a recent security assessment, a Citrix Architect recommends blocking unnecessary peripheral types by
disabling the associated HDX channels. Currently, the environment is intended to support the peripheral types listed in
the Exhibit.
Click the Exhibit button to view the supported peripheral types.pass4itsure 1y0-402 exam question q7

Which four HDX virtual channels should the architect disable, based on the peripherals required in the environment?
(Choose four.)
A. ClientDrive
B. TWI
C. Print
D. ClientAudio
E. TwainRdr
F. Multimedia
Correct Answer: BCEF

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to implement XenDesktop in an environment. The XenDesktop design requires
enabling TLS encryption between components to ensure Payment Card Industry (PCI) compliance. A PCI audit
determines that TLS must be used for communication with the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines.
Which three tasks should the architect perform to enable TLS on VDA machines? (Choose three.)
A. Run a Citrix-provided PowerShell script on the VDA machine image to enable TLS
B. Enable TLS for Delivery Groups on the Delivery Controller
C. Run a Citrix-provided PowerShell script on the Delivery Controllers.
D. Enable TLS for the XenDesktop Site
E. Deploy certificates to the Delivery Controller
F. Deploy certificates to the VDA machines
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a XenDesktop environment. The Graphic Editors group uses a graphic-intensive
and media-rich application. Graphic Editors will be provided with a Windows Server 2016 Desktop with NVIDIA graphics
hardware acceleration. HDX 3D Pro and Server VDI options were selected during the command-line installation of the
Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA).
Which limitation will affect the Graphic Editors group?
A. GPU acceleration of OpenGL
B. Support for a single user session per VDA
C. Support for H.264 graphics protocol
D. GPU acceleration of DirectX
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to manage the disaster recovery process for a XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
The environment currently consists of an active datacenter which is typically accessed by used and a disaster recovery
(DR) datacenter which would be used in the event that a disaster impacts the primary datacenter. The overall
environment has been designed to actively replicate user data and application data from the primary datacenter
recovery datacenter using Microsoft DFS-R. Management has made it a proirity to minimize the loss of data when failing
over between datacenters. Due to an earthquake, the primary datacenter suffers a major outage that affects multiple
components. Management has decided to fail over the DR datacenter, and the architect has blocked access to the
primary datacenter to prevent new attempts to connect to the XenApp and XenDesktop Site there.
Which three actions must the architect perform to meet the company priorities before enabling access to the DR
datacenter? (Choose three.)
A. Complete data replication from the primary datacenter to the DR datacenter.
B. Monitor the automated failover process.
C. Transport backup data repositories to the DR datacanter.
D. Codifier data replication from the DR datacenter to the primary datacenter.
E. Drain existing sessions from the primary datacenter.
F. Evaluate the condition of the XenApp and XenDesktop environment in the primary datacenter.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to access a XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The XenApp and XenDesktop
diagram in the Exhibit gives details about the current Site and Zone design. Click the Exhibit button to view the
diagram.pass4itsure 1y0-402 exam question q11

Which statement is correct if all the Delivery Controllers in Satellite Zone 2 fail?
A. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Zone 2 will register within the Primary Zone.
B. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Zone 2 will register within Satellite Zone 1.
C. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines will register using the Local Host Cache
D. Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Satellite Zone 2 will NOT register
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Citrix Provisioning Services
has been selected for image management. Which two RAID levels should the architect use for the storage hosting the
Provisioning Service write cache? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 10
D. RAID 6
E. RAID 5
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to implement XenDesktop in an environment. The Customer Service team processes
credit card information in Web applications. A Payment Card Industry (PCI) audit determines that processes that can
run on a Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine are controlled through the use of whitelisting.
Which method would be an appropriate fit for the environment, based on the requirements?
A. Citrix Secure Browser
B. NTFS Permissions
C. Microsoft App-V
D. Citrix Workspace Environment Management
Correct Answer: D

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Exam 98-349: Windows Operating System Fundamentals – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-349.aspx

Microsoft 98-349 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam.View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

  • Understanding operating system configurations (15–20%)
  • Installing and upgrading client systems (15–20%)
  • Managing applications (15–20%)
  • Managing files and folders (15–20%)
  • Managing devices (15–20%)
  • Understanding operating system maintenance (15–20%)

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Latest effective Microsoft 98-349 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Your aunt uses her new Windows 10 laptop to read articles. However, she finds that reading for long periods strains her
eyes. You want to adjust the test on the screen to make it easier for your aunt to read for long periods without
experiencing eye strain. Which option should you select?
A. Custom Scaling
B. Screen Resolution
C. Clear Type
D. Change Text Size of Menus
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your roommate complains that her computer is showing an error message that says ActivateWindowsSearch scheduled
task failed to run. To troubleshoot the error you go to Task Scheduler and view the properties of the
ActivateWindowsSearch task, as shown in the following image:pass4itsure 98-349 exam question q2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth
one point.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 98-349 exam question q2-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 98-349 exam question q2-2

QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
To actively scan for spyware and viruses, you should ensure Action Center is installed and running.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed\\’\\’ if
the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Windows Defender
B. The Malicious Software Removal Tool
C. Microsoft Security Essentials
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have an internship at a company that wants you to help deploy Windows 7 to a dozen computers. The company
uses the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit instead of System Center Configuration Manager.
Which three migration methods are possible? (Choose three.)
A. LTI
B. HTTP
C. USB
D. UDI
E. ZTI
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
Which Windows feature should you use to assign a drive letter to a shared folder on the network?
A. Public Folder Sharing
B. Computer Management Console
C. Advanced Sharing
D. Map Network Drive
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You can export information to a text file by using the msconfig command from a command prompt.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it males the statement correct, select `No change is needed.” If the statement
is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. taskmgr
B. No change is needed.
C. perfmon
D. msinfo 32
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You need to return your Windows system files and settings to an earlier point in time without affecting personal files.
What should you do?
A. Restore a system image to the drive.
B. Restart the computer, press F8, and select Last Known Good Configuration.
C. Use the System Restore Wizard.
D. Restart the computer in Safe Mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You want to view a folder of pictures from an external hard disk drive in your Windows 7 Pictures library.
What should you do?
A. Use the Include in Library menu to add the folder in Windows Explorer.
B. Create a connection to the folders by using the Network and Sharing Center.
C. Access the pictures by using a shared folder.
D. Enable password-protected sharing.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You need to secure the contents of your entire hard disk drive even if an unauthorized user steals your computer. Which
method should you use?
A. Rights Management Services
B. File-level share permissions
C. Password-protection
D. BitLocker encryption
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which Windows 7 feature should you use to ensure that only administrators can install new software?
A. Network and Sharing Center
B. User Account Control
C. Microsoft Management Console
D. Ease of Access
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which feature allows you to transfer information from your computer to your mobile phone?
A. Windows Mobility Center
B. Device Manager
C. Sync Center
D. Windows Easy Transfer
Correct Answer: B
Ref:http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/sync-music-pictures-contacts-and-calendars-with-a-mobile-device

QUESTION 12
Which feature allows you to create a new virtual application?
A. Application Virtualization Sequencer
B. Windows Installer
C. Remote Desktop Connection
D. Windows Virtual PC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You work for the school library. You are instructed to upgrade all of the library\\’s Windows 8.1 devices to Windows 10
64-bit. What is the minimum memory the devices must have for you to be able to install Windows 10 64-bit?
A. 8 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 1 GB
D. 2 GB
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.microsoft.com/en-gb/windows/windows-10-specifications

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  • Manage Azure subscriptions and resources (5-10%)
  • Implement and manage storage (5-10%)
  • Configure and manage virtual networks (15-20%)
  • Manage identities (15-20%)
  • Evaluate and perform server migration to Azure (15-20%)
  • Implement and manage application services (5-10%)
  • Implement advanced virtual networking (5-10%)
  • Secure identities (5-10%)

Latest effective Microsoft Azure AZ-102 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com that contains 100 user
accounts.
You purchase 10 Azure AD Premium P2 licenses for the tenant.
You need to ensure that 10 users can use all the Azure AD Premium features.
What should you do?
A. From the Groups blade of each user, invite the users to a group.
B. From the Licenses blade of Azure AD, assign a license.
C. From the Directory role blade of each user, modify the directory role.
D. From the Azure AD domain, add an enterprise application.
Correct Answer: B
To assign a license, under Azure Active Directory > Licenses > All Products, select one or more products, and then
select Assign on the command bar. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-
directory/fundamentals/license-users-groups

QUESTION 2
From the MFA Server blade, you open the Block/unblock users blade as shown in the exhibit.pass4itsure az-102 exam question q2

What caused AlexW to be blocked?
A. An administrator manually blocked the user.
B. The user reports a fraud alert when prompted for additional authentication.
C. The user account password expired.
D. The user entered an incorrect PIN four times within 10 minutes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You have an on-premises file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure file share.
You deploy an Azure File Sync Storage Sync Service, and you create a sync group.
You need to synchronize files from Server1 to Azure.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure az-102 exam question q3Correct Answer: pass4itsure az-102 exam question q3-1Explanation:
Step 1: Install the Azure File Sync agent on Server1
The Azure File Sync agent is a downloadable package that enables Windows Server to be synced with an Azure file
share
Step 2: Register Server1.
Register Windows Server with Storage Sync Service
Registering your Windows Server with a Storage Sync Service establishes a trust relationship between your server (or
cluster) and the Storage Sync Service.
Step 3: Add a server endpoint
Create a sync group and a cloud endpoint.
A sync group defines the sync topology for a set of files. Endpoints within a sync group are kept in sync with each other.
A sync group must contain one cloud endpoint, which represents an Azure file share and one or more server endpoints.
A server endpoint represents a path on registered server.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-sync-files-deployment-guide

QUESTION 4
You download an Azure Resource Manager template based on an existing virtual machine. The template will be used to
deploy 100 virtual machines.
You need to modify the template to reference an administrative password. You must prevent the password from being
stored in plain text.
What should you create to store the password?
A. Azure Active Directory (AD) Identity Protection and an Azure policy
B. a Recovery Services vault and a backup policy
C. an Azure Key Vault and an access policy
D. an Azure Storage account and an access policy
Correct Answer: C
You can use a template that allows you to deploy a simple Windows VM by retrieving the password that is stored in a
Key Vault. Therefore, the password is never put in plain text in the template parameter file. References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/resources/templates/101-vm-secure-password/

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure Linux virtual machine that is protected by Azure Backup.
One week ago, two files were deleted from the virtual machine.
You need to restore the deleted files to an on-premises computer as quickly as possible.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure az-102 exam question q5Correct Answer: pass4itsure az-102 exam question q5-1Explanation:
To restore files or folders from the recovery point, go to the virtual machine and choose the desired recovery point.
Step 0. In the virtual machine\\’s menu, click Backup to open the Backup dashboard.
Step 1. In the Backup dashboard menu, click File Recovery.
Step 2. From the Select recovery point drop-down menu, select the recovery point that holds the files you want. By
default, the latest recovery point is already selected.
Step 3: To download the software used to copy files from the recovery point, click Download Executable (for Windows
Azure VM) or Download Script (for Linux Azure VM, a python script is generated).
Step 4: Copy the files by using AzCopy
AzCopy is a command-line utility designed for copying data to/from Microsoft Azure Blob, File, and Table storage, using
simple commands designed for optimal performance. You can copy data between a file system and a storage account,
or
between storage accounts.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-restore-files-from-vm
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-use-azcopy

QUESTION 6
You have an Azure DNS zone named adatum.com. You need to delegate a subdomain named research.adatum.com to
a different DNS server in Azure. What should you do?
A. Create an PTR record named research in the adatum.com zone.
B. Create an NS record named research in the adatum.com zone.
C. Modify the SOA record of adatum.com.
D. Create an A record named “.research in the adatum.com zone.
Correct Answer: D
Configure A records for the domains and sub domains.
References: http://www.stefanjohansson.org/2012/12/how-to-configure-custom-dns-names-for-multiple-subdomain-
based-azure-web-sites/

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription named Subscnption1 that contains an Azure virtual machine named VM1.
VM1 is in a resource group named RG1.
VM1 runs services that will be used to deploy resources to RG1.
You need to ensure that a service running on VM1 can manage the resources in RG1 by using the identity of VM1.
What should you do fit
A. From the Azure portal modify the Access control (1AM) settings of VM1.
B. From the Azure portal, modify the Policies settings of RG1.
C. From the Azure portal, modify the value of the Managed Service Identity option for VM1.
D. From the Azure portal, modify the Access control (IAM) settings of RG1.
Correct Answer: C
A managed identity from Azure Active Directory allows your app to easily access other AAD-protected resources such
as Azure Key Vault. The identity is managed by the Azure platform and does not require you to provision or rotate any
secrets.
User assigned managed identities can be used on Virtual Machines and Virtual Machine Scale Sets.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/app-service-managed-service-identity

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual networks. The virtual networks are hosted in separate resource
groups.
Another administrator plans to create several network security groups (NSGs) in the subscription.
You need to ensure that when an NSG is created, it automatically blocks TCP port 8080 between the virtual networks.
Solution: You create a resource lock, and then you assign the lock to the subscription.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
How can I freeze or lock my production/critical Azure resources from accidental deletion? There is way to do this with
both ASM and ARM resources using Azure resource lock. References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azureedu/2016
/04/27/using-azure-resource-manager-policy-and-azure-lock-to-control-your-azure-resources/

QUESTION 9
Another administrator reports that she is unable to configure a web app named corplod7509086n3 to prevent all
connections from an IP address of 11.0.0.11. You need to modify corplod7509086n3 to successfully prevent the
connections from the IP address. The solution must minimize Azure-related costs.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Check the answer in explanantion.
Correct Answer: A
See explanation below.
Step 1:
Find and select application corplod7509086n3:
1.
In the Azure portal, on the left navigation panel, click Azure Active Directory.
2.
In the Azure Active Directory blade, click Enterprise applications.
Step 2:
To add an IP restriction rule to your app, use the menu to open Network>IP Restrictions and click on Configure IP
Restrictionspass4itsure az-102 exam question q9Step 3:
Click Add rule
You can click on [+] Add to add a new IP restriction rule. Once you add a rule, it will become effective immediately. pass4itsure az-102 exam question q9-1Step 4:
Add name, IP address of 11.0.0.11, select Deny, and click Add Rule pass4itsure az-102 exam question q9-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/app-service-ip-restrictions

QUESTION 10
You need to prevent remote users from publishing via FTP to a function app named FunctionApplod7509087fa. Remote
users must be able to publish via FTPS. What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Check the answer in explanantion.
Correct Answer: A
See explanation below.
Step 1:
Locate and select the function app FunctionApplod7509087fa.
Step 2:
Select Application Settings > FTP Access, change FTP access to FTPS Only, and click Save.pass4itsure az-102 exam question q10References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/appserviceteam/2018/05/08/web-apps-making-changes-to-ftp-
deployments/

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure subscription that is used by four departments in your company. The subscription contains 10
resource groups. Each department uses resources in several resource groups.
You need to send a report to the finance department. The report must detail the costs for each department. Which three
actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer
area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure az-102 exam question q11Correct Answer: pass4itsure az-102 exam question q11-1Explanation:
Box 1: Assign a tag to each resource.
You apply tags to your Azure resources giving metadata to logically organize them into a taxonomy. After you apply
tags, you can retrieve all the resources in your subscription with that tag name and value. Each resource or resource
group
can have a maximum of 15 tag name/value pairs. Tags applied to the resource group are not inherited by the resources
in that resource group.
Box 2: From the Cost analysis blade, filter the view by tag
After you get your services running, regularly check how much they\\’re costing you. You can see the current spend and
burn rate in Azure portal.
1.
Visit the Subscriptions blade in Azure portal and select a subscription.
2.
You should see the cost breakdown and burn rate in the popup blade.
3.
Click Cost analysis in the list to the left to see the cost breakdown by resource. Wait 24 hours after you add a service for
the data to populate.
4.
You can filter by different properties like tags, resource group, and timespan. Click Apply to confirm the filters and
Download if you want to export the view to a Comma-Separated Values (.csv) file.
Box 3: Download the usage report
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-using-tags
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-getting-started

QUESTION 12
You have 100 Azure subscriptions. All the subscriptions are associated to the same Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
tenant named contoso.com.
You are a global administrator.
You plan to create a report that lists all the resources across all the subscriptions.
You need to ensure that you can view all the resources in all the subscriptions.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure portal, modify the profile settings of your account.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Add-AzureADAdministrativeUnitMember cmdlet.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the New-AzureADUserAppRoleAssignment cmdlet.
D. From the Azure portal, modify the properties of the Azure AD tenant.
Correct Answer: C
The New-AzureADUserAppRoleAssignment cmdlet assigns a user to an application role in Azure Active Directory (AD).
Use it for the application report. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azuread/new-
azureaduserapproleassignment?view=azureadps-2.0

QUESTION 13
You configure Azure AD Connect for Azure Active Directory Seamless Single Sign-On (Azure AD Seamless SSO) for an
on-premises network. Users report that when they attempt to access myapps.microsoft.com, they are prompted
multiple
times to sign in and are forced to use an account name that ends with onmicrosoft.com.
You discover that there is a UPN mismatch between Azure AD and the on-premises Active Directory. You need to
ensure that the users can use single-sign on (SSO) to access Azure resources.
What should you do first?
A. From the on-premises network, deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
B. From Azure AD, add and verify a custom domain name.
C. From the on-premises network, request a new certificate that contains the Active Directory domain name.
D. From the server that runs Azure AD Connect, modify the filtering options.
Correct Answer: B
Azure AD Connect lists the UPN suffixes that are defined for the domains and tries to match them with a custom domain
in Azure AD. Then it helps you with the appropriate action that needs to be taken. The Azure AD sign-in page lists the
UPN suffixes that are defined for on-premises Active Directory and displays the corresponding status against each
suffix. The status values can be one of the following:
State: Verified
Azure AD Connect found a matching verified domain in Azure AD. All users for this domain can sign in by using their on-
premises credentials.
State: Not verified
Azure AD Connect found a matching custom domain in Azure AD, but it isn\\’t verified. The UPN suffix of the users of
this domain will be changed to the default .onmicrosoft.com suffix after synchronization if the domain isn\\’t verified.
Action Required: Verify the custom domain in Azure AD.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/plan-connect-user-signin

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  • Evaluate and perform server migration to Azure (15-20%)
  • Implement and manage application services (20-25%)
  • Implement advanced virtual networking (30-35%)
  • Secure identities (25-30%)

Latest effective Microsoft Azure AZ-101 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You need to create a function app named corp7509086nl that supports sticky sessions. The solution must minimize the
Azure-related costs of the App Service plan. What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Check the answer in explanation.
Correct Answer: A
See explanation below.
Step 1:
Select the New button found on the upper left-hand corner of the Azure portal, then select Compute > Function App.
Step 2:
Use the function app settings as listed below.
App name: corp7509086n1
Hosting plan: Azure App Service plan
(need this for the sticky sessions)
Pricing tier of the the App Service plan: Shared compute: Free
Step 3:
Select Create to provision and deploy the function app.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-create-function-app-portal

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure subscription.
You enable multi-factor authentication for all users.
Some users report that the email applications on their mobile device cannot co browser and from Microsoft Outlook
2016 on their computer.
You need to ensure that the users can use the email applications on their mobile device.
What should you instruct the users to do?
The users can access Exchange Online by using a web
A. Enable self-service password reset.
B. Create an app password.
C. Reset the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) password.
D. Reinstall the Microsoft Authenticator app.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-sspr-howitworks

QUESTION 3
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenet named adatum.com.
You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users.
What should you do?
A. Create a sign-in risk policy in Azure AD Identity Protection
B. Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
C. Create and configure the Identity Hub.
D. Configure a security policy in Azure Security Center.
Correct Answer: A
With Azure Active Directory Identity Protection, you can:
require users to register for multi-factor authentication
handle risky sign-ins and compromised users References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-
directory/identity-protection/flows

QUESTION 4
You have an Azure virtual network named VNet1 that contains a subnet named Subnet1. Subnet1 contains three Azure
virtual machines. Each virtual machine has a public IP address.
The virtual machines host several applications that are accessible over port 443 to user on the Internet.
Your on-premises network has a site-to-site VPN connection to VNet1.
You discover that the virtual machines can be accessed by using the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) from the Internet
and from the on-premises network.
You need to prevent RDP access to the virtual machines from the Internet, unless the RDP connection is established
from the on-premises network. The solution must ensure that all the applications can still be accesses by the Internet
users.
What should you do?
A. Modify the address space of the local network gateway.
B. Remove the public IP addresses from the virtual machines.
C. Modify the address space of Subnet1.
D. Create a deny rule in a network security group (NSG) that is linked to Subnet1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure Subscription named Subscription1.
Adatum contains a group named Developers. Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev.
You need to provide the Developers group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Subscription1, you assign the DevTest Labs User role to the Developers group.
Does this meet the goal?
A.
B. Yes
C. No
Correct Answer: B
DevTest Labs User role only lets you connect, start, restart, and shutdown virtual machines in your Azure DevTest
Labs.
You would need the Logic App Contributor role.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-securing-a-logic-app

QUESTION 6
You need to create a web app named corp7509086n2 that can be scaled horizontally. The solution must use the lowest
possible pricing tier for the App Service plan. What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Check the answer in explanation.
Correct Answer: A
See explanation below.
Step 1:
In the Azure Portal, click Create a resource > Web + Mobile > Web App.
Step 2:
Use the Webb app settings as listed below.
Web App name: corp7509086n2
Hosting plan: Azure App Service plan
Pricing tier of the Pricing Tier: Standard
Change your hosting plan to Standard, you can\\’t setup auto-scaling below standard tier.
Step 3:
Select Create to provision and deploy the Web app.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/environment/app-service-web-how-to-create-a-web-app-in-an-ase
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/app-service/plans/

QUESTION 7
You have a public load balancer that balancer ports 80 and 443 across three virtual machines.
You need to direct all the Remote Desktop protocol (RDP) to VM3 only.
What should you configure?
A. an inbound NAT rule
B. a load public balancing rule
C. a new public load balancer for VM3
D. a new IP configuration
Correct Answer: A
To port forward traffic to a specific port on specific VMs use an inbound network address translation (NAT) rule.

QUESTION 8
You create an Azure subscription that is associated to a basic Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You need to
receive an email notification when any user activates an administrative role. What should you do?
A. Purchase Azure AD Premium 92 and configure Azure AD Privileged Identity Management,
B. Purchase Enterprise Mobility + Security E3 and configure conditional access policies.
C. Purchase Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 and create a custom alert rule in Azure Security Center.
D. Purchase Azure AD Premium PI and enable Azure AD Identity Protection.
Correct Answer: A
When key events occur in Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM), email notifications are sent. For example,
PIM sends emails for the following events:
When a privileged role activation is pending approval
When a privileged role activation request is completed
When a privileged role is activated
When a privileged role is assigned
When Azure AD PIM is enabled
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-email-notifications

QUESTION 9
You are configuring Azure Active Directory (AD) Privileged Identity Management.
You need to provide a user named Admm1 with read access to a resource group named RG1 for only one month.
The user role must be assigned immediately.
What should you do?
A. Assign an active role.
B. Assign an eligible role.
C. Assign a permanently active role.
D. Create a custom role and a conditional access policy.
Correct Answer: B
Azure AD Privileged Identity Management introduces the concept of an eligible admin. Eligible admins should be users
that need privileged access now and then, but not all-day, every day. The role is inactive until the user needs access,
then
they complete an activation process and become an active admin for a predetermined amount of time.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

QUESTION 10
From the MFA Server blade, you open the Block/unblock users blade as shown in the exhibit.pass4itsure az-101 exam question q10What caused AlexW to be blocked?
A. An administrator manually blocked the user.
B. The user reports a fraud alert when prompted for additional authentication.
C. The user account password expired.
D. The user entered an incorrect PIN four times within 10 minutes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You have a Microsoft SQL Server Always On availability group on Azure virtual machines. You need to configure an
Azure internal load balancer as a listener for the availability group. What should you do?
A. Enable Floating IP.
B. Set Session persistence to Client IP and protocol.
C. Set Session persistence to Client IP.
D. Create an HTTP health probe on port 1433.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You have an Azure subscription that contains a policy-based virtual network gateway named GW1 and a virtual network
named VNet1. You need to ensure that you can configure a point-to-site connection from VNet1 to an on-premises
computer. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Reset GW1.
B. Add a service endpoint to VNet1.
C. Add a connection to GW1.
D. Add a public IP address space to VNet1.
E. Delete GWL
F. Create a route-based virtual network gateway.
Correct Answer: EF
E: Policy-based VPN devices use the combinations of prefixes from both networks to define how traffic is
encrypted/decrypted through IPsec tunnels. It is typically built on firewall devices that perform packet filtering. IPsec
tunnel encryption and decryption are added to the packet filtering and processing engine.
F: A VPN gateway is used when creating a VPN connection to your on-premises network.
Route-based VPN devices use any-to-any (wildcard) traffic selectors, and let routing/forwarding tables direct traffic to
different IPsec tunnels. It is typically built on router platforms where each IPsec tunnel is modeled as a network interface
or VTI (virtual tunnel interface).

QUESTION 13
You plan to move services from your on-premises network to Azure.
You identify several virtual machines that you believe can be hosted in Azure. The virtual machines are shown in the
following table.pass4itsure az-101 exam question q13Which two virtual machines can you access by using Azure migrate? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Sea-CA0l
B. Hou-NW01
C. NYC-FS01
D. Sea-DC01
E. BOS-DB01
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 1
Using the Cisco WSA GUI, where should an operator navigate to determine the running software image on the Cisco WSA?
A. Systems Administration > System Upgrade
B. Systems Administration > Feature Keys
C. Systems Administration > General
D. Admin > System Info
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which description of an advantage of utilizing IPS virtual sensors is true?
A. Different configurations can be applied to different sets of traffic.
B. The persistent store is unlimited for the IPS virtual sensor.
C. The virtual sensor does not require 802.1q headers for inbound traffic.
D. Asymmetric traffic can be split between multiple virtual sensors
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ips/7- 0/configuration/guide/cli/cliguide7/cli_virtual_sensors.pdf

QUESTION 3
Refer to the following:
R01(config)#ip wccp web-cache redirect-list 80 password-local
A. Traffic denied in prefix-list 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA
B. The default “cisco” password is configured on the Cisco WSA
C. Traffic permitted in access-list 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA
D. Traffic using TCP port 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Email Security virtual appliance over the Cisco ESA appliance?
A. reduced space and power requirements
B. outbound message protection
C. automated administration
D. global threat intelligence updates from Talos
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
You have configured a VLAN pair that is connected to a switch that is unable to pass traffic. If the IPS is configured correctly, which additional configuration must you perform to enable the switch to pass traffic?
A. Configure access ports on the switch.
B. Configure the trunk port on the switch.
C. Enable IP routing on the switch.
D. Enable ARP inspection on the switch.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 6
What is the function of the Web Proxy Auto-Discovery protocol?
A. It enables a web client to discover the URL of a configuration file.
B. It enables a web client to download a script or configuration file that is named by a URL.
C. It enables a web client’s traffic flows to be redirected in real time.
D. It enables web clients to dynamically resolve hostname records.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco Cloud Web Security Connector feature allows access by all of an organization’s users while applying Active Directory group policies?
A. a company authentication key
B. a group authentication key
C. a PAC file
D. proxy forwarding
E. a user authentication key
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Which type of server is required to communicate with a third-party DLP solution?
A. an HTTPS server
B. an HTTP server
C. an ICAP-capable proxy server
D. a PKI certificate server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which interface on the Cisco Email Security Appliance has HTTP and SSH enabled by default?
A. data 1
B. data 2
C. management 1
D. all interfaces
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which website can be used to validate group information about connections that flow through Cisco CWS?
A. whoami.scansafe.net
B. policytrace.scansafe.net
C. whoami.scansafe.com
D. policytrace.scansafe.com
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 11
In addition to the CLI, what is another option to manage a Cisco IPS?
A. SDEE
B. Cisco SDM
C. Cisco IDM
D. Cisco ISE
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which commands are required to configure SSH on router? (Choose two.)
A. Configure domain name using ip domain-name command
B. Generate a key using crypto key generate rsa
C. Configure a DHCP host for the router using dhcpname#configure terminal
D. Generate enterprise CA self-sign certificate
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Here are the steps:
Configure a hostname for the router using these commands.
yourname#configure terminal
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.
yourname (config)#hostname LabRouter
LabRouter(config)#
Configure a domain name with the ip domain-name command followed by whatever you would like your domain name to be. I used CiscoLab.com.
LabRouter(config)#ip domain-name CiscoLab.com
We generate a certificate that will be used to encrypt the SSH packets using the crypto key generate rsa command.
Take note of the message that is displayed right after we enter this command: “The name for the keys will be: LabRouter.CiscoLab.com” — it combines the hostname of the router along with the domain name we configured to get the name of
the encryption key generated; this is why it was important for us to, first of all, configure a hostname then a domain name before we generated the keys.
Reference: https://www.pluralsight.com/blog/tutorials/configure-secure-shell-ssh-on-cisco- router

QUESTION 13
Which feature of the Cisco Hybrid Email Security services enables you to create multiple email senders on a single Cisco ESA?
A. Virtual Gateway
B. Sender Groups
C. Mail Flow Policy Connector
D. Virtual Routing and Forwarding
E. Email Marketing Connector
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which IPS feature allows you to aggregate multiple IPS links over a single port channel?
A. UDLD
B. ECLB
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A network security design engineer is considering using a Cisco Intrusion Detection System in the DMZ of the network. Which option is the drawback to using IDS in the DMZ as opposed to using
Intrusion Prevention System?
A. Sensors, when placed in-line, can impact network functionality during sensor failure.
B. IDS has impact on the network (that is, latency and jitter).
C. Response actions cannot stop triggered packet or guarantee to stop a connection techniques.
D. Response actions cannot stop malicious packets or cannot guarantee to stop any DOS attack.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
What are the two policy types that can use a web reputation profile to perform reputation- based processing? (Choose two.)
A. profile policies
B. encryption policies
C. decryption policies
D. access policies
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which statement about the default configuration of an IPS sensor’s management security settings is true?
A. There is no login banner
B. The web server port is TCP 80
C. Telnet and SSH are enable
D. User accounts lock after three attempts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which command verifies that CWS redirection is working on a Cisco IOS router?
A. show content-scan session active
B. show content-scan summary
C. show interfaces stats
D. show sessions
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
When a Cisco IPS is deployed in fail-closed mode, what are two conditions that can result in traffic being dropped? (Choose two.)
A. The signature engine is undergoing the build process.
B. The SDF failed to load.
C. The built-in signatures are unavailable.
D. An ACL is configured.Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which piece of information is required to perform a policy trace for the Cisco WSA?
A. the URL to trace
B. the source IP address of the trace
C. authentication credentials to make the request
D. the destination IP address of the trace
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which three administrator actions are used to configure IP logging in Cisco IME? (Choose three.)
A. Select a virtual sensor.
B. Enable IP logging.
C. Specify the host IP address.
D. Set the logging duration.
E. Set the number of packets to capture.
F. Set the number of bytes to capture.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation

QUESTION 22
A user is deploying a Cisco IPS appliance in a data center to mitigate most attacks, including atomic attacks. Which two modes does Cisco recommend using to configure for this? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN pair
B. interface pair
C. transparent mode
D. EtherChannel load balancing
E. promiscuous mode
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which method does Cisco recommend for collecting streams of data on a sensor that has been virtualized?
A. VACL capture
B. SPAN
C. the Wireshark utility
D. packet capture
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Which option represents the cisco event aggregation product?
A. CVSS system
B. IntelliShield
C. ASA CX Event Viewer
D. ASDM 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which Cisco ASA configuration command drops traffic if the Cisco ASA CX module fails?
A. no fail-open
B. fail-close
C. fail-close auth-proxy
D. auth-proxy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which Cisco ESA predefined sender group uses parameter-matching to reject senders?
A. BLACKLIST
B. WHITELIST
C. SUSPECTLIST
D. UNKNOWNLIST
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which sensor deployment mode does Cisco recommend when interface capacity is limited and you need to increase sensor functionality?
A. inline interface pair mode
B. inline VLAN pair mode
C. inline VLAN group mode
D. VLAN group mode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Which three categories of the seven major risk management categories are covered in the Cyber Risk Reports? (Choose three.)
A. vulnerability
B. risk rating
C. legal
D. confidence level
E. geopolitical
F. global reputation
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which settings are required when deploying Cisco IPS in high-availability mode using
EtherChannel load balancy?
A. ECLB IPS appliances must be in on-a-stick mode, ECLB IPS solution maintains state if a sensor goes down, and TCP flow is forced through the same IPS appliance.
B. ECLB IPS appliances must not be in on-a-stick mode, ECLB IPS solution maintains state if a sensor goes down, and TCP flow is forced through the same IPS appliance flow
C. ECLB IPS appliances must be in on-a-stick mode, ECLB IPS solution does not maintain state if a sensor goes down, and TCP flow is forced through a different IPS appliance.D. ECLB IPS appliances must not be in on-a-stick mode, ECLB IPS solution does not maintain state if a sensor goes down, and TCP flow is forced through a different IPS appliance.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/vpndevc/ps4077/products_configuration_example 09186 a0080671a8d.shtml

QUESTION 30
r01(config)#ip wccp web-cache redirect-list 80 password local
Refer to the above. What can be determined from this router configuration command for Cisco
WSA?
A. Traffic using TCP port 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA.
B. The default “cisco” password is configured on the Cisco WSA.
C. Traffic denied in prefix-list 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA.
D. Traffic permitted in access-list 80 is redirected to the Cisco WSA.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Who or what calculates the signature fidelity rating in a Cisco IPS?
A. the signature author
B. Cisco Professional Services
C. the administrator
D. the security policy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Which centralized reporting function of the Cisco Content Security Management Appliance aggregates data from multiple Cisco ESA devices?
A. message tracking
B. web tracking
C. system tracking
D. logging
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Which statement about the Cisco ASA CX role in inspecting SSL traffic is true?
A. To decrypt traffic, the Cisco ASA CX must accept the websites’ certificates as Trusted Root Cas.
B. If the administrator elects to decrypt traffic, the Cisco ASA CX acts as a man-in–me- middle.
C. Either all traffic is decrypted, or no traffic is decrypted by the Cisco ASA CX.
D. The traffic is encrypted, so the Cisco ASA CX cannot determine the content of the traffic.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 34
You ran the ssh generate-key command on the Cisco IPS and now administrators are unable to connect. Which action can be taken to correct the problem?
A. Replace the old key with a new key on the client.
B. Run the ssh host-key command.
C. Add the administrator IP addresses to the trusted TLS host list on the IPS.
D. Run the ssh authorized-keys command.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Which option is a benefit of deploying Cisco Application Visibility and Control?
A. It ensures bandwidth availability and performance of mission-critical applications in a data- and media-rich environment.
B. It performs deep packet inspection of mission-critical applications in a data- and media- rich environment.
C. It encrypts mission-critical applications in a data- and media-rich environment.
D. It securely tunnels mission-critical applications in a data- and media-rich environment.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 36
What is a value that Cisco ESA can use for tracing mail flow?
A. the FQDN of the source IP address
B. the FQDN of the destination IP address
C. the destination IP address
D. the source IP address
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 37
When you deploy a sensor to send connection termination requests, which additional traffic-monitoring function can you configure the sensor to perform?
A. Monitor traffic as it flows to the sensor.
B. Monitor traffic as it flows through the sensor.
C. Monitor traffic from the Internet only.
D. Monitor traffic from both the Internet and the intranet.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which signature engine is responsible for ICMP inspection on Cisco IPS?
A. AIC Engine
B. Fixed Engine
C. Service Engine
D. Atomic IP Engine
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-210 question
What are two facts about the interface that you can determine from the given output? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco Flexible NetFlow monitor is attached to the interface.
B. A quality of service policy is attached to the interface.
C. Cisco Application Visibility and Control limits throughput on the interface.
D. Feature activation array is active on the interface.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Which three statements about threat ratings are true? (Choose three.)
A. A threat rating is equivalent to a risk rating that has been lowered by an alert rating.
B. The largest threat rating from all actioned events is added to the risk rating.
C. The smallest threat rating from all actioned events is subtracted from the risk rating.
D. The alert rating for deny-attacker-inline is 45.
E. Unmitigated events do not cause a threat rating modification.
F. The threat rating for deny-attacker-inline is 50.
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

QUESTION 41
What are three features of the Cisco Security Intellishield Alert Manager Service? (Choose three.)
A. validation of alerts by security analysts
B. custom notifications
C. complete threat and vulnerability remediation
D. vendor-specific threat analysis
E. workflow-management tools
F. real-time threat and vulnerability mitigation
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation

QUESTION 42
What can you use to access the Cisco IPS secure command and control channel to make configuration changes?
A. SDEE
B. the management interface
C. an HTTP server
D. Telnet
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 43
Drag and drop the steps on the left into the correct order on the right to configure a Cisco ASA
NGFW with multiple security contexts
pass4itsure 300-210 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
Drag and drop the Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service components on the left onto the corresponding description on the right
pass4itsure 300-210 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
Drag and drop the terms on the left onto the correct definition for the promiscuous IPS risk rating calculation on the right
pass4itsure 300-210 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
Drag and drop the steps on the left into the correct order of initial Cisco IOS IPS configuration on the right.
pass4itsure 300-210 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference

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700-070 IX5K – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/700-070.html

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QUESTION 1
What causes echo or reverberation in the room during a call?
A. too many acoustic panels
B. too many hard surfaces
C. too many people
D. too many devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the IX5000?
A. immersive collaboration
B. mobile-device use
C. desktop use
D. home use
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two peripheral devices are available for the IX5000? (Choose two.)
A. additional Touch 12 screens
B. additional Touch 10 screens
C. additional Touch 8 screens
D. document scanner
E. auxiliary monitors
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
Which two standards does the IX5000 codec support? (Choose two.)
A. H.324
B. H.320
C. H.265
D. G.729AB
E. G.728
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which infrastructure component is needed for OBTP?
A. Prime Collaboration
B. Cisco VCS
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco TelePresence System
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which action should you take before upgrading a telepresence system?A. Restore the current configurations.
B. Back up the current configurations.
C. Restore the factory settings.
D. Contact TAC for upgrade instructions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two options are available through the participant icon? (Choose two.)
A. List all missed calls.
B. Drop a caller from the call.
C. List all participants who were dropped from the call.
D. List all participants on the call.
E. Add a caller to the call.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
How can you change presentation display options during a call?
A. Open the share tray and drag the presentation to the desired location.
B. Open the share tray and assign display numbers to each presentation.
C. Open the system settings and reconfigure the display options.
D. Open the participant list and drag the presentation to the desired location.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is the required ratio for the whiteboard setup?
A. 16:9
B. 4:3
C. 21:9
D. 5:7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two actions are part of the Display Connection step during endpoint configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Determine the screen resolution.
B. Register the endpoint to Unified Communications Manager.
C. Perform an internal display cabling check.
D. Determine the system layout display on Touch 10.
E. Register the endpoint to the Cisco VCS.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
What should you do first when the cameras are blurry?
A. Close and re-open Self View
B. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
C. Close and re-open the share tray.
D. Power-cycle the system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the proper order of steps for installing an IX5000?
A. Perform cable routing, install display frames, install tabletops, and install the codec.
B. Install tabletops, perform cable routing, install display frames, and install the codec.
C. Install display frames, install the codec, perform cable routing, and install tabletops.
D. Install display frames, install tabletops, perform cable routing, and install the codec.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
How many presentations can be shared in a direct IX5000-to-IX5000 call?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. one
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
If a single microphone fails, you should first test cabling between which two points?
A. the TDM and the codec
B. the microphone bar and the Touch 10
C. the microphone bar and the codec
D. the microphone bar and the TDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
What can cause the tables to appear warped?
A. Cables to the displays are installed incorrectly.
B. Parts or screws in the table assembly are installed incorrectly.
C. The room contains too manycontrasting colors.
D. The table is placed too close to the screens.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Where can you find packet-transmission statistics?
A. Monitoring > Maintenance
B. Monitoring > Network Data
C. Monitoring > Statistics
D. Monitoring > Call Info
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What is the minimum required number of people to install an IX5000 in one day?
A. threeB. four
C. two
D. one
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What should you do first when the local Touch 10 falsely indicates that content is being shared?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What should you do first when a display shows a black screen instead of presentation content after hot-
swapping cables?
A. Power-cycle the system.
B. Close and re-open the share tray.
C. Use the Setup wizard to repeat system setup.
D. Close and re-open Self View.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Where is the option to choose OBTP?
A. Booking > Basic Settings> New Conference
B. New Conference > Booking > Basic Settings > Type
C. Booking > New Conference > Basic Settings > Type
D. Basic Settings > New Conference > Booking
Correct Answer: C

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Exam 70-734: OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10 – Microsoft:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-734.aspx

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QUESTION 1
You work for an OEM builder.
You create a custom image of Windows 10 for a customer. You deploy the image to 100 clients that are then shipped to a customer.
For recovery purposes, the customer requests that you provide removable media that contains the image.
What should you do?
A. Create an image of a reference computer on a USB key by using a third-party imaging software.
B. Inform the customer that the customer must download the custom image from the Microsoft Volume Licensing Service Center (VLSC).
C. Create an image of a reference computer on a DVD by using a third-party imaging software.
D. Inform the customer that you are prohibited from providing a recovery solution for the custom image on removable media.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can provide a hard disk recovery solution for a custom image, but not removable media containing a custom image.

QUESTION 2
You have a WIM file that contains an image of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard.
You need to change the edition of the image to Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter. Thes solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Upgrade Assistant.
B. Perform offline maintenance of the image by using Dism.
C. Run Windows Anytime Upgrade.
D. Deploy the image to a client computer, perform an in-place upgrade, and then capture an image of the computer.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You have a Windows image that is configured to start to the Windows Welcome screen.
You need to ensure that the image starts in audit mode.
You mount the image.
What should you do next?
A. Create an answer file named audit.txt. Copy the answer file to the Windows folder in the image.
B. Create an answer file named Audit.xml. Copy the answer file to the Windows\Panther\Unattend folder in the image.
C. Create an answer file named Unattend.xml. Copy the answer file to the Windows\Panther\Unattend folder in the image.
D. Create an answer file named Unattend.txt. Copy the answer file to the Windows folder in the image.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/hh824920.aspx

QUESTION 4
You plan to deploy Windows 10 on several computers by using images. The computers will contain a Push Button Reset (PBR).
You need to ensure that the computer configuration supports PBR.
Which computer configurations must be available?
A. a recovery image file
B. a DVD drive that contains the installation media
C. a full system backup
D. a recovery partition
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-gb/windows/hardware/commercialize/manufacture/desktop/windows-recovery-environment- -windows-re–technical-reference

QUESTION 5
You have a technician computer that has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You have a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image.
You plan to optimize the Windows PE image by removing unnecessary components from the image.
You need to enable profiling for the image.
Which package should you add to the base Windows PE image before you can enable profiling?
A. winpe-wmi.cab
B. winpe-setup.cab
C. winpe-scripting.cab
D. winpe-mdac.cab
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You work for an OEM system builder.
What are three possible ways to distribute Windows OEM desktop operating system licenses? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a sealed System Builder pack that is provided from the purchase of a new computer that does NOT have an operating preinstalled
B. an unsealed System Builder pack that is purchased separately from a computer
C. an unsealed System Builder pack that is provided from the purchase of a new computer that does NOT have an operating system preinstalled
D. a sealed System Builder pack that is purchased separately from a computer
E. a sealed System Builder pack that is provided from the purchase of a new computer that has an operating system preinstalled
F. an unsealed System Builder pack that is provided from the purchase of a new computer that has an operating system preinstalled
Correct Answer: AEF
Explanation

QUESTION 7
You prepare and sell several computers pre-installed with Windows.
You need to identify the scenarios that violate the support agreement between the OEM System Builder and an end user that purchases a computer.
Which two scenarios violate the support agreement?
A. When an end user replaces the network card, video card, and power supply for the computer.
B. When an end user runs a Push Button Reset (PBR).
C. When an end user adds three hard disks on the computer.
D. When an end user moves the computer’s hard disks to another computer and uses the new computer.
E. When an end user replaces the computer’s motherboard with another manufacturer’s motherboard.Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
You have a WIM file named Install.wim that contains two images.
You need to apply the second image to a computer.
What should you use to apply the image?
A. sysprep.exe
B. dism.exe
C. xcopy.exe
D. wdsutil.exe
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 9
You work for an OEM system builder.
You use Windows Deployment Services (WDS) to deploy operating system images.
WDS contains a 32-bit boot image.
You receive a new client computer model that is 64-bit.
You add a 64-bit install image of Windows to WDS.
You attempt to deploy the new install image to the new computer model by using WDS. The boot image loads on the new computer, but you fail to apply the install image.
You discover that from the boot image on the new computer, you cannot connect to the WDS server.
You need to ensure that you can deploy the new install image to the new computer model.
What should you do?
A. Inject the 64-bit driver for the network adapter into the install image.
B. Inject the 32-bit driver for the network adapter into the boot image.
C. Inject the 64-bit driver for the network adapter into the boot image.
D. Inject the 32-bit driver for the network adapter into the install image.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You purchase a System Builder pack for Windows 10 Pro and plan to perform an installation by using a Personal Use License.
What should you do first to receive support for the installation?
A. change the license
B. contact a Microsoft Authorized Distributor
C. contact Microsoft
D. contact the OEM system builder
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You need to purchase a full retail license for personal use.

QUESTION 11
You have a computer that has Windows installed.
You start Windows on the computer for the first time.
You need to verify that Push Button Reset (PBR) is configured in the Windows installation.
Which tool should you use?
A. Scanstate.exe
B. bcdboot.exe
C. Dism.exe
D. Reagentc.exe
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 12
You need to apply a hotfix to a Windows Preinstallation Environment (windows PE) image by using Dism.
Which parameter should you use?
A. /Set-Edition
B. /Add-Package
C. /Add-Driver
D. /Enable-Feature
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
You have a custom managed application that you plan to use from Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE). The application requires the Microsoft .NET Framework.
You need to configure Windows PE to support the application.
Which two packages should you add to Windows PE? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. WinPE-MDAC
B. WinPE-Scripting
C. WinPE-WMI
D. WinPE-HTA
E. WinPE-NetFX4
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-GB/library/hh824926.aspx

QUESTION 14
You plan to deliver 10 client computers to a customer. The computers will have Windows 10 installed.
The customer identifies the following tasks that must be performed by users of the computers:
You plan to preinstall Microsoft Office 2016 on the computers.
You need to recommend an Office 2016 license solution for the customer. The solution must minimize licensing costs.What should you recommend?
A. Office Professional 2016
B. Office 365 Home
C. Office Home & Business 2016
D. Office 365 Business Volume Licensing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
You prepare and sell a computer that has Windows pre-installed.
The end user reports that Windows is damaged and that he plans to reinstall Windows.
You need to recommend the method that the end user use to reinstall Windows.
What two methods should you recommend?
A. Reinstall by using Push Button Reset (PBR).
B. Reinstall by using an image from a DVD created by the System Builder.
C. Reinstall by using a recovery DVD created by the System Builder.
D. Return the computer to the System Builder for repair and then request that the computer is reimaged.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
System Builders cannot create their own recovery or image DVDs; they can only supply DVDs created by Microsoft.

QUESTION 16
You deploy a Windows image to a reference computer.
You sign in to the reference computer by using the built-in administrator account and you modify the user environment.
You need to deploy the image to several client computers. The image must contain the profile of the built-in administrator account as the default profile.
Which two actions should you perform before you capture the image? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run sysprep.exe/generalize /unattend:unattend.xml.
B. Create an answer file that contains the Microsoft-Windows-Setup\UserData settings.
C. Run sysprep.exe /generalize /mode:vm.
D. Run sysprep.exe / audit /unattend:unattend.xml.
E. Create an answer file that contains the Microsoft-Windows-Shell_setup settings.
F. Run dism.exe /apply-unattend:unattend.xml.
G. Run dism.exe /image.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 17
You plan to perform a Windows installation on a reference computer named Computer1.
You need to identity the location of the log files that will be created when Setup accesses the local drive.
Which location should you identify?
A. X:\$windows~bt\Sources\Panther
B. %windir%\Logs\
C. %windir%\Panther\
D. X:\$windows.~bt\Sources
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-gb/windows/hardware/commercialize/manufacture/desktop/windows-setup-log-files-and- event-logs

QUESTION 18
You work for an OEM system builder named Fabrikam, Inc.
Fabrikam sells personal computers that have Windows 10 preinstalled.
You need to recommend a recovery solution that provides customers with the ability to repair their computers quickly, while preserving data and important customizations. The solution must not back up data in advance and must comply with
the Microsoft OEM system builder license.
What should you recommend?
A. push-button reset
B. Windows Backup
C. File History
D. The Microsoft Diagnostics and Recovery Toolset (DaRT)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
You start a client computer by using Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE). You load a default version of Windows Preinstallation Environment (windows PE) that was created by using the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit
(Windows ADK).
You have a file server that contains a shared folder. The folder contains an image of Windows. The folder is shared to the local Users group only.
The computer has a system partition and a Windows partition.
You need to apply a reference installation from a network share.
Which command should you run before applying the image?
A. net.exe
B. mshta.exe
C. drvinst.exe
D. wpeinit.exe
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
You have several servers that have the following hardware installed:
You plan to install Windows Server 2012 on the servers.
You need to identify which hardware component must be replaced before the planned installation.
Which hardware component should you identify?
A. the x86 processor and motherboard
B. The 2 GB of Physical memory
C. the network card
D. the 100-GB hard disk driveCorrect Answer: A
Explanation

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Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What is the problem?
A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E. The link is congested.
400-101 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Here we see that the Time to Live (TTL) value of the packet is one, so it will be forwarded to the next hop router, but then dropped because the TTL value will be 0 at the next hop.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside thenetwork.Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shownas accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative ofreceive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data burstscoming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). You will never see asustained data traffic within show interface’s “input rate” counter as they are averaging bitsper second (bps) over 5 minutes by default (way too long to account for microbursts). Youcan understand microbursts from a scenario where a 3-lane highway merging into a singlelane at rush hour – the capacity burst cannot exceed the total available bandwidth (i.e.single lane), but it can saturate it for a period of time.

Question No : 3 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the extended ping command field on the left to its usage on the right.
400-101 dumps
400-101 dumps Answer:
400-101 dumps

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
Answer: A
Explanation:
We can see that the connection is initiated by the Source IP address shown as 144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is inhex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254. Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
400-101 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid forreaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would notneed a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to dowith this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will havea default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
Answer: B
Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines itsinterpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload typecodes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamicallythrough non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any giventime; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecsand their payload type values can be found at the link below:

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
400-101 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768:“Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudoheader of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zerooctets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.”In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around andadd it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield thevalue of the UDP checksum field.If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as theone’s complement (all 1s).

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
400-101 exam Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols areneeded so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames.The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populatedbased on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB)is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused.

Question No : 11 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
Drag and drop the argument of the mls ip cef load-sharing command on the left to the
function it performs on the right.
400-101 dumps
400-101 dumps Answer:

Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101 dumps
Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.)
A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0
B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0
C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0
D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0
E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Output drops are caused by a congested interface. For example, the traffic rate on theoutgoing interface cannot accept all packets that should be sent out, or a service policy isapplied that is oversubscribed. The ultimate solution to resolve the problem is to increasethe line speed. However, there are ways to prevent, decrease, or control output dropswhen you do not want to increase the line speed. You can prevent output drops only ifoutput drops are a consequence of short bursts of data. If output drops are caused by aconstant high-rate flow, you cannot prevent the drops. However, you can control them.

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the BEST security practice to use when configuring the management options of a wireless router?
A. Disable DHCP
B. Change the admin password
C. Enable SSID
D. Enable remote administration
FC0-U51 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following hardware uses flash memory technology?
A. PCMCIA card
B. Smart card reader
C. Secure digital card
D. DDR2 SDRAM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following display standards has a resolution of 1400 x 1050 pixels?
A. XGA
B. UXGA
C. SXGA+
D. WUXGA
FC0-U51 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Ann, a user, wishes to free space in her documents folder. Which of the following is the BEST characteristic to sort by in order to ensure that the most space is freed by deleting the least amount of files?
A. Date modified
B. File path
C. Size
D. Extension
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
When considering backup media, which of the following holds the MOST data?
A. BD-R
B. DVD-R
C. DVD-DL
D. CD-ROM
FC0-U51 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements about Standby Power Supply (SPS) is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It provides protection against power surges.
B. It provides protection against power drops and power surges.
C. It provides no protection against power surges.
D. It provides protection against under voltage.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
A user will be traveling with a smartphone that contains confidential information. Which of the following should be disabled? (Select TWO).
A. Keyboard
B. Speakers
C. Mouse
D. Bluetooth
E. NFC
FC0-U51 pdf Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 8
Which of the following types of fire extinguishers are needed for combustible liquids\’ fire such as gasoline and
kerosene?
A. Class C
B. Class B
C. Class D
D. Class A
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is performed during WiFi setup on a mobile device?
A. Configuring bluetooth pairing settings
B. Configuring email settings
C. Configuring screen lock settings
D. Configuring SSID settings
FC0-U51 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the BEST method of sharing files within a department?
A. Email
B. Flash drive
C. Network drive
D. Instant messaging
E. NFC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You are responsible for technical support at a hospital. Recently, all computers have been upgraded to Windows Vista
64 bit. However, you have a particular custom application that runs only in 32 bit. What should you do?
A. You will have to uninstall the upgraded operating system.
B. Use compatibility mode to run the 32-bit application.
C. You will need a 32-bit version of Vista, not 64 bit.
D. You will need to get the upgraded 64-bit version of the application.
FC0-U51 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the function of a CPU?
A. Encrypts data for remote transmission
B. Performs data computation
C. Supplies electricity to components
D. Provides storage location for files
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When storing a document in the cloud, a user needs to be:
A. On a shared drive.
B. Using a USB cable.
C. Connected to the Internet.
D. In airplane mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is a fake target that deters hackers from locating your real network?
A. Honeypot
B. KFSensor
C. Malware
D. Spyware
FC0-U51 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements about the DVI-D connector are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It is used only for digital signal connections.
B. Its single link connector contains 18 pins.
C. It is used for both digital and analog signal connections.
D. Its dual link connector contains 24 pins.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is used with a touch screen to increase accuracy?
A. Touchpad
B. Stylus pen C. Joystick
D. Trackball
FC0-U51 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following SCSI types use 16-bit bus?
A. Fast Wide SCSI-2
B. Double Wide SCSI-2
C. Fast SCSI-2
D. Wide SCSI-2
E. Ultra-2 SCSI (Fast-40)
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 18
A home user wants to share files between two different computers. The user wants the files to be available to either
computer, regardless of whether either computer is turned on. Which of the following is the BEST storage method?
A. USB storage
B. Internal storage
C. Direct attached storage
D. Network attached storage
FC0-U51 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Before purchasing a new video card for a PC, which of the following should be checked to ensure there will be enough electricity for the video card to function properly?
A. GPU
B. CPU
C. GUI
D. PSU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which of the following types of batteries are used by toys and watches?
A. Silver oxide
B. Zinc-air
C. Lead-acid
D. Silver lead
FC0-U51 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is the BEST reason to change a wireless router\’s default SSID?
A. To make it easier to identify in a location with several routers.
B. To make the network feel more personal.
C. To make it more difficult to join.
D. To make the network secure.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
The extension .rtf is an example of which of the following file types?
A. Document
B. Executable
C. Audio
D. Speadsheet
FC0-U51 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
An employee, Joe, forgot his laptop at the airport. Joe is worried about unauthorized access. Which of the following BEST protects against data theft in this instance?
A. Security software
B. Full disk encryption
C. Cable lock
D. Username and password
E. Patching the OS and third party software
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Under which environmental conditions is the risk of Electrostatic discharge (ESD) the highest?
A. Low temperature
B. High humidity
C. Low humidity
D. High temperature
FC0-U51 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
A user is browsing the Internet when suddenly a threatening message appears on screen demanding a payment in
order to avoid the system being disabled. Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware infection?
A. Ransomware
B. Adware
C. Spyware
D. Virus
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is considered an optical storage medium?
A. SSD
B. Blu-Ray
C. Flash drive
D. Memory card
FC0-U51 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which of the following computer components are used to store data? (Select TWO).
A. GPU
B. HDD
C. RAM
D. NIC
E. CPU
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 28
While browsing the Internet, a user receives a warning regarding the display of mixed content. The address bar includes
https, and the lock symbol is showing. Which of the following does this warning indicate about the website?
A. It stores data in cache or cookies, but not both.
B. It requires login credentials for some sections.
C. It contains both secure and non-secure parts.
D. It is best viewed with a different browser.
FC0-U51 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Several users want to share a common folder with high availability. Which of the following devices is BEST to use for
this requirement?
A. Large USB flash drive connected to a PC
B. Medium capacity SATA hard drive
C. Network attached storage appliance
D. Firewall with security management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which of the following are considered input devices for a computer? (Select TWO).
A. Mouse
B. Printer
C. Speakers
D. Microphone
E. Monitor
FC0-U51 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is the bandwidth of an SCSI Ultra2 Wide I/O port?
A. 50 MBps
B. 160 MBps
C. 320 MBps
D. 80 MBps
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
A user, Ann, receives a call asking for her password to troubleshoot a problem. Which of the following describes this type of security threat?
A. Malware
B. Social engineering
C. Spam
D. Physical security
FC0-U51 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
A user has downloaded an application file with the .dmg file extension. Which of the following operating systems can be used with this file by default?
A. iOS
B. Windows
C. Mac OS
D. Chrome OS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which of the following devices transmits and receives printed images over a telephone line?
A. Monitor
B. Fax
C. Scanner
D. Webcam
FC0-U51 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which of the following does the image denote?
FC0-U51 dumps
A. Ground
B. Capacitor
C. Resistor
D. Terminator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A user wants to have the latest security patches and bug fixes installed on a computer. Which of the following is the BEST method to achieve this?
A. Configure anti-malware updates
B. Manually update before each use
C. Update every six months
D. Schedule automatic updates
FC0-U51 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
When connecting a printer to a network, which of the following is needed to complete the process? (Select TWO).
A. IP address
B. User\’s password
C. Computer\’s name
D. Subnet mask
E. HTTP port
F. Fax number
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains. You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates. You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed. You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages. Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the AD RMS cluster
B. the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C. the Active Directory domain controllers
D. the Client Access servers
E. the Mailbox servers
F. the Global Catalog servers
70-342 exam Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: The CRL is exactly what its name implies: a list of subscribers paired with digital certificate status. The list enumerates revoked certificates along with the reason(s) for revocation. The dates of certificate issue, and the entities that issued them, are also included. In addition, each list contains a proposed date for the next release. When a potential user attempts to access a server, the server allows or denies access based on the CRL entry for that particular user.
C: If federation cannot be implemented and the external organization cannot implement their own AD RMS infrastructure, hosting the user accounts can be the best option. However, the cost of managing such accounts (for both the IT department= and each user) must be considered. In this case, the users will need to be authenticated by a domain controller.

QUESTION 8
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM). You create a dial plan named UMPlan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy. You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a UM hunt group
B. Create a UM IP gateway.
C. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX I and EX2.
E. Assign EX I and EX2 to UMPlan1.
F. Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPlan1.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* When you’re setting up Unified Messaging (UM), you must configure the IP PBXs on your network to communicate with the Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service and the Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service in your Exchange organization. You must also configure the Client Access and Mailbox servers to communicate with the IP PBXs.
C: A Unified Messaging (UM) IP gateway represents a physical Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway, IP Private Branch eXchange (PBX), or session border controller (SBC) hardware device.
* Here are the basic steps for connecting VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, SIP-enabled PBXs, or SBCs to Client Access and Mailbox servers:
Step 1: Install the Client Access and Mailbox servers in your organization.
Step 2: Create and configure a Telephone Extension, SIP URI, or E.164 UM dial plan.
Step 3: Create and configure a UM IP gateway. You must create and configure a UM IP gateway for each VoIP gateway, IP PBX, SIP-enabled PBX, or SBC that will be accepting incoming calls and sending outgoing calls.
Step 4: Create a new UM hunt group if needed. If you create a UM IP gateway and don’t specify a UM dial plan, a UM hunt group will be automatically created.
Incorrect:
B, D:
The question states, “You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox”. The dial plan is therefore a Telephone Extension dial plan. Client Access and Mailbox servers cannot be associated with Telephone Extension or E.164 dial plans.

QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization. You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment. The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com. All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com. All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com. You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com. You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B. Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C. Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D. Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E. Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.
70-342 dumps Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. First, the wizard creates the HybridConfiguration object in your on-premises Active Directory.
This Active Directory object stores the hybrid configuration information for the hybrid deployment and is updated by the Hybrid Configuration wizard. Next, the wizard gathers existing on-premises Exchange and Active Directory topology configuration data, Office 365 tenant and Exchange Online configuration data, defines several organization parameters and then runs an extensive sequence of configuration tasks in both the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations.
E:
Note:
* By default, Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 doesn’t allow you to send mail outside of your domain. To send mail outside your domain, you need to create a Send connector.
* Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
/ Parameters include TlsCertificateName
The TlsCertificateName parameter specifies the X.509 certificate to use with TLS sessions and secure mail. Valid input for this parameter is [I]Issuer[S]Subject. The Issuer value is found in the certificate’s Issuer field, and the Subject value is found in the certificate’s Subject field. You can find these values by running the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed. Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App. You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes. You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Export the administrator audit log.
B. Run an administrator role group report.
C. Export the mailbox audit log.
D. Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E. Review the security event log.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: Use the Auditing tab to run reports or export entries from the mailbox audit log and the administrator audit log. / The mailbox audit log records whenever a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox. This can help you determine who has accessed a mailbox and what they have done.
/ The administrator audit log records any action, based on a Windows PowerShell cmdlet, performed by an administrator. This can help you troubleshoot configuration issues or identify the cause of security- or compliance-related problems.
D: Run a Non-Owner Mailbox Access Report
Use this report to find mailboxes that have been accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox.

QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com. All public folders are stored on a server named EX5.
You deploy a new server named EX6. EX6 has Exchange Server 2013 installed. You move all mailboxes to EX6. You need to move the public folders to EX6. The solution must ensure that users can access the public folders after EX5 is decommissioned. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On EX6, create a public folder mailbox.
B. On EX6, run the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet.
C. On EX5, modify the replication partners for all of the public folders.
D. On EX6, run the New-SiteMailboxProvisioningPolicy cmdlet.
E. On EX5, assign the FolderOwner permission to the Public Folder Management management role group for all of the public folders.
F. On EX6, run the MoveAllReplicas.ps1 script.
70-342 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Note: See step 4 and 5 below.
Step 1: Download the migration scripts
Step 2: Prepare for the migration
Step 3: Generate the .csv files
Step 4: Create the public folder mailboxes on the Exchange 2013 server Step 5: Start the migration request Example:
New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest -SourceDatabase (Get-PublicFolderDatabase -Server ) -CSVData (Get-Content   Encoding Byte) -BadItemLimit $BadItemLimitCount
Step 6: Lock down the public folders on the legacy Exchange server for final migration (downtime required) Step 7: Finalize the public folder migration (downtime required) Step 8: Test and unlock the public folder migration

QUESTION 12
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database available group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 contains three Mailbox servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3. DAG1 contains a mailbox database copy named DB1.
You implement a lagged copy of DB1 on Server3. The copy lag time is seven days. You need to ensure that copies of successfully processed email messages are stored on Server1 and Server2 for seven days. What should you modify?
A. The Shadow Redundancy settings
B. The Safety Net settings
C. The settings of DAG1
D. The settings of DB1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Microsoft Exchange 2013 Safety Net is a new feature in Exchange Server 2013 that prevents data loss by maintaining a queue of successfully delivered messages. The Exchange 2013 Safety Net is essentially a delivery queue that exists on each Exchange 2013 mailbox server. Each time a message is delivered to a database, a copy of that message is held within the Safety Net. The message copy remains in the Safety Net until its expiration date, which is determined by the administrator.
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